UPWORK TEST » September 25, 2015

Daily Archives: September 25, 2015

Upwork Computer Skills

Microsoft Word 2010 Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which among the following is not true regarding the use of a pie chart?

Answers:

  1. A pie chart could be used when there is only one data series to be plotted.
  2. A pie chart could be used when the data points in a pie chart are displayed as a percentage of the whole pie.
  3. A pie chart could be used when none of the values that need to be plotted on the chart is negative.
  4. A pie chart should be used when there are more than seven categories.

2. Josh is creating a collage for his college project. He has an image – Image A – which he wants to show in different color themes so as to represent different moods in the collage (Images B, C and D). How can Josh achieve this in Microsoft Word 2010?

Answers:

  1. By using Format Painter.
  2. By altering the Line Color.
  3. By using the Recolor option under Format Picture.
  4. This can’t be achieved in Microsoft Word 2010.

3. My table heading row is not repeating on subsequent pages though I have properly set the header row to repeat. What is one problem that might be causing this behavior?

Answers:

  1. “Allow row to break across pages” is unchecked.
  2. My top and bottom margins are too small.
  3. There are hard page breaks in my table.

4. Using the Draw Table option, it is possible to split an existing table cell into two separate and distinct cells:

Answers:

  1. horizontally
  2. vertically
  3. diagonally

5. If I do not want the contents of one of my fields to automatically update, I would have to do which of the following?

Answers:

  1. Lock the field.
  2. Protect the field.
  3. Make the field hidden.
  4. Turn field shading off.

6. To select vertical blocks of text, you would hold down which key while dragging the mouse?

Answers:

  1. Alt
  2. Ctrl
  3. Shift

7. Below are two statements regarding Breaks in Microsoft Word 2010.

Statement X: Text Wrapping Page Break separates text around objects on web pages, such as caption text from body text.
Statement Y: Continuous Section Break inserts a section break and starts the new section on the next page.

Which of the following options is correct?

Answers:

  1. Statement X is correct. Statement Y is incorrect.
  2. Statement X is incorrect. Statement Y is correct.
  3. Both Statements X and Y are correct.
  4. Both Statements X and Y are incorrect.

8. To convert an existing picture to the shape of a star, which of the options will be useful?

Answers:

  1. Picture Effects
  2. Insert Shapes
  3. Picture Layout
  4. Crop to Shape

9. Which of the following options allows you to arrange drawings in your document so they may be moved, kept together, aligned, or formatted more easily?

Answers:

  1. Insert Clip Art
  2. Insert Flowchart
  3. Insert SmartArt
  4. Insert Quick Parts
  5. Insert Drawing Canvas

10. You need to insert an image of only part of a web page that is currently open in your browser. You would use:

Answers:

  1. Insert, Screenshot
  2. Insert, Screen Clipping
  3. Print Screen
  4. Insert, Image

11. Which of the following is NOT a type of Section Break?

Answers:

  1. Next Page
  2. Linked
  3. EvenPage
  4. Continuous

12. Applying a theme to your document affects all content except tables.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

13. To insert a new citation to a specific book in a Microsoft Word 2010 document, you should select:

Answers:

  1. References” > “Style”.
  2. References” >”Insert Citation” >”Add New Source.
  3. References” >”Insert Citation” >”Add New Placeholder.
  4. None of the above

14. What is the function of Widow/Orphan control in Microsoft Word 2010?

Answers:

  1. It is a feature that prevents single lines of paragraphs from appearing on a separate page from the rest of the paragraph.
  2. It is a feature which indents only the first line of a paragraph.
  3. It is a feature used to change the layout or formatting of a page or pages.
  4. It is feature which is used to insert ghosted text behind the content of the page.

15. Microsoft Word 2010 enables you to wrap text easily around pictures, shapes and tables with any position or style that you want. When should a “Text wrapping break” be used?

Answers:

  1. While applying a wrapping style to an image.
  2. While applying a wrapping style to a table.
  3. When you want to separate text around objects on web pages.
  4. When you want to see the hidden formatting marks used in the page.

16. Microsoft Word 2010 has enabled ligatures for which of the following fonts?

Answers:

  1. Open Type fonts
  2. True Type fonts

17. You want to select all instances of a specific style used in your document. However, the Select All command in the Styles pane is not available (grayed out). You must enable:

Answers:

  1. Formatting marks
  2. Keep track of formatting
  3. Linked styles

18. Consider the following scenario:

A table cell contains text. You place your cursor in that cell and split it into two columns. The resultant text will:

Answers:

  1. be spread across both cells.
  2. be deleted.
  3. remain intact in the first cell and the second cell will be empty.

19. Roger was editing a Word document, when his mobile phone rang. By mistake, some button got clicked on the Word 2010 Ribbon area, so that the document’s appearance changed from Image A to Image B. Which of the following options could be the cause?

Answers:

  1. Margins were activated on the document.
  2. Tables with maximum number of rows and columns was added to the document.
  3. Gridlines were enabled from the View Tab.
  4. A preset Watermark was inserted.

20. When you apply a theme to a Microsoft Word 2010 document, all the tables, charts, SmartArt graphics, shapes, and other objects are updated to complement one another.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

21. Which among the following chart types do not have axes?

Answers:

  1. Bar charts
  2. XY (Scatter) charts
  3. Doughnut charts
  4. Area charts

22. Martha is preparing a trigonometry worksheet for her students. She wants to include the following example in the sheet. Which is the quickest way to achieve this?

Answers:

  1. Click Formula on the Insert tab.
  2. Click Symbol on the Insert tab.
  3. Click WordArt on the Insert tab.
  4. Click Equation on the Insert tab.

23. You want to add an image as the first character in your paragraph. Which type of text wrapping treats your graphic as if it were a character?

Answers:

  1. Through
  2. Square
  3. In Front of Text
  4. In Line with Text

24. If you were writing a book and wanted each chapter to start on the right page, which Section Break would you use to begin each chapter?

Answers:

  1. Even Page
  2. Odd Page
  3. Continuous

25. What view must be used when inserting a subdocument?

Answers:

  1. Print Layout
  2. Web Layout
  3. Outline
  4. Full Screen Reading

26. Sarah receives a company turnover summary in the form of an embedded Excel chart (as shown in the above image) in a Microsoft Word 2010 document from her boss. Her boss wants the chart to be sent over to the Public Relations department with a line in the chart showing the variations in the company’s turnover, as well as a prediction for the next 2 years. The turnover values for each year also need to be sent separately in an Excel file. What should Sarah do to achieve this in the shortest possible time?

Answers:

  1. Take a screenshot of the chart and ask a designer to draw a line showing the trends. She can then type the data manually into an excel sheet.
  2. Import the chart into an Excel sheet and change the formatting of the chart to a line chart. She can then copy the corresponding fields into a separate Excel file and send it over.
  3. Change chart type to a line chart and type all the values into an Excel file.
  4. Use the Trendline feature to create a line showing the trends and copy the data from the Excel sheet field which opens up on clicking Edit Data.

27. With which chart type(s) is the “Depth Gridlines” option available?

Answers:

  1. Bubble chart
  2. Line chart
  3. True 3D chart
  4. All of the above

28. Dave receives a file named Theme1.thmx from his boss. Opening the file opens a blank PowerPoint document. On clarifying from his boss, he learns that the .thmx file contains a particular theme which needs to be applied to the annual report on which Dave is working. How can Dave achieve this?

Answers:

  1. By pasting all the text of the report in the PowerPoint file which opens on double clicking the .thmx file and then saving it as a Word document.
  2. By opening the .thmx file with Microsoft Word 2010 and pasting the complete report text into it.
  3. Dave’s Boss is wrong. No such arrangement is possible in Microsoft Word 2010.
  4. By opening the Word file containing the report, and importing the theme from the .thmx file by using the “Browse for themes” option on the Page Layout tab.

29. Why would you use content controls in a document?

Answers:

  1. To get information from another source and have it appear at a specific place in a document.For example, the customer data automatically appears when you create a new invoice.
  2. To create a document and restrict what people can do with it. For example, you create a document that contains legal language, and you want to ensure people don’t accidentally change or delete any of its text.
  3. To create structured regions of a document that people fill out. For example, the cover page of the proposal can’t be changed except by filling out the title and author.
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the above

30. If a table cell is vertically split into two separate cells using the Draw Table option, any existing text in the cell will be split up and text will appear in both of the two newly created cells.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

31. Samantha is given an article to proofread. The article runs into hundreds of pages. She is asked to use hyphens to allow words in the article to break between two lines. There is an option in Microsoft Word 2010 which can be used to achieve this result with a single click. Please identify it.

Answers:

  1. Breaks
  2. Indentation
  3. Orientation
  4. Hyphenation

32. Which among the following options represents Legend entries in the given picture?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. None of the above

33. Which of the following protects a document from changes in Microsoft Word 2010?

Answers:

  1. Restrict Editing
  2. Encrypt with Password
  3. Add a Digital Signature
  4. Mark as Final
  5. All of the above

34. Anna selects a paragraph in a Microsoft Word 2010 file. On the horizontal ruler, she drags the Hanging Indent marker to the left. What will happen?

Answers:

  1. The whole paragraph will get indented to the left.
  2. The first line will get indented to the left.
  3. All but the first line will get indented to the left.<

35. When using the booklet-printing feature, the term “gutter” refers to the space between page content and the fold in the middle of the paper where you would normally bind pages together.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

36. While working on a project report, Anna inserts various citations in the MLA style by using the Insert Citation option on the References tab. On completing the report, she realizes that she was required to use the Chicago style. To correct this, Anna should:

Answers:

  1. change all the citations individually to the desired style.
  2. remove all the citations and then enter them afresh in the new style.
  3. Select Chicago from the Style dropdown list on the References tab.

37. In Microsoft Word 2010, “Keep lines together” paragraph formatting:

Answers:

  1. works well for paragraphs within a table if “Allow row to break across pages” is also selected.
  2. automatically enables the text rows to break across pages.
  3. does not work for paragraphs within a table if “Allow row to break across pages” is also selected.
  4. always works for paragraphs within a table.

38. On creating her two page resume, Emma finds the paragraph heading for her “Professional Achievements” paragraph is showing at the bottom of the first page, while the details are on the next page. To keep the paragraph heading as well as the paragraph text on the same page, and assuming there are no empty paragraph markers in the document and the widow/orphan option is turned on, Emma should click in the paragraph heading and select which option from the Paragraph group:

Answers:

  1. Keep lines together
  2. Keep with next
  3. Widow/orphan

39. If your table of contents is not hyperlinking when you click on the page number, what do you need to do?

Answers:

  1. Regenerate the table of contents.
  2. Add H to the table of contents field.
  3. Add L to the table of contents field.
  4. Press Ctrl H.

40. Choose the INCORRECT statement:

Answers:

  1. Only high-risk documents from an uncertain location are opened in Read-Only view.
  2. All documents that contain macros open in Read-Only view.

41. A particular chart layout can be applied to a chart only if:

Answers:

  1. it has been saved as a template in the Charts Template folder.
  2. it has been set as the default chart.
  3. it is a 2D chart.
  4. it is a 3D chart.

42. You are editing a shape using the Drawing Tools. Which among the following Shape Fill options in the Shape Styles group gives you control over the transparency for a shape?

Answers:

  1. Fill color, More Fill Colors
  2. Background Color
  3. Texture
  4. Pattern

43. If you want to create a citation and fill in the source information later, you should:

Answers:

  1. insert a caption.
  2. add a placeholder.
  3. add a new source.
  4. insert a cross-reference.

44. Josh is to create a technical write-up comprising short paragraphs with double line spacing. Each paragraph is to be separated from the other by a single line space. He writes a paragraph, selects the text, points to Line Spacing on the paragraph toolbar and sets it to 2.0. He gets the paragraph double spaced. The moment he clicks enter to start a new paragraph, it automatically gets double spaced. How can Josh achieve paragraphs separated by single line spaces from each other within the document?

Answers:

  1. He sets the Line Spacing on the formatting toolbar to 1.0.
  2. He selects the double-spaced paragraphs and clicks on Paragraph.Then under Indents and Spacing, he sets the Spacing “Before” and “After” options to zero.
  3. He uses the Shift and Enter keys at the same time to create a new paragraph.
  4. He selects the double-spaced paragraphs and clicks on Paragraph. Then under Indents and Spacing, he sets the Spacing “Before” and “After” options to Auto.

45. Which of the following is NOT an option when inserting a Cross-reference?

Answers:

  1. Numbered item
  2. SmartArt
  3. Heading
  4. Equation
  5. Table

46. How many items can be maintained on the clipboard at one time?

Answers:

  1. One
  2. Up to 24
  3. Unlimited
  4. Up to 100

47. You are editing a shape. Which among the following Shape Fill options in the Shape Styles group gives you control over the transparency for a shape?

Answers:

  1. Fill color, More Fill Colors
  2. Background Color
  3. Texture
  4. Pattern

48. While editing a Word document on his computer, Pete looked aside to pick up his ringing mobile phone. In the process, he mistakenly pressed a key on the Word 2010 Ribbon area and the document’s appearance changed from as in Image A to as in Image B. Which of the following options could be the cause?

Answers:

  1. Margins were activated on the document.
  2. Tables with maximum number of rows and columns were added to the document.
  3. Gridlines were enabled from the View Tab.
  4. A preset Watermark was inserted.

49. You need to email a picture to your co-workers, but the file is too large. Where on the Picture Tools ribbon would you find the option to minimize the file size for email sharing purposes:

Answers:

  1. Corrections
  2. Change Picture
  3. Compress Picture
  4. Picture Layout

4,985 total views, 13 views today

Upwork Computer Skills

Microsoft PowerPoint 2010 Test 2016

Published by:

1. What does the Set Transparent Color Wand do?

Answers:

  1. Makes pictures and clip art transparent
  2. Makes text transparent
  3. Makes one color in a picture or clip art transparent
  4. Makes the slide background transparent

2. Suppose you have 5 slides in your presentation and you want to print specific slides 3 to 5. Which of the following ranges is correct?

Answers:

  1. 3-5
  2. 2-6
  3. 1,2,3,4,5
  4. None of the above

3. What feature lets you have several shows within the same presentation, for example, a 30-minute show and a 60-minute show?

Answers:

  1. Open Document Presentations
  2. Custom Shows
  3. Kiosk Mode Shows
  4. Notes Page Presentations

4. What does the Broadcast Slide Show feature do?

Answers:

  1. It publishes your presentation as HTML
  2. It uploads your presentation as a website
  3. It broadcasts your presentation for remote viewers to watch in a web browser
  4. None of the above

5. What type of animation does this yellow icon denote?

Answers:

  1. Entrance
  2. Emphasis
  3. Exit

6. Which of the following is true about the symbol denoted as ‘A’ in the picture?

Answers:

  1. This symbol indicates a hidden slide.
  2. This symbol appears when you insert a picture.
  3. This symbol appears when you add either an animation or a transition to a slide.

7. What has been applied to transform the picture on the left to the one on the right?

Answers:

  1. A Picture Style
  2. A Picture Effects Preset
  3. An Artistic Effect
  4. A Color Correction

8. Which of the following is not a category of transition?

Answers:

  1. Subtle
  2. Exciting
  3. Dynamic Content
  4. Emphasis

9. In Microsoft PowerPoint 2010, how would you crop a picture to an exact set of dimensions?

Answers:

  1. Under Picture Tools, on the Format tab, in the Size group, click Dialog Box Launcher, then Crop. Enter the size numbers in the Width, Height, Left and Top boxes.
  2. Select the picture and right click on it. Select Size and Position from the list and then enter the size numbers in the Width, Height, Left and Top boxes.
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of the above

10. What is the “Browsed at a kiosk” option in the Set Up Show dialog box used for?

Answers:

  1. It is used to discard the recorded slide timings.
  2. It sets the exact length of time for a slide to appear.
  3. It disallows random mouse clicks to advance a slide and forces the user to use provided navigation buttons or links.
  4. None of the above

11. Which of the following options would you choose to turn off the narration?

Answers:

  1. On the Insert tab, in the Slides group, click narration, then “Stop narration.”
  2. Select narration and right click on it. Select Mute from the list.
  3. On the Slide Show tab, in the Set Up group, click Set Up Slide Show. Select the ‘Show without narration’ check box.
  4. All of the above

12. How do you change the colors of a SmartArt Diagram?

Answers:

  1. Use the Reset Graphic button on the SmartArt Design tab
  2. Use the Change Colors button on the SmartArt Design tab
  3. Use the SmartArt Styles gallery on the SmartArt Design tab
  4. None of the above

13. When you paste slides into a presentation, how do you maintain their original formatting?

Answers:

  1. Click the Insert Slide Design button on the Home tab
  2. Click the Format Slide button in the Slides Pane
  3. Select another template from the Slide Design pane
  4. Right-click in the Slides Pane and click the “Keep Source Formatting” icon in the Paste Options area

14. How do you insert a new slide master into a presentation?

Answers:

  1. In Master View, click the Insert Layout button
  2. In Master View, click the Insert Slide Master button
  3. In Slide Sorter View, click the Insert Slide Design button
  4. In Normal editing View, click the Insert Slide Design button

15. Which file format includes macros that can be used in a presentation?

Answers:

  1. .potx
  2. .pptx
  3. .ppxm
  4. .pptm

16. Which of the following properties allows you to set the orientation of the notes/handouts/outline of a Microsoft PowerPoint 2010 presentation?

Answers:

  1. Page Setup
  2. Slide Show
  3. Switch Windows
  4. Layout

17. How will you enable or disable Message Bar alerts in Microsoft PowerPoint 2010?

Answers:

  1. Click on the File Menu, then click Options. Click on Trust Center, then click Trust Center Settings, and then click Message bar.
  2. On the Review tab, in the Comments group, click Message bar.
  3. Both a and b

18. How would you write on the slides during a slide show?

Answers:

  1. In the Slide Sorter view, right-click on the slide that you want to write on, point to Pen Options, and then click on a pen. Drag it to write.
  2. On the Slide Show tab, in the Set Up group, select a pen and then drag it to write.
  3. In the Slide Show view, right-click on the slide that you want to write on, point to Pointer Options, and then click on a pen or a highlighter option. Hold down the left mouse button and drag to write.
  4. All of the above

19. How do you display the keyboard accelerators in Microsoft PowerPoint 2010?

Answers:

  1. Press and hold the ALT button
  2. Press and hold the CTRL button
  3. Press and hold the SHIFT button
  4. Press and hold the WINDOWS button

20. Which of the following tools does not appear on the Arrange dropdown on the Home tab?

Answers:

  1. Group
  2. Rotate
  3. Size and position
  4. Selection pane

21. Refer to the given image.

Which of the following fill options does not have a transparency option?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

22. State whether True or False:

You can add your own placeholders to the Slide Layouts.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

23. Which chart type is represented in the given picture?

Answers:

  1. Radar charts
  2. Surface charts
  3. XY (scatter) charts
  4. Bar charts

24. How will you read comments that reviewers have added to your presentation?

Answers:

  1. On the View tab, in the Show/Hide group, click on Show Comments.
  2. On the Review tab, in the Comments group, click on Show Markup.
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of the above

25. In addition to turning on the slide numbers in the Header and Footer dialog on the Insert menu, you also need a ___________ available on the slide masters and layouts.

Answers:

  1. Placeholder
  2. Text box
  3. Callout
  4. Slide Title

26. How would you create text in the shape of a half-circle?

Answers:

  1. Insert Word Art
  2. Drawing Tools Format, Edit Shape
  3. Drawing Tools Format, Text Effects, Transform
  4. Drawing Tools Format, WordArt Gallery

27. Which State whether True or False:
When adding commands to the Ribbon, you must first create a custom group for those commands.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

28. What does the Remove Background tool do?

Answers:

  1. Removes graphics from a slide background
  2. Makes an image background transparent
  3. Deletes speaker notes and file properties

29. What type of hidden data and personal information cannot be detected by the Document Inspector in Microsoft PowerPoint 2010?

Answers:

  1. It cannot detect or remove off-slide objects with animation effects.
  2. It cannot remove pictures that are added to the notes section of a presentation.
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of the above

30. By default, when you paste a chart from Excel into PowerPoint 2010, is it linked or embedded?

Answers:

  1. It is linked
  2. It is embedded

31. You’ve applied an Orbit transition to a slide. How do you make it enter from the bottom instead of the right?

Answers:

  1. Use the Effect Options button on the Transitions tab
  2. Use the Directions setting in Transition Preview
  3. Click Orbit twice in the Transitions gallery
  4. None of the above

32. How do you adjust the hanging indent in a bulleted list?

Answers:

  1. Drag the indent markers on the ruler
  2. Click the indent button on the Drawing Tools Format tab
  3. Right-click in the textbox and choose Edit Text
  4. Click the Insert Tabs button on the Home tab of the Ribbon

33. In which video file format does the Create a Video feature save the presentation in Microsoft Powerpoint 2010.

Answers:

  1. WMA
  2. WMV
  3. MPEG
  4. AVI

34. Which picture format maintains transparency in Microsoft PowerPoint 2010?

Answers:

  1. .png
  2. .gif
  3. .jpg
  4. .wmf

35. You’ve applied a motion path animation to an object and locked it. When you move the object on the slide in Normal editing View, the locked motion path does what?

Answers:

  1. Stays in place
  2. Moves with the object
  3. Becomes straight
  4. None of the above

36. Which of the following paste options is used to paste a slide and maintain its original formatting?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

37. When you double-click the file icon on your desktop, your presentation should open in Slide Show View as a full-screen presentation. Which file format will you use to save your presentation so it behaves in this manner?

Answers:

  1. .pptx
  2. .ppsx
  3. .potx
  4. .pptm

38. Which of the following defines the correct purpose of using a poster frame image?

Answers:

  1. To add still image introduction to the video
  2. To add visual effect to the narration
  3. To insert a picture on any part of the screen
  4. To create or edit a presentation based on a set of pictures

39. How would you play a sound as background music throughout a presentation?

Answers:

  1. Insert the sound on slide 1 and on the Audio Tools Playback tab, choose Start: Play Across Slides
  2. Insert the sound on the slide master and on the Audio Tools Playback tab, choose Start: Play Across Slides
  3. Insert the sound on the slide master and on the Audio Tools Playback tab, choose Stop Playing After <number of> Slides
  4. None of the above

40. How do you turn on the Developer tab in Microsoft PowerPoint 2010?

Answers:

  1. Choose File, Options, Customize the Ribbon, and click the box to choose Developer Tab in the Main Tabs command well
  2. Right-click the Ribbon and choose Show Developer Tab in the Ribbon
  3. Both A and B
  4. Neither A nor B

41. What does a trigger animation do?

Answers:

  1. Starts an animation when an object is clicked
  2. Advances to the next slide when the mouse is clicked
  3. Initiates a macro in a slide show
  4. None of the above

42. How do you apply a template to just a few slides in a presentation?

Answers:

  1. Select the slides, then click the template or theme in the Design Gallery
  2. Select the slides, then right-click the template or theme in the Design Gallery and choose Apply to Selected Slides
  3. Both A and B
  4. Neither A nor B

43. How would you add a logo to all the slides in a presentation?

Answers:

  1. In the Normal editing View, paste the logo onto every slide in the presentation.
  2. In the Slide Master View, add the logo to the slide master and the title slide layout.
  3. In the Slide Master View, add the logo to the blank slide layout.
  4. None of the above

44. To add a second animation to an object you must

Answers:

  1. Select multiple animations in the Animation gallery on the Animations tab of the Ribbon
  2. Click Add Animation on the Animations tab of the Ribbon
  3. Open the Animation Pane and click the Advanced Animation button
  4. Change the timing settings in the animation pane

45. Which of the following is not true regarding Action buttons in Microsoft PowerPoint 2010?

Answers:

  1. Action buttons are ready-made buttons that can be inserted into the presentation.
  2. Action buttons contain mathematical values.
  3. Action buttons can contain hyperlinks to other slides or files.

46. State whether True or False:

You can change the orientation of just a few slides in the presentation.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

47. What is the use of the SmartArt Graphic Control in Microsoft PowerPoint 2010 as shown in the picture?

Answers:

  1. It is used to zoom the Shapes.
  2. It is used to add the watermark on the Shapes.
  3. It is used to display the Text Input Pane.
  4. None of the above

48. Which of the following is not a View type in Microsoft PowerPoint 2010?

Answers:

  1. Normal view
  2. Slide Sorter view
  3. Reading view
  4. Page view

49. Which of the following views allows the user to add pictures to the printed notes?

Answers:

  1. Normal View
  2. Reading View
  3. Notes Page View
  4. Handout Master View

50. How do you save a Microsoft PowerPoint 2010 presentation as a video file?

Answers:

  1. Choose Slide Show -> Record Video
  2. Choose File -> Compress Media
  3. Choose File -> Share-> Publish Slides
  4. Choose File -> Save & Send -> Create a Video

51. Which of the following views displays the slides in thumbnail form, as shown in the picture?

Answers:

  1. Normal view
  2. Slide Sorter view
  3. Slide Show view
  4. All of the above

52. Refer to the given image. Which table style option should be selected when the last row of the table has to be emphasized?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

53. Which of the following is an invalid file name for saving a Microsoft PowerPoint 2010?

Answers:

  1. AB#CD
  2. AB-CD
  3. AB*CD
  4. AB$CD

54. Which of the following presentation views would you select when you need to change a placeholder that appears on multiple slides?

Answers:

  1. Normal view
  2. Slide Sorter view
  3. Slide Show view
  4. Slide Master View

55. How will you hide a slide in Microsoft PowerPoint 2010?

Answers:

  1. In the pane on the left of the screen in Normal View, click on the Slides tab. Right-click on the slide that you want to hide, and then click ‘Hide Slide'”
  2. On the Slide Show tab, in the Set Up group, click ‘Hide Slide’
  3. In Slide Sorter View, right-click the slide that you want to hide and click “Hide Slide”
  4. All of the above

56. When your cursor is in the last cell of a table, what does pressing Tab do?

Answers:

  1. Adds a row at the bottom of the table
  2. Adds a row at the top of the table
  3. Adds a column to the right of the current cell
  4. Places your cursor on the next object on the slide

57. Which type of sound files can be embedded in a presentation?

Answers:

  1. WAV
  2. MP3
  3. MIDI
  4. All of the above

58. How do you turn off the video control bar so that it doesn’t show when your presentation is in Slide Show View?

Answers:

  1. On the Slide Show tab, uncheck Show Media Controls
  2. On the Video Tools Playback tab of the Ribbon, uncheck Trim Video
  3. On the Video Tools Playback tab of the Ribbon, uncheck Show Video Slider
  4. You cannot turn off this control

59. What is meant by Slide Transitions?

Answers:

  1. They are animation-like effects and are used to animate the text in a slide.
  2. They are animation-like effects and are used to animate SmartArt graphics.
  3. They are animation-like effects that occur in the Slide Show View when the user moves from one slide to the next.
  4. None of the above

60. Which option adds an icon on a slide master as shown in the picture?

Answers:

  1. Photo album
  2. Preserve master
  3. Master layout
  4. None of the above

61. What tool is being used?

Answers:

  1. Remove Background
  2. Artistic Effects
  3. Color Corrections
  4. Picture Style

62. What does the Animation Painter do?

Answers:

  1. Applies animations from one object to another
  2. Applies formatting from one object to another
  3. Adds a color change animation to text
  4. Adds animation that simulates handwriting

63. Suppose you’ve created a SmartArt Diagram on your slide, but then you decided you want to use a different diagram. How can you change the SmartArt Diagram without starting over completely?

Answers:

  1. Right-click the diagram and choose Change Layout
  2. Choose another layout from the SmartArt Layouts gallery
  3. Both A and B
  4. None of the above

64. Which of the following animation Effect Options will you choose when you want the SmartArt diagram to animate piece by piece?

Answers:

  1. One by one
  2. As one object
  3. Dim after animation
  4. By 1st Level Paragraphs

65. How do you add a shape to a SmartArt Diagram?

Answers:

  1. Use the Shapes gallery on the Insert tab and click and drag on the slide to draw the shape
  2. Use the Add Shape button on the Insert tab
  3. Use the Insert and Merge SmartArt Diagrams tool
  4. Use the Add Shape button on the SmartArt Tools Design tab

66. How do you resize a picture and maintain its aspect ratio?

Answers:

  1. Drag the corner of the picture
  2. Press CTRL and drag the corner of the picture
  3. Press SHIFT and drag the corner of the picture
  4. Drag the green handle on the top of the picture

67. What does the Reset button on the Home tab do?

Answers:

  1. Resizes the slide to fit the workspace
  2. Removes picture customizations
  3. Reapplies background graphics
  4. Returns placeholders to their original positions and formatting

68. What is the quickest method to import multiple photographs into a slide show, two on each slide?

Answers:

  1. Apply a multiple-picture layout to several slides and use the Clip Art icon in the placeholders to import your pictures.<span.
  2. On the Insert menu, click Picture and select your pictures in a group for each slide.
  3. On the Insert menu, click Photo Album and choose Insert picture from File/Disk.
  4. On the Insert menu, click Screenshot, then Screen Clipping.

69. What does the Compare tool do?

Answers:

  1. Compares changes in two presentations
  2. Compares one image to another to indicate differences
  3. Compares file size
  4. Compares presentations for backward compatibility

70. Which of the following is a feature of the Selection and Visibility pane?

Answers:

  1. Ability to hide objects
  2. Ability to rename objects
  3. Ability to re-order objects
  4. All of the above

71. Which of the following handles is indicated by ‘A’ as shown in the picture?

Answers:

  1. The Opacity handle.
  2. The 3d-handle.
  3. The Rotation handle.
  4. The Cropping handle.

72. What is one way to ensure that the sound icon doesn’t show in the presentation?

Answers:

  1. By choosing Hide During Show from the Audio Tools Playback tab of the Ribbon
  2. By applying a transparent picture fill effect to the sound icon on the slide
  3. By clicking the Sound Options Dialog Launcher on the Ribbon and checking Hide audio icon during slide show
  4. All of the above

73. In the Customize Ribbon dialog, choosing Reset All Customizations does what?

Answers:

  1. It restores the Ribbon to the default settings.
  2. It restores the Quick Access Toolbar to the default settings.
  3. It restores both the Ribbon and the Quick Access Toolbar to the default settings.

74. What is one thing the Compress Pictures feature does?

Answers:

  1. Changes all pictures from color to black and white
  2. Decreases the contrast of all pictures in the presentation
  3. Permanently deletes cropped areas of pictures
  4. Condenses the pictures to one area of the slide

75. The image given above is that of the Recording toolbar, which appears when you Rehearse Timings. What does the part of the toolbar marked ‘A’ in the image refer to?

Answers:

  1. It displays the slide time.
  2. It displays the total presentation time.
  3. It displays the time taken by the first slide.
  4. None of the above

76. How would you remove the first two minutes from a 5-minute video that’s been inserted into a Microsoft PowerPoint 2010 presentation?

Answers:

  1. On the Video Tools Format tab of the Ribbon, choose Crop and then Crop From Beginning
  2. On the Video Tools Playback tab of the Ribbon, choose Trim Video
  3. On the Video Tools Playback tab of the Ribbon, choose Crop and then Trim Video
  4. You cannot trim video in Microsoft PowerPoint 2010; you must use video editing software to do this

77. Which of the following areas can be used in a slide to add Text?

Answers:

  1. Placeholder
  2. Shape
  3. Text Box
  4. All of the above

78. Refer to the given image.
What happens if you click the icon marked A?

Answers:

  1. It takes you to the Slide Master.
  2. It takes you to Print Preview.
  3. It takes you to Speaker Notes View.
  4. It takes you to Normal View.

79. Which of the following options is not included under the File tab in Microsoft PowerPoint 2010?

Answers:

  1. Save as
  2. Print
  3. New
  4. Share
  5. Page Layout

80. You have applied a circle motion path to an object. How do you make the object animate counterclockwise instead of clockwise?

Answers:

  1. Click the Animation dialog launcher on the Ribbon and choose Rewind when done playing
  2. Click the Animation dialog launcher on the Ribbon and choose Auto-reverse
  3. On the Animations tab of the Ribbon, click Effect Options and choose Reverse Path Direction
  4. None of the above

81. Which multimedia file formats can be embedded into Microsoft PowerPoint 2010?

Answers:

  1. .mov
  2. .wmv
  3. .wav
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the above

82. Refer to the given picture. What does the icon marked ‘A’ on the status bar represent?

Answers:

  1. Macros
  2. Marked as final
  3. Animation
  4. None of the above

3,235 total views, 13 views today

Upwork Computer Skills

Microsoft OutLook 2007 Test 2016

Published by:

1. For which of the given features does Outlook contain a logging option?

Answers:

  1. Reminders
  2. Offline Address Book
  3. Calendar modifications
  4. All of the above

2. Which of the following items cannot be archived?

Answers:

  1. Calendar
  2. Contacts
  3. Notes
  4. Tasks

3. Refer to the given image.
When does this Warning message appear?

Answers:

  1. When you attempt to forward, or reply to, a message
  2. When you attempt to edit a message
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of the above

4. Which option will you choose to send an e-mail message with a report as an Excel attachment?

Answers:

  1. On the File menu, click Send E-mail with Excel Attachment
  2. On the Reports toolbar, click the Send E-mail with report as Excel Attachment button
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of the above

5. State whether True or False.

Certificate files have either a.p7c or.cer file extension.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

6. Refer to the given image.
Which option will you select to turn on Inline comments and create identifying text?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

7. Refer to the given image.
Which option displays a command in the given picture?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of the above

8. Refer to the picture.
What is not true about an additional time zone?

Answers:

  1. It is used to show a second time bar in Calendar view
  2. The additional time zone is not affected by the current time zone settings
  3. The additional time zone affects the way in which calendar items are stored or displayed
  4. All of the above

9. Which option is used to refresh a report?

Answers:

  1. On the Tools menu, Click Options and then select Refresh Report
  2. On the Go menu, Click Refresh Report
  3. On the View menu, Click Refresh Report
  4. All of the above

10. Which of the following types of internet calendars are not updated automatically in the Outlook?

Answers:

  1. Calendar Snapshots
  2. Internet Calendar Subscriptions
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of the above

11. Refer to the given image.

Which tab contains the ”Always show full menus” check box?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. None of the above

12. Refer to the given image.
Which of the following rules work only for Exchange accounts?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of the above

13. Which of the following types of address books require you to use an Exchange account?

Answers:

  1. Outlook Address Book
  2. Global Address List
  3. Internet directory services
  4. All of the above

14. Which type of communication history items cannot be linked to Account, Business contact, Opportunity and Business project?

Answers:

  1. Appointment
  2. Phone Log
  3. File
  4. Opportunity

15. Which option will you select to get information about your online or offline status?

Answers:

  1. Business Contact Manager toolbar��
  2. Connection Status��
  3. Database online or Database offline message��
  4. All of the above

16. Refer to the given image and state whether True or False.
The Reconnect at login check box automatically connects to this network drive each time you start Microsoft Windows.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

17. State whether True or False.

Attachments, such as files or e-mail messages cannot be added to project tasks, but they can be added to the linked Business Project.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

18. Which of the following is the way to receive notifications about updates to a SharePoint site in Outlook 2007?

Answers:

  1. RSS.
  2. Alerts
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of the above

19. Which standard form is used for logging information about an item or event?

Answers:

  1. Post
  2. Journal Entry
  3. Appointment
  4. Task Request

20. Which type of attachment files does Outlook not block?

Answers:

  1. .Bat
  2. .Exe
  3. .Js
  4. .Xls

21. With which types of e-mail accounts can the Junk E-mail filter be used?

Answers:

  1. POP3 account
  2. IMAP account
  3. Outlook Connector for MSN
  4. All of the above

22. Which type of communication history item is not saved in the Business Contact Manager for Outlook?

Answers:

  1. Business note
  2. Business project
  3. Phone log
  4. File

23. Which option will you select to change the size of an individual note?

Answers:

  1. Drag the lower-right corner of the note to the size that you want
  2. Double-click the bar across the top of the note
  3. In the upper-left corner of the note, right-click the note icon, and then click Minimize or Maximize
  4. All of the above

24. Which of the following parts does the To-Do Bar consist of?

Answers:

  1. Date Navigator
  2. Appointments section
  3. Task list
  4. All of the above

25. Which option will you choose to Mark a task complete?

Answers:

  1. Click the Flag Status column in the Message list, in Tasks, in the To-Do Bar, or in the Daily Task List in Calendar
  2. Right-click the task in Tasks, in the To-Do Bar, or in the Daily Task List in Calendar
  3. Open an e-mail message marked with the task flag
  4. All of the above

26. Which option will you choose to add a RSS Feed in Outlook?

Answers:

  1. On the Tools menu, click account settings. Select RSS feeds tab
  2. Select View > Toolbars > RSS feeds
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of the above

27. In which folder is the distribution list saved?

Answers:

  1. Notes
  2. Tasks
  3. Contacts
  4. Mail

28. Which option will you choose to see the completion status of all the project tasks linked to this Business Project record?

Answers:

  1. Project tasks
  2. Project overview
  3. Priority
  4. Categories

29. Refer to the given image.
Which of the following options will you select when you want to include a signature in all your multimedia messages?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. None of the above

 

30. Which option will you select to insert a hyperlink in Microsoft Outlook?

Answers:

  1. Type the hyperlink in the item
  2. Drag a hyperlink into the item
  3. In an open item, on the Insert tab, in the Links group, click Hyperlink
  4. All of the above

31. Refer to the given image.
Which search option is not selected by default?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

32. State whether True or False.

Meeting requests do not work in a SharePoint calendar.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

33. Which option will you select to reduce the size of a Personal folders file?

Answers:

  1. Select Tools > Account settings. Select Data Files tab, Click Settings and then select compact now
  2. On the File menu, click Data File Management. Select Settings and then click Compact Now.
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of the above

34. Refer to the given image
Which option will you select to create a connection to a Shared Network folder?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

35. State whether True or False.

The Outlook.ost files are used only when you have an Exchange Server account and choose to work offline or use the Cached Exchange Mode

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

36. Which option will you choose to turn on the Reading pane?

Answers:

  1. Select View > Reading Pane > Right
  2. Select View > Reading Pane > Bottom
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of the above

37. Which option will you select to digitally sign a macro project?

Answers:

  1. On the Tools menu, point to Macro, and then click Macros
  2. On the Tools menu, point to Macro, and then click Visual Basic Editor
  3. Select Go > Macros
  4. All of the above

38. Which option will you choose to turn off the Duplicate Detection Feature?

Answers:

  1. On the Tools menu, click Options. Click Contact Options, and then unmark the checkbox for duplicate Contacts check box
  2. On the View menu, Click contact options, and then unmark the checkbox for duplicate contacts check box
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of the above

39. Which option allows you to preview the first three lines in unread messages?

Answers:

  1. AutoPreview
  2. Multiline layout
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of the above

40. State whether True or False.
In the Reading Pane, you can read the content of an item, open attachments, follow a hyperlink and use voting buttons.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

41. Refer to the given image.
Which tab will you choose to make Outlook the default program for E-mail, Contacts, and Calendar?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

42. In which type of files does the Inbox Repair tool(Scanpst.exe) scan or repair errors?

Answers:

  1. .Pst
  2. .Ost
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of the above

43. Refer to the given image.
When does an attachment appear in the body of the message?

Answers:

  1. When the message format is rich text
  2. When the message format is HTML
  3. When the message format is plain text
  4. All of the above

44. Which of the following options do not add received flagged e-mail messages automatically?

Answers:

  1. Tasks
  2. To-Do Bar
  3. Daily Task List
  4. All of the above

45. State whether True or False.

The color of overdue items in Calendar in the Daily Task List cannot be changed as shown in the given picture.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

46. Which option will you select to turn off the Favorite folders?

Answers:

  1. Select View menu > Navigation Pane, and click Favorite folders to remove the check mark
  2. Right-click the Favorite folders and select Off from the list
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of the above

47. Refer to the given image.
When do we use ‘then by ‘option in the list?

Answers:

  1. When we need not to reverse the sorting order
  2. When we need to reverse the sorting order
  3. When we need to sort the record on time basis
  4. All of the above

48. Refer to the given image.
Which of the following options display events and appointments in the month?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. None of the above

49. Refer to the given image.
Which icon displays that the message is of high importance?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. None of the above

50. Refer to the given image.
Which among the following calendar symbols display data conflict in Outlook?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

51. State whether True or False.

Standard Outlook forms’ customizations can be programmed by using Microsoft Visual Basic Scripting Edition.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

52. Which of the following options display the RSS Feeds icon in the given image?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. All of the above

53. With which extension is a file saved when you export ‘Rules’?

Answers:

  1. .VCF
  2. .VCS
  3. .ICS
  4. .RWZ

1,057 total views, 1 views today

Upwork Computer Skills

Microsoft Excel 2010 Test 2016

Published by:

1. Suppose you clone the slicer shown in the image above into another worksheet in Microsoft Excel 2010. Considering that you make changes to the tile selected, in one of the slicers, which of the following statements shall be true?

Answers:

  1. All cloned copies of that slicer are also updated instantly.
  2. Only the original slicer reflects the changes being made.
  3. An error is displayed because no updations are allowed in slicers having cloned copies.
  4. None of the above.

2. How would you assign a macro to a graphic?

Answers:

  1. On the Developer tab, in the Code group, click on Macros.
  2. On the View tab, click on Macros and then click on Assign Macro on the shortcut menu. In the Macro name box, click on the macro that you want to assign.
  3. On a worksheet, right-click on the graphic, then click on Assign Macro on the shortcut menu. In the Macro name box, click on the macro that you want to assign.

3. State whether following statement regarding cell references in Microsoft Excel 2010 is true or false:
A Relative cell reference consists of the column letter and row number surrounded by dollar signs ($).

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

4. Slicers are filtering components which are used to filter the data in a PivotTable report or CUBE functions. Which of the following data sources is/are supported by Slicers in Microsoft Excel 2010?

Answers:

  1. Office Database connections
  2. Online Analytical Processing (OLAP) Queries
  3. Online Analytical Processing (OLAP) Cube Files
  4. All of the above

5. Which of the following tools is used to format Excel worksheet data, as shown in the figure above?

Answers:

  1. Slicer
  2. SmartArt
  3. Macros

6. In the given screenshot, the letter X is pointing to an area between the first Row header, and the first Column header. What will happen when this particular area is selected?

Answers:

  1. It will select the whole sheet.
  2. It will close and save this particular worksheet of the workbook.
  3. Nothing will happen.
  4. It will hide this particular worksheet.

7. Which of the following components of Excel Services enables the user to edit a published workbook inside a web browser?

Answers:

  1. Excel Calculation Services (ECS)
  2. Excel Web Access (EWA)
  3. Excel Web Services (EWS)

8.What is the filename extension of Excel workbooks which are saved as ‘Excel Templates’?

Answers:

  1. .xlsx
  2. .xslt
  3. .xltx
  4. .slk

9. State whether following statement regarding images in Microsoft Excel 2010 is true or false:
Microsoft Excel 2010 supports 3D rotation of images.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

10. In the above given screenshot of a Microsoft Excel 2010 Worksheet, there are two columns B and D containing some integer data.
Considering that cell D9 is assigned the formula: =SUM(D3:D7), which of the following statements is true?

Answers:

  1. The value of cell D9 will be 24
  2. The value of cell D9 will be 42
  3. The value of cell D9 will be #VALUE!

11. Which of the following statements are true regarding PowerPivot in Microsoft Excel 2010?

Answers:

  1. PowerPivot streamlines the process of integrating data from multiple sources like databases, spreadsheets, reports and text files.
  2. PowerPivot does not allow access to slicers when working on data in PowerPivot.
  3. Version control and tracking are NOT supported by PowerPivot.

12. With reference to the screenshot given, which of the following formulae CANNOT be used to calculate the average of the column ‘Marks’ in the cell ‘E17’?

Answers:

  1. =AVERAGE(E6,E7,E8,E9,E10,E11,E12,E13,E14,E15)
  2. =AVERAGE(E6:E15)
  3. =(SUM(E6:E15)/COUNT(E6:E15))
  4. =AVERAGE(E6 to E15)

13. Which of the following statements is true regarding MS Excel Web Access on a SharePoint Foundation 2010 Server?

Answers:

  1. The worksheet grid in Excel Web Access on SharePoint Foundation 2010 Server is limited to 20 columns and 75 rows.
  2. It is possible to select contiguous and noncontiguous cells on a worksheet using mouse and keyboard.
  3. It is not possible to use the CTRL+Enter keyboard combination on formulas entered in multiple cells in a worksheet.

14. State whether the following is true or false:

Excel Web App supports Undo/Redo but it is disabled when multiple users are collaborating on the same workbook

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

15. What does the icon marked with a red square in the figure above signify?

Answers:

  1. It signifies that a macro is enabled.
  2. It signifies that the document contains digital signatures.
  3. It signifies that a macro is disabled.
  4. It signifies that a webcam has been detected.

16. Excel keeps the changed history of a workbook for ________ days by default.

Answers:

  1. 10 days
  2. 20 days
  3. 25 days
  4. 30 days

17. Which of the following is available as fill options while formatting cells of an Excel worksheet using the format style as Data Bar?

Answers:

  1. Gradient Fill
  2. Crystal Fill
  3. Texture Fill

18. Suppose you create a workbook in Microsoft Excel 2010 and run the ‘Check Accessibility’ option. This option is used to check the workbook for ____________.

Answers:

  1. Content that people with disabilities might find difficult to read.
  2. Checking features not supported by earlier versions of Excel.
  3. Both a and b

19. Which of the following axis settings are available for the appearance of data bars for negative values in Microsoft Excel 2010?

Answers:

  1. Automatic
  2. Cell right
  3. Cell left

20. What is the purpose of time stamping a digital signature in Microsoft Excel 2010?

Answers:

  1. It helps you mitigate integrity threats.
  2. It ensures that digital signatures remain valid and legally defensible even if the certificate that is used to sign the document expires.
  3. It enables you to specify cryptographic settings for encrypting documents.
  4. None of the above

21. Microsoft Excel Services is a component of:

Answers:

  1. Microsoft SharePoint Technology
  2. Microsoft Server Technology
  3. Microsoft Virtualization Technology

22. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding import of data into PowerPivot?

Answers:

  1. Data can be imported into PowerPivot by either selecting list of tables or by writing SQL query.
  2. The data being imported into PowerPivot can be filtered before the import.
  3. The PowerPivot Import Wizard provides you with an SQL Query builder.

23. Which among the following settings is the default macro security setting?

Answers:

  1. Disable all macros except digitally signed macros.
  2. Disable all macros with notification.
  3. Enable all macros.

24. Which of the following sorting options is NOT available under the Sort On option while sorting the data of a table in an Microsoft Excel 2010 worksheet?

Answers:

  1. Cell Color
  2. Font Color
  3. Font Style

25. State whether the following statement regarding cell references in Microsoft Excel 2010 is true or false:

An Absolute cell reference consists of the column letter and row number.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

26. In the given screenshot, the contents of the ‘Name of User’ column have been oriented at an angle. How is this done?

Answers:

  1. By using the ‘Orientation’ button in the alignment group of the ‘Home’ tab.
  2. By using the ‘Orientation’ button on the ‘Page Layout’ tab.
  3. By using the ‘WordArt’ button on the ‘Insert’ tab.

27. Which of the following statements is not true regarding offline cube files in Microsoft Excel 2010?

Answers:

  1. An offline cube file stores data in the form of an OLAP cube.
  2. If you delete the offline cube file for the report, still you can create a new offline cube file for the report.
  3. An offline cube file allows you to work with PivotTable and PivotChart reports even when the server is unavailable.

28. In the given screenshot, there are red triangles in the upper-right corner of each cell under the column titled ‘Registrations’. What do these signify?

Answers:

  1. The red triangles represent the comment associated.
  2. The red triangles signify an associated data validation control.
  3. The red triangles represent the tracking of the cell.
  4. The red triangles signify that the cell is a hidden cell.

29. When you double-click on a pivot report value of a PivotTable in Microsoft Excel 2010, Excel creates new ________ with data corresponding to the pivot report value.

Answers:

  1. Table
  2. Worksheet
  3. Workbook

30. What are the benefits of digitally signing an e-mail in Microsoft Excel 2010?

Answers:

  1. Digital signatures help authenticate the source of the messages.
  2. Both the sender and the receiver of a message can verify that the message has not been altered during transmission, if the message is digitally signed.
  3. Digitally signed e-mails meet legal requirements for admissibility and authenticity.
  4. All of the above.

31. Deleting a PivotChart report automatically deletes the associated PivotTable report.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

32. You are a financial consultant to multiple clients and you made an investment model for them. Now you want to find out how investment rates change under different market conditions. Which of the following Microsoft Excel 2010 What-if analysis tools will you use to study such conditions?

Answers:

  1. Scenarios
  2. Data tables
  3. Goal Seek

33. Which of the following axis settings are available for the appearance of data bars for negative values in Microsoft Excel 2010?

Answers:

  1. Cell midpoint
  2. Cell left
  3. Cell right

34. Which of the following areas in the Microsoft Excel 2010 PivotTable Field List, calculates the aggregates of columns?

Answers:

  1. Report Filter
  2. Row Labels
  3. Values

35. Analyze the syntax of LOOKUP function when used in vector form?

LOOKUP(lookup_value, lookup_vector, result_vector)

The values in the lookup_vector must be placed in ________ order.

Answers:

  1. Ascending
  2. Descending
  3. Either ascending or descending

36. You are creating a new formatting rule which will be used to format a PivotTable report. Which of the following formatting styles is NOT available while formatting all cells of PivotTable report based on their values in an MS Excel 2010 worksheet?

Answers:

  1. 2-Color Scale
  2. 3-Color Scale
  3. 4-Color Scale
  4. Data Bar

37. Analyze the image shown. What would be the output when you use the following formula in an MS Excel 2010 worksheet?
=SUM(A2:CHOOSE(2,A3,A4,A5))

Answers:

  1. 67
  2. 80
  3. 90
  4. 60

38. Analyze the syntax of LOOKUP function when used in vector form?

LOOKUP(lookup_value, lookup_vector, result_vector)

Which of the following arguments of the LOOKUP function is optional?

Answers:

  1. lookup_value
  2. lookup_vector
  3. result_vector

39. Which of the following statements is true regarding PowerPivot in Microsoft Excel 2010?

Answers:

  1. One limitation of PowerPivot is that it does not allow access to Slicers when working on data in PowerPivot.
  2. A connection to a server running SQL Server Analysis Services is required to answer PivotTable queries by the PowerPivot engine.
  3. Version control and tracking is supported by PowerPivot.

40. Suppose you have created a report in Excel named ‘report.xlsx’. Now you want your team members to be able to see the report remotely on a web browser, and edit the report, as desired. Also it is required that the previous versions of the report are maintained to protect against any loss of data. Which of the following options is the most suitable one to deploy this report?

Answers:

  1. Share ‘report.xlsx’ by saving it to SkyDrive.
  2. Share ‘report.xlsx’ by saving it to a SharePoint site.
  3. Share ‘report.xlsx’ by sending it through email.

41. State whether the following statement regarding cell references in Microsoft Excel 2010 is true or false:

A Relative cell reference consists of the column letter and row number surrounded by dollar signs ($).

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

5,646 total views, 13 views today

Upwork Computer Skills

Microsoft Access 2010 Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which of the following Microsoft Access 2010 components can pose security risks in an untrusted database?

Answers:

  1. Action queries (queries that insert, delete, or change data)
  2. Macros
  3. Forms
  4. VBA code

2. Which of the following are reserved for use by SharePoint and is not supported on the Web?

Answers:

  1. Solutions
  2. Docs
  3. Lists
  4. UserInfo
  5. Reports

3. For what reason(s) can a digital signature or certificate be regarded as invalid?

Answers:

  1. The publisher is not a trusted publisher.
  2. The digital signature has expired.
  3. The certificate was not issued by a certified authority.
  4. All of the above.

4. Suppose you want to apply a calculated field on a TextBox control to concatenate the values of the firstName and lastName fields, with a space between them.Which of the following expressions will you enter in the Expression Builder?

Answers:

  1. [firstName] +” “+[lastName]
  2. [firstName] +” #”+[lastName]
  3. [firstName] &” “& [lastName]
  4. [firstName] &”,”& [lastName]

5. What is the purpose of Option Explicit?

Answers:

  1. It is a database object.
  2. Requires variable declarations.
  3. It contains all of the data access pages that are currently open in a Microsoft Access project.
  4. It contains all open standard modules and class modules in a Microsoft Access database.

6. Which of the following is not done when you compact a database?

Answers:

  1. Table records and objects are restructured and then stored in successive memory blocks.
  2. Databases linked to the compacted database are compacted and repaired.
  3. Table records are restored into their primary key order, if a primary key exists in the table.
  4. The physical size of the database is reduced by making an exact duplicate of the database.

7. How can you tell if a report has no records to display or print in Microsoft Access 2010?

Answers:

  1. By using the report’s Error event.
  2. By using the report’s ApplyFilter event.
  3. By using the report’s NoData event.
  4. By using the report’s Filter event.

8. How do you start a Microsoft Access application so that the user can’t see or use the Navigation Pane (or database container)?

Answers:

  • Set the Access Option to hide the navigation pane, and press CTRL+F11 special keys.
  • Set the Access Option to hide the navigation pane, and press ALT+F1 special keys.
  • Set the Access Option to hide the navigation pane, and turn off special keys to prevent F11.
  • Set the Access Option to hide the navigation pane, and press CTRL+G special keys.

9. What is the advantage of a Class Module versus a Standard Module?

Answers:

  1. Encapsulation, Inheritance
  2. Data Abstraction
  3. Polymorphism
  4. Reusability

10. How can you share common objects between multiple projects in Microsoft Access 2010?

Answers:

  1. By customizing tabs.
  2. By creating Data Macros.
  3. By using a Web Browser Control.
  4. By creating Application Parts.

11. Consider the following tables:

Books
———
BookId
BookName
AuthorId
SubjectId
PopularityRating (the Popularity of the book on a scale of 1 to 10)
Language(such as French, English, German etc)

What is the query to determine which German books (if any) are more popular than all the French books?

Answers:

  1. Select bookname from books where language=’German’ and popularityrating =(Select popularityrating from books where language=’French’)
  2. Select bookname from books where language=’German’ and popularityrating > (Select popularityrating from books where language=’French’)
  3. Select bookname from books where language=’French’ and popularityrating > (Select max(popularityrating) from books where language=’German’)
  4. Select bookname from books where language=’German’ and popularityrating > (Select max(popularityrating) from books where language=’French’)

12. Which of the following is NOT possible when you link to an Excel worksheet from within Access?

Answers:

  1. You can append data to an existing table.
  2. You can create a database containing multiple linked tables.
  3. You can edit the Excel spreadsheet by making changes in to the linked table.
  4. By creating a linked table any changes that are made to the data in Excel are automatically reflected in the linked table.

13. What could be the problem when an error message “#Error” is received in a query?

Answers:

  1. The query is joining fields that have different data types.
  2. A field’s alias conflicts with a component of the expression for that field.
  3. The object or the database is damaged.
  4. The denominator of a calculated field is zero.

14. How do you create a report for a Crosstab Query if certain column values are missing?

Answers:

  1. Set the Value field in the Crosstab.
  2. Set the Column Heading field in the Crosstab.
  3. Set the Pivot list in the Crosstab.
  4. Set the report’s Crosstab property to True

15. Suppose you have a table named Cars with fields that store the name, year, price, and condition of used cars that you are considering for purchase. Also suppose that the table has become large and that you frequently include the Year field in queries. You can create an index on the Year field so that your queries return results more quickly. Which syntax will you use to achieve this?

Answers:

  1. CREATE INDEX YearIndex ON Cars (Year)
  2. CREATE Year INDEX ON Cars (Year)
  3. CREATE INDEX ON Cars (Year)
  4. Both b and c

16. Which of the following is true about a.accde file in Microsoft Access 2010?

Answers:

  1. It contains compiled VBA code to prevent users from viewing the code.
  2. It can be saved as a.accdb file in order to make design changes.
  3. It allows users to import forms and reports from other databases.
  4. It allows users to view, but not modify VBA code.

17. Suppose you want to use data from two tables in a query: tblCustomer and tblOrder. The two tables both have a field, CustomerID, that identifies a customer. Each record in the tblCustomer table may have one or more corresponding records in the tblOrder table, and the corresponding values can be determined by values in the CustomerID field. You now want to join the tables so that the query combines the records from the tables, excluding records from either table if there is no corresponding record in the other table. Which of the following FROM clauses will you use?

Answers:

  1. FROM [tblCustomer] LEFT JOIN [tblOrder] ON [tblCustomer].[CustomerID]=[tblOrder].[CustomerID]
  2. FROM [tblCustomer] RIGHT JOIN [tblOrder] ON [tblCustomer].[CustomerID]=[tblOrder].[CustomerID]
  3. FROM [tblCustomer] INNER JOIN [tblOrder] ON [tblCustomer].[CustomerID]=[tblOrder].[CustomerID]
  4. FROM [tblCustomer], [tblOrder]

18. If you want to encrypt a database by using a password, then the database must be opened in ________ mode.

Answers:

  1. Open Exclusive
  2. Open Exclusive Read-Only
  3. Open Read-Only
  4. Open Password-Enabled

19. Using which of the following Microsoft Access 2010 database file formats, can we use the Package and Sign tool?

Answers:

  1. .accdb
  2. .accdc
  3. .accde
  4. .mdb

20. When you run the Compatibility Checker in Microsoft Access 2010, in which of the following scenarios can you get the error- Access was unable to convert the query for use on the Web because it relies on an ORDER BY clause that is not supported on the Web?

Answers:

  1. Name of an order by element is not valid.
  2. Name of source table is not valid.
  3. Sort order is set to an option other than ascending or descending.
  4. The expression is not valid.
  5. All of the above

21. Using the Package and Sign tool, how many databases can you add to a package that you want to distribute to other users in Microsoft Access?

Answers:

  1. Unlimited
  2. 5
  3. 1
  4. 10

22. Microsoft Access uses indexes in a table to find data. Which of the following field types cannot be indexed?

Answers:

  1. OLE Object
  2. Attachment
  3. Memo
  4. Calculated

23. Which of the following is the correct way to enter the beginning or ending characters of the fields named (UnitPrice and CompanyName) in the AutoIndex onImport/Create field to create an Auto Index ?

Answers:

  1. unit.name
  2. unit;name
  3. unit,name
  4. ‘unit’,’name’

24. In a report with grouping, how can you display the count of records in each group?

Answers:

  1. Add a text box to the group’s footer section and set its control source to =Count(*).
  2. Set the report’s Group Count property to True.
  3. Add a label to the group’s header section and set the Caption property to Count Rows.
  4. Add a Summary control to the report’s footer section.

25. What is the purpose of the Application Parts option in Microsoft Access 2010?

Answers:

  1. It enables you to reduce coding errors and easily incorporate more complex logic to create robust applications.
  2. It integrates your Access reports using multiple data connections and information linked or imported from other sources.
  3. It integrates your Access data with live web content.
  4. It turns portions of your database into reusable templates.

26. Which one of the following correctly selects rows from the students table that have null in column1?

Answers:

  1. Select * from students where column1 is null
  2. Select * from students where column1 = null
  3. Select * from students where column1 EQUALS null
  4. Select * from students where column1 NOT null
  5. Select * from students where column1 CONTAINS null

27. Which of the following is true of the Ribbon interface?

Answers:

  1. Ribbons can be dragged and dropped to be on the side or the bottom of the screen.
  2. Ribbons can be minimized or collapsed.
  3. Ribbons can be replaced with command bars.
  4. New ribbons can be created using the Office Ribbon Generator.

28. What is the function of the icon marked as A (see image) when you are creating Macros in Microsoft Access 2010?

Answers:

  1. Close
  2. Delete
  3. Move up
  4. Move Down

29. What is the function of the ‘Single Step’ in Macros as shown in the image?

Answers:

  1. This command is saves expressions one at a time.
  2. This command executes an action one at a time.
  3. This command saves all queries in a single step.
  4. This command saves all reports in a single step.

30. Password protected databases offer:

Answers:

  1. Only one password with full rights.
  2. Different user rights for different logins/passwords.
  3. Integrated security with Active Directory.
  4. Integrated security with Windows Logins.

31. What will happen when you click on the icon marked as A (see image)?

Answers:

  1. Data Mode pop up will be opened.
  2. Print Preview of the expression that was typed in the text box of Repeat Expression will be displayed.
  3. Expression Builder will pop up.
  4. None of the above

32. A company has the following departments:

Marketing, Designing, Production, Packing

What will be the result of the following query?

Select department from table where department < ‘Marketing’

Answers:

  1. The query will return “Designing, Packing”
  2. The query will return “Designing, Production”
  3. The query will return “Production, Packing”
  4. The query will return “Designing”

33. Microsoft Access 2010 does not support more than ____________ fields in a table.

Answers:

  1. 55
  2. 155
  3. 200
  4. 255

34. Choose the appropriate query for the Products table where data should be displayed primarily in ascending order of the ProductGroup column. Secondary sorting should be in the descending order of the CurrentStock column.

Answers:

  1. Select * from Products order by CurrentStock, ProductGroup.
  2. Select * from Products order by CurrentStock DESC, ProductGroup.
  3. Select * from Products order by ProductGroup, CurrentStock.
  4. Select * from Products order by ProductGroup, CurrentStock DESC.
  5. None of the above.

35. Which of the following is incorrect about the Quick Access Toolbar?

Answers:

  1. You can move the Quick Access Toolbar from its default location.
  2. Toolbar can be minimized or collapsed.
  3. You cannot display the Quick Access Toolbar on multiple lines.
  4. You cannot increase the size of the buttons representing the commands by an option in Microsoft Office.

36. Which textbox property in Microsoft Access 2010 determines that the text box is bound, unbound or calculated?

Answers:

  1. RecordSource
  2. ControlSource
  3. CanGrow
  4. RowSource

37. A query that uses the BETWEEN operator for two numbers is identical to:

Answers:

  1. >= and <=
  2. > and <
  3. >= and <
  4. > and <=

38. Which of the given text field properties should you set in order to force a user to enter a date value specifically in MM-DD-YYYY format?

Answers:

  1. Indexed
  2. Validation Rule
  3. Input Mask
  4. Default Value

1,478 total views, 3 views today

Upwork Computer Skills

Knowledge of Microsoft Office Skills Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which of the following axis settings are available for the appearance of data bars for negative values in Microsoft Excel 2010?

Answers:

  1. Automatic
  2. Cell midpoint
  3. Cell right
  4. Cell left

2. Which of the following is true regarding Microsoft Excel 2010 Web App?

Answers:

  1. It is possible to work with sparklines and slicers on an Excel Web Access page after publishing an Excel workbook to a SharePoint library.
  2. It is possible to view a workbook, as well as comments contained in it, in the browser view in Excel Web Access.
  3. Changing data types is allowed while using the edit capability of a published workbook in Excel Web Access.
  4. A shared workbook can be loaded in the browser.

3. Which of the following statements regarding images in Microsoft Excel 2010 are true?

Answers:

  1. Microsoft Excel 2010 validates images which are in the form of external and active content.
  2. Microsoft Excel 2010 provides for changing the sharpness and contrast of images but not changing their transparency.
  3. Microsoft Excel 2010 supports 3D rotation of images.

4. Which of the following types of tabs is displayed in the tab row when an object, such as an image, is selected or highlighted in the application workspace, in Microsoft Outlook 2010?

Answers:

  1. Standard ribbon tabs
  2. Modal tabs
  3. Contextual tabs

5. In the given screenshot, the letter X is pointing to an area between the first Row header, and the first Column header. What will happen when this particular area is selected?

Answers:

  1. It will select the whole sheet, having the same effect as that of Ctrl+A.
  2. It will close and save this particular worksheet of the workbook.
  3. Nothing will happen.
  4. It will hide this particular worksheet.

6. Which of the following types of worksheets will not load in Microsoft Excel Services?

Answers:

  1. Worksheets with ActiveX controls
  2. Worksheets with tables
  3. Worksheets with hyperlinks
  4. Worksheets with Organization Charts and Diagrams
  5. All of the above

7. Why would you use content controls in a document?

Answers:

  1. To get information from another source and have it appear at a specific place in a document.For example, the customer data automatically appears when you create a new invoice.
  2. To create a document and restrict what people can do with it. For example, you create a document that contains legal language, and you want to ensure people don’t accidentally change or delete any of its text.
  3. To create structured regions of a document that people fill out. For example, the cover page of the proposal can’t be changed except by filling out the title and author.
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the above

8. Which of the following actions CANNOT be performed by the user on the Business Contact Manager database?

Answers:

  1. Update records
  2. Create new records
  3. Delete records permanently
  4. Move records to the Deleted Items folder

9. If a table cell is vertically split into two separate cells using the Draw Table option, any existing text in the cell will be split up and text will appear in both of the two newly created cells .

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

10. You are editing a shape using the Drawing Tools. Which among the following Shape Fill options in the Shape Styles group gives you control over the transparency for a shape?

Answers:

  1. Fill color, More Fill Colors
  2. Background Color
  3. Texture
  4. Pattern

11. You have just created a new document based on the normal template and have created a custom style. You now want to make that custom style easily available in all future documents. In order to do this, you need to select:

Answers:

  1. “Add to Quick Style List” in the Styles pane.
  2. “New documents based on this template” under modify style option.
  3. Copy the style to each document manually each time you want to use it.

12. Which of the following delegate permission levels allows you to change and delete the items that the manager created?

Answers:

  1. Author
  2. Editor
  3. Reviewer

13. What is one way to ensure that the sound icon doesn’t show in the presentation?

Answers:

  1. By choosing Hide During Show from the Audio Tools Playback tab of the Ribbon
  2. By applying a transparent picture fill effect to the sound icon on the slide
  3. By clicking the Sound Options Dialog Launcher on the Ribbon and checking Hide audio icon during slide show
  4. All of the above

14. Which of the following is INCORRECT regarding setting of passwords in Microsoft Outlook 2010?

Answers:

  1. There is no logon password for the Outlook program itself. The password you set protects only your Outlook data file (.pst) that is used in Outlook.
  2. If you are running Outlook with a Microsoft Exchange account, your data for that account, including password access, is automatically managed by Microsoft Exchange.
  3. You can set a password for individual folders within the .pst.
  4. None of the above

15. Slicers are filtering components which are used to filter the data in a PivotTable report or CUBE functions. Which of the following data sources is/are supported by Slicers in Microsoft Excel 2010?

Answers:

  1. Office Database connections
  2. Online Analytical Processing (OLAP) Queries
  3. Online Analytical Processing (OLAP) Cube Files

16. With which chart type(s) is the “Depth Gridlines” option available?

Answers:

  1. Bubble chart
  2. Line chart
  3. True 3D chart
  4. All of the above

17. Which of the following tag is not available in Microsoft Outlook 2010?

Answers:

  1. Unread/read
  2. Follow Up
  3. Categorize
  4. Show in Favorites

18. By default, when you paste a chart from Excel into PowerPoint 2007, is it linked or embedded?

Answers:

  1. It is linked
  2. It is embedded

19. Below are two statements regarding Breaks in Microsoft Word 2010.

Statement X: Text Wrapping Page Break separates text around objects on web pages, such as caption text from body text.
Statement Y: Continuous Section Break inserts a section break and starts the new section on the next page.

Which of the following options is correct?

Answers:

  1. Statement X is correct. Statement Y is incorrect.
  2. Statement X is incorrect. Statement Y is correct.
  3. Both Statements X and Y are correct.
  4. Both Statements X and Y are incorrect.

20. Which of the following is not a category of transition?

Answers:

  1. Subtle
  2. Exciting
  3. Dynamic Content
  4. Emphasis

21. Dave receives a file named Theme1.thmx from his boss. Opening the file opens a blank PowerPoint document. On clarifying from his boss, he learns that the .thmx file contains a particular theme which needs to be applied to the annual report on which Dave is working. How can Dave achieve this?

Answers:

  1. By pasting all the text of the report in thePowerPoint file which opens on double clicking the .thmx file and then saving it as a Word document.
  2. By opening the .thmx file with Microsoft Word 2010 and pasting the complete report text into it.
  3. Dave’s Boss is wrong. No such arrangement is possible in Microsoft Word 2010.
  4. By opening the Word file containing the report, and importing the theme from the .thmx file by using the “Browse for themes” option on the Page Layout tab.

22. How can you remove duplicate emails present in a particular folder?

Answers:

  1. By using the Clean Up Folder option.
  2. By repeatedly using the Send/Receive mails option.
  3. By applying filtration of the email according to groups, in a particular folder.
  4. By sorting the emails received in a particular folder.

23. How do you turn off the controls that show in the lower left corner of the screen during a slide show?

Answers:

  1. Right-click the controls in the slide show and choose Don’t Show
  2. Choose the menu Tools -> Options and uncheck Show Popup Toolbar on the View tab
  3. Choose the menu File -> Options -> Advanced and select Show Popup Toolbar
  4. Press F1 during the slide show

24. You are a financial consultant to multiple clients and you made an investment model for them. Now you want to find out how investment rates change under different market conditions. Which of the following Microsoft Excel 2010 What-if analysis tools will you use to study such conditions?

Answers:

  1. Scenarios
  2. Data tables
  3. Goal Seek

25. In Microsoft Excel 2010, The LOOKUP function returns a value either from a one-row or one-column range or from an array. Which of the following statements are true regarding the LOOKUP function in Microsoft Excel 2010?

Answers:

  1. lookup_value is an optional argument of the LOOKUP function in Microsoft Excel 2010 when the vector form is used.
  2. The values in the array used by the LOOKUP function in Microsoft Excel 2010 must be in the ascending order.
  3. If the array used by the LOOKUP function in Microsoft Excel 2010 contains more columns than rows, then LOOKUP searches for the value of lookup_value in the first column.
  4. If the array used by the LOOKUP function in Microsoft Excel 2010 contains more rows than columns, then LOOKUP searches for the value of lookup_value in the first column.

26. The image given above is that of the Recording toolbar, which appears when you Rehearse Timings. What does the part of the toolbar marked ‘A’ in the image refer to?

Answers:

  1. It displays the slide time.
  2. It displays the total presentation time.
  3. It displays the time taken by the first slide.
  4. None of the above

27. In the given screenshot, there are red triangles in the upper-right corner of each cell under the column titled ‘Registrations’. What do these signify?

Answers:

  1. The red triangles represent the comment associated.
  2. The red triangles signify an associated data validation control.
  3. The red triangles represent the tracking of the cell.
  4. The red triangles signify that the cell is a hidden cell.

28. When using the booklet-printing feature, the term “gutter” refers to the space between page content and the fold in the middle of the paper where you would normally bind pages together.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

29. Which of the following are included in a digitally signed e-mail message?

Answers:

  1. Certificate
  2. CAPTCHA image
  3. Public key
  4. Sender’s full name

30. Which of the following actions from the Delete group not only moves all the existing messages but also the future messages in the selected Conversations to the Deleted Items folder?

Answers:

  1. Ignore
  2. Clean Up
  3. Delete

31. Which of the following methods will you use to insert a hyperlink in a message in Microsoft Outlook 2010, if the format of the mail is set to Rich Text?

Answers:

  1. Type the hyperlink in the body of the message.
  2. Drag a hyperlink into the body of the message.
  3. Click on the Insert tab-> Go to the Links group-> Add Hyperlink.
  4. Any of the above methods can be used.

32. If you were writing a book and wanted each chapter to start on the right page, which Section Break would you use to begin each chapter?

Answers:

  1. Even Page
  2. Odd Page
  3. Continuous

33. Which standard form is used to record actions which relate to specific contacts and put the action in a Timeline view?

Answers:

  1. Post
  2. Journal Entry
  3. Appointment
  4. Task Request

34. Which of the following areas in the Microsoft Excel 2010 PivotTable Field List, calculates the aggregates of columns?

Answers:

  1. Report Filter
  2. Row Labels
  3. Values

35. If I do not want the contents of one of my fields to automatically update, I would have to do which of the following?

Answers:

  1. Lock the field.
  2. Protect the field.
  3. Make the field hidden.
  4. Turn field shading off.

36. Consider the following scenario:

A table cell contains text. You place your cursor in that cell and split it into two columns. The resultant text will:

Answers:

  1. be spread across both cells.
  2. be deleted.
  3. remain intact in the first cell and the second cell will be empty.

37. How will you read comments that reviewers have added to your presentation?

Answers:

  1. On the View tab, in the Show/Hide group, click on Show Comments.
  2. On the Review tab, in the Comments group, click on Show Markup.
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of the above

38. Which of the following animation Effect Options will you choose when you want the SmartArt diagram to animate piece by piece?

Answers:

  1. One by one
  2. As one object
  3. Dim after animation
  4. By 1st Level Paragraphs

39. What is one thing the Compress Pictures feature does?

Answers:

  1. Changes all pictures from color to black and white
  2. Decreases the contrast of all pictures in the presentation
  3. Permanently deletes cropped areas of pictures
  4. Condenses the pictures to one area of the slide

40. Which of the following is NOT an option when inserting a Cross-reference?

Answers:

  1. Numbered item
  2. SmartArt
  3. Heading
  4. Equation
  5. Table

41. Refer to the image above and identify which Home tab group these commands belong to?

Answers:

  1. Move
  2. Quick Steps
  3. Respond
  4. Tags

42. What is the purpose of time stamping a digital signature in Microsoft Excel 2010?

Answers:

  1. It helps you mitigate integrity threats.
  2. It ensures that digital signatures remain valid and legally defensible even if the certificate that is used to sign the document expires.
  3. It enables you to specify cryptographic settings for encrypting documents.
  4. It is a security tool that enables users to designate safe documents.

43. In MS Excel when your cursor is in the last cell of a table, what does Tab key do?

Answers:

  1. Adds a row at the bottom of the table
  2. Adds a row at the top of the table
  3. Adds a column to the right of the current cell
  4. Places your cursor on the next object on the slide

44. Suppose you want to use the Translate command to work with the text. Where can you locate it on the Ribbon?

Answers:

  1. In the Insert tab
  2. In the Design tab
  3. In the View tab
  4. In the Review tab

45. Which of the following statements is not true regarding offline cube files in Microsoft Excel 2010?

Answers:

  1. An offline cube file stores data in the form of an OLAP cube.
  2. The file format for an offline cube file is .ocf.
  3. An offline cube file allows you to work with PivotTable and PivotChart reports even when the server is unavailable.

46. To insert a new citation to a specific book in a Microsoft Word 2010 document, you should select:

Answers:

  1. References” > “Style”.
  2. References” >”Insert Citation” >”Add New Source.
  3. References” >”Insert Citation” >”Add New Placeholder.
  4. None of the above

47. You customized the navigation pane with a lot of folders and shortcuts but now you want to remove all of them. What command line switch would you use with outlook.exe to remove the folders you added?

Answers:

  1. /profiles
  2. /resetfolders
  3. /resetnavpane
  4. /recycle

48. How would you write on the slides during a slide show?

Answers:

  1. In the Slide Sorter view, right-click on the slide that you want to write on, point to Pen Options, and then click on a pen. Drag it to write.
  2. On the Slide Show tab, in the Set Up group, select a pen and then drag it to write.
  3. In the Slide Show view, right-click on the slide that you want to write on, point to Pointer Options, and then click on a pen or a highlighter option. Hold down the left mouse button and drag to write.
  4. All of the above

49. Which of the following record types of Business Contact Manager for Microsoft Outlook 2010 allows you to plan and track communication activities to accomplish a business result, such as increasing market share, introducing a new product, or retaining customers?

Answers:

  1. Opportunity
  2. Marketing Activity
  3. Business Project
  4. Business Contact

50. The default chart colors are determined by what?

Answers:

  1. Slide Design Effects
  2. Slide Background Graphics
  3. Slide Fill Shading
  4. Slide Color Scheme

51. How would you assign a macro to a graphic?

Answers:

  1. On the Developer tab, in the Code group, click on Macros.
  2. On the View tab, click on Macros and then click on Assign Macro on the shortcut menu. In the Macro name box, click on the macro that you want to assign.
  3. On a worksheet, right-click on the graphic, then click on Assign Macro on the shortcut menu. In the Macro name box, click on the macro that you want to assign.
  4. You can use any of the above three techniques.
  5. You cannot assign a macro to a graphic.

52. What will happen if the Junk E-mail filter of Microsoft Outlook 2010 does NOT consider a message to be spam but considers it to be phishing?

Answers:

  1. It will shift the message to the Spam folder.
  2. It will disable all the links in the e-mail.
  3. It will disable the Reply and Reply All commands.
  4. It will delete the e-mail.

53. In MS 2010 PowerPoint, how would you crop a picture to an exact set of dimensions?

Answers:

  1. Under Picture Tools, on the Format tab, in the Size group, click Dialog Box Launcher, then Crop. Enter the size numbers in the Width, Height, Left and Top boxes.
  2. Select the picture and right click on it. Select Size and Position from the list and then enter the size numbers in the Width, Height, Left and Top boxes.
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of the above

54. What are the benefits of digitally signing an e-mail in Microsoft Excel 2010?

Answers:

  1. Digital signatures help authenticate the source of the messages.
  2. Both the sender and the receiver of a message can verify that the message has not been altered during transmission, if the message is digitally signed.
  3. Digitally signed e-mails meet legal requirements for admissibility and authenticity.
  4. All of the above.

55. Which of the following describes the outcome of double-clicking on a pivot report value of a PivotTable in Microsoft Excel 2010?

Answers:

  1. Excel displays data corresponding to the pivot report value on the same sheet.
  2. Excel creates a new sheet with data corresponding to the pivot report value.
  3. Excel creates a new workbook with data corresponding to the pivot report value.

56. Suppose you have created a report in Excel named ‘report.xlsx’. Now you want your team members should be able to see the report remotely on a web browser, and edit the report, as desired. Also it is required that the previous versions of the report are maintained to protect against any loss of data. Which of the following options is the most suitable one to deploy this report?

Answers:

  1. Share ‘report.xlsx’ by saving it to SkyDrive.
  2. Share ‘report.xlsx’ by saving it to a SharePoint site.
  3. Share ‘report.xlsx’ by sending it through email.

57. How would you add a logo to all the slides in a presentation?

Answers:

  1. In the Normal editing View, paste the logo onto every slide in the presentation.
  2. In the Slide Master View, add the logo to the slide master and the title slide layout.
  3. In the Slide Master View, add the logo to the blank slide layout.
  4. None of the above

58. In Microsoft Word 2010, “Keep lines together” paragraph formatting:

Answers:

  1. works well for paragraphs within a table if “Allow row to break across pages” is also selected.
  2. automatically enables the text rows to break across pages.
  3. does not work for paragraphs within a table if “Allow row to break across pages” is also selected.
  4. always works for paragraphs within a table.

59. Which of the following defines the correct purpose of using a poster frame image?

Answers:

  1. To add still image introduction to the video
  2. To add visual effect to the narration
  3. To insert a picture on any part of the screen
  4. To create or edit a presentation based on a set of pictures

60. You want to add an image as the first character in your paragraph. Which type of text wrapping treats your graphic as if it were a character?

Answers:

  1. Through
  2. Square
  3. In Front of Text
  4. In Line with Text

61. Which among the following settings is the default macro security setting?

Answers:

  1. Disable all macros without notification.
  2. Disable all macros except digitally signed macros.
  3. Disable all macros with notification.
  4. Enable all macros.

62. What does the Compare tool do?

Answers:

  1. Compares changes in two presentations
  2. Compares one image to another to indicate differences
  3. Compares file size
  4. Compares presentations for backward compatibility

63. Which among the following chart types do not have axes?

Answers:

  1. Bar charts
  2. XY (Scatter) charts
  3. Doughnut charts
  4. Area charts

64. Format Painter will not normally work with pictures in which the text wrapping is set to:

Answers:

  1. Square
  2. Behind Text
  3. In Front of Text
  4. In Line with Text

65. Which level of junk e-mail protection available in Microsoft Outlook 2010 will you apply, if you want all such e-mails to be treated as junk whose senders are neither on your Safe Senders List nor on your Safe Recipients List?

Answers:

  1. No Automatic Filtering
  2. Low
  3. High
  4. Safe Lists Only

66. Which picture format maintains transparency in MS 2010 Powerpoint?

Answers:

  1. .png
  2. .gif
  3. .jpg
  4. .wmf

67. How do you insert a new slide master into a presentation?

Answers:

  1. In Master View, click the Insert Layout button
  2. In Master View, click the Insert Slide Master button
  3. In Slide Sorter View, click the Insert Slide Design button
  4. In Normal editing View, click the Insert Slide Design button

68. In the Customize Ribbon dialog, choosing Reset All Customizations does what?

Answers:

  1. It restores the Ribbon to the default settings.
  2. It restores the Quick Access Toolbar to the default settings.
  3. It restores both the Ribbon and the Quick Access Toolbar to the default settings.

69. How many items can be maintained on the clipboard at one time?

Answers:

  1. One
  2. Up to 24
  3. Unlimited
  4. Up to 100

70. You added a custom tab in the Microsoft Excel Ribbon and exported this Ribbon Toolbar customization into a file named ‘custom.exportedUI’. After a few days, you import this Ribbon Toolbar customization file back to Microsoft Excel 2010. What will happen to the prior Ribbon Toolbar customizations made during this period?

Answers:

  1. All prior customizations will be retained.
  2. All prior customizations will be merged.
  3. All prior customizations will be lost.

71. How do you repair a Microsoft Outlook 2010 .pst file if it gets damaged?

Answers:

  1. By using the last backup .pst file.
  2. By scanning the .pst file with scanpst
  3. By re-logging into the mail account.
  4. The file cannot be repaired.

72. Suppose there are some files in a folder named ‘demo’, which were archived to a file named demo.pst. Now you want to restore this archive to a folder named ‘demo1’. Which option in the File tab will you use for this purpose, in Microsoft Outlook 2010?

Answers:

  1. Info
  2. Open
  3. Options
  4. None of these

73. Josh is to create a technical write-up comprising short paragraphs with double line spacing. Each paragraph is to be separated from the other by a single line space. He writes a paragraph, selects the text, points to Line Spacing on the paragraph toolbar and sets it to 2.0. He gets the paragraph double spaced. The moment he clicks enter to start a new paragraph, it automatically gets double spaced. How can Josh achieve paragraphs separated by single line spaces from each other within the document?

Answers:

  1. He sets the Line Spacing on the formatting toolbar to 1.0.
  2. He selects the double-spaced paragraphs and clicks on Paragraph.Then under Indents and Spacing, he sets the Spacing “Before” and “After” options to zero.
  3. He uses the Shift and Enter keys at the same time to create a new paragraph.
  4. He selects the double-spaced paragraphs and clicks on Paragraph. Then under Indents and Spacing, he sets the Spacing “Before” and “After” options to Auto.

74. In the given screenshot, the contents of the ‘Name of User’ column have been oriented at an angle. How is this done?

Answers:

  1. By using the ‘Orientation’ button in the alignment group of the ‘Home’ tab.
  2. By using the ‘Format Cells’ in the context menu.
  3. By using the ‘Orientation’ button on the ‘Page Layout’ tab.
  4. By using the ‘WordArt’ button on the ‘Insert’ tab.

3,725 total views, 9 views today

Upwork .Net Technology

Knowledge of SQL Server 2008 Skills Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which of the following statements using GROUP BY clause are allowed in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. SELECT Column1 + Column2 FROM Table GROUP BY Column1, Column2
  2. SELECT Column1, Column2 FROM Table GROUP BY Column1 + Column2
  3. SELECT Column1 + constant + Column2 FROM Table GROUP BY Column1 + Column2
  4. SELECT Column1 + Column2 FROM Table GROUP BY Column1 + Column2

2. What is the function of DBCC CHECKDB command in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. It checks the allocation of all the objects in the specified database.
  2. It checks the structural integrity of all the objects in the specified database.
  3. It checks for consistency in and between system tables in the specified database.
  4. It checks the consistency of disk space allocation structures of a specified database.

3. Which of the following compression features have been introduced in SQL Server 2008 that were NOT supported by SQL Server 2005?

Answers:

  1. Row-level compression
  2. Page-level compression
  3. Data file level compression
  4. Backup level compression

4. Which of the following rules must be followed for combining the result sets of two queries by using UNION?

Answers:

  1. The number of columns must be same in all queries.
  2. The order of columns must be same in all queries.
  3. The data types of the columns of the queries must be compatible.
  4. There should be at least one common column in the tables which are part of the UNION operation.

5. Which of the following scripting options are available while creating a script using the shortcut menu from the Object Explorer in SQL Server 2008 Management Studio?

Answers:

  1. DELETE To
  2. MERGE To
  3. CREATE INDEX To
  4. INSERT To
  5. UPDATE To

6. Which of the following options are available for the DATA_COMPRESSION clause specified for a table in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. Page
  2. Table
  3. Row
  4. Column

7. Which of the following methods can be specified for the lock escalation of a table in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. ENABLE
  2. AUTO
  3. DISABLE
  4. TABLE
  5. DEFAULT

8. Which of the following data types are supported by SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. date
  2. datetime
  3. datetime1
  4. datetime2
  5. datetimeoffset

9. Which of the following statements are true?

Answers:

  1. IGNORE_DUP_KEY cannot be set to ON for XML indexes.
  2. IGNORE_DUP_KEY can be set to ON for spatial indexes.
  3. IGNORE_DUP_KEY can be set to ON for filtered indexes.
  4. IGNORE_DUP_KEY can be set to ON for XML indexes.
  5. IGNORE_DUP_KEY cannot be set to ON for indexes created on a view.

10. Which of the following statements are true regarding row and page compression in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. When a table or index is created, data compression is set to NONE, unless otherwise specified.
  2. Nonclustered indexes inherit the compression property of the table.
  3. New pages allocated in a heap as part of DML operations will not use PAGE compression until the heap is rebuilt.
  4. When you are compressing indexes, leaf-level pages can be compressed with only page compression.

11. Which of the following security features have been introduced in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. Extensible Key Management
  2. SOAP Security
  3. Hashing
  4. Transparent Data Encryption

12. Which of the following encryption algorithms are used by the Transparent Data Encryption security mechanism of SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. Tiny Encryption Algorithm
  2. Advanced Encryption Standard(AES)
  3. Blowfish
  4. Triple Data Encryption Standard(3DES)

13. Which of the following formats are supported by the language_term argument while altering a full-text stoplist in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. Integer
  2. Binary
  3. Decimal
  4. Hexadecimal

14. Which of the following are valid DATETIME functions in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. SYSDATE()
  2. SYSTIME()
  3. SYSDATETIME()
  4. SYSUTCDATETIME()

15. Which of the following counters are used to monitor compression of the whole instance of SQL Server?

Answers:

  1. Page compression attempts/sec
  2. Row compression/sec
  3. Pages compressed/min
  4. Pages compressed/sec
  5. Rows compressed/min

16. Which of the following statements are true about the FILESTREAM argument of SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. If a table contains FILESTREAM data and the table is partitioned, the FILESTREAM_ON clause must be included.
  2. The FILESTREAM column can be partitioned even if a table is not partitioned.
  3. There may not be a FILESTREAM filegroup if a table is not partitioned and the FILESTREAM_ON clause is not specified.
  4. The filegroup in the FILESTREAM_ON <filegroup>> clause must have one file defined for the filegroup.

17. Which of the following spatial data types are used in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. Geography
  2. Longitude
  3. Altitude
  4. Geometry
  5. Latitude

18. Which function/functions are performed by the following statement?
BCC CHECKIDENT (‘table_name’, RESEED, new_reseed_value)

Answers:

  1. It checks the current iDentity fielD value of the specifieD table.
  2. It sets the identity field value to the new reseed value.
  3. It sets the identity field value to 1.
  4. All of the above.

19. Which of the following statements are true about FILESTREAM storage in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. Transact-SQL can be used to SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE FILESTREAM data.
  2. The size of the stored data is limited to 2 GB.
  3. You cannot take backup of a database without the FILESTREAM data.
  4. FILESTREAM storage is best used when the BLOB file sizes average 1MB or higher.

20. Which of the following permissions are required to create a view in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. CREATE VIEW permission in database
  2. ALTER permission on schema
  3. CONTROL permission on object

21. For which of the following data types can a COLLATE clause be applied?

Answers:

  1. text
  2. int
  3. varchar
  4. bigint

22. Columns marked with which of the following constraints/properties allow null values to be inserted in them?

Answers:

  1. PRIMARY KEY
  2. UNIQUE
  3. IDENTITY
  4. FOREIGN KEY

23. Analyze the following code used to update a Common Table Expression:

USE demodb
GO
DECLARE @a TABLE (ID int, Value int);
DECLARE @b TABLE (ID int, Value int);
INSERT @a VALUES (1, 10), (2, 20);
INSERT @b VALUES (1, 100),(2, 200);
WITH cte AS (SELECT * FROM @a)
UPDATE cte
SET Value = b.Value
FROM cte AS a
INNER JOIN @b AS b ON b.ID = a.ID
SELECT * FROM @a
GO

What Will be the output of the above code?

Answers:

  1. ID Value —– —– 1 100 2 200
  2. ID Value —– —– 1 10 2 100
  3. ID Value —– —– 1 10 2 200
  4. ID Value —– —– 1 100 2 100

24. The Server Audit object and the Server Audit Specification object of SQL Server 2008 share a __________ relationship.

Answers:

  1. One-to-one
  2. One-to-many
  3. Many-to-one
  4. Many-to-many

25. What is the maximum value for the sum of the values of MIN_CPU_PERCENT and MIN_MEMORY_PERCENT for all the resource pools of SQL Server?

Answers:

  1. 50
  2. 75
  3. 100
  4. 150
  5. 200

26. An identifier denoting a global temporary object in SQL Server 2008 starts with a ______ sign.

Answers:

  1. At sign(@)
  2. Double number(##)
  3. Underscore(_)
  4. None of the above

27. Which of the following features is used by SQL Server Audit to create and manage audits in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. System stored procedures
  2. Triggers
  3. SQL DDL syntax
  4. None of the above

28. What is returned by NULLIF if the two expressions that it compares are NOT equal?

Answers:

  1. It returns the first expression.
  2. It returns the second expression.
  3. It returns a null value.
  4. It returns an error.

29. User defined data type columns can be designated with ROWGUIDCOL.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

30. Which of the following commands is used to save the output to a text file after you run a Transact-SQL script using sqlcmd?

Answers:

  1. sqlcmd -S instanceName -o C:new.txt
  2. sqlcmd -S instanceName -i C:myScript.sql -o C:new.txt
  3. sqlcmd -S myServerinstanceName -o C:new.txt
  4. sqlcmd -S myServerinstanceName -i C:myScript.sql -o C:new.txt

31. Analyze the following code snippet:

DECLARE @myTime TIME(4) = ’02:02:02.234567 +01:01′
SELECT @myTime AS ‘@myTime’

What is the output of the above code?

Answers:

  1. 02:02:02.2345
  2. 02:02:02
  3. 02:02:02.2346
  4. An error is displayed

32. Which of the following is used by SQL Server 2008 Management Studio to execute scripts in regular mode in the Query Editor?

Answers:

  1. sqlcmd
  2. Microsoft .NET Framework SqlClient
  3. OLE DB provider
  4. None of the above

33. What is the default value of the SORT_IN_TEMPDB clause of the relational_index_option specified at the time of creation of an index on a table in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. ON
  2. OFF
  3. TRUE
  4. FALSE

34. Which of the following statements is NOT true about the UNIQUE constraint of SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. Multiple UNIQUE constraints can be defined on a table.
  2. When using the UNIQUE constraint, only one null value is allowed per column.
  3. UNIQUE constraint cannot be referenced by a FOREIGN KEY constraint

35. Which of the following options is used to change the value of the password variable and exit using sqlcmd?

Answers:

  1. -p
  2. -P
  3. -z
  4. -Z

36. The regular identifiers of SQL Server 2008 may contain a range of _____________ characters.

Answers:

  1. 1 to 116
  2. 1 to 127
  3. 1 to 128
  4. 1 to 512

37. Which of the following evaluation modes of Policy-Based Management CANNOT be automated in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. On demand
  2. On change: prevent
  3. On change: log only
  4. On schedule

38. Which of the following statements is true if you create a global temporary table in SQL Server 2008 and specify a FOREIGN KEY with the CREATE TABLE command?

Answers:

  1. The table is created successfully with the FOREIGN KEY constraint.
  2. The table is not created and no message is returned.
  3. The table is created without the FOREIGN KEY constraint and a warning message is returned.
  4. The table is not created and an error message is displayed.

39. Which of the following features of SQL Server 2008 evaluates servers for compliance with a set of predefined conditions and prevents making undesirable changes to servers?

Answers:

  1. Data Compression
  2. Resource Governor
  3. Policy-Based Management
  4. Auditing

40. How many groupings are generated when CUBE is used with the GROUP BY clause of SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. n (n= number of expressions in the element list passed to CUBE)
  2. n+1 (n= number of expressions in the element list passed to CUBE)
  3. 2^n (n= number of expressions in the element list passed to CUBE)
  4. 2^n+1 (n= number of expressions in the element list passed to CUBE)

41. Which of the following Audit objects primarily describes the destination where the audit data of SQL Server 2008 gets stored?

Answers:

  1. Server Audit object
  2. Server Audit Specification object
  3. Database Audit Specification object

42. Windows Security log can be specified as a target for Audit in SQL Server 2008.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

43. Which of the following is a valid code to delete a clustered index with a PRIMARY KEY constraint in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. ALTER TABLE Production.ProductCost DROP CONSTRAINT PK_Product WITH (ONLINE = ON) GO
  2. ALTER TABLE Production.ProductCostHistory DROP CONSTRAINT PK_Product DROP INDEX Index_Product WITH (ONLINE = ON) GO
  3. DROP INDEX Index_Product ON Production.ProductCost GO

44. What is the default timeout for login to sqlcmd while you try to connect to a server?

Answers:

  1. 5 seconds
  2. 8 seconds
  3. 10 seconds
  4. 15 seconds
  5. 1 minute

45. What is the default precision of the date data type in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. 4 digits
  2. 6 digits
  3. 8 digits
  4. 10 digits

46. What amount of storage is required by a date variable in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. 3 bytes
  2. 5 bytes
  3. 6 bytes
  4. 8 bytes

47. PRIMARY KEY constraint defaults to __________ index.

Answers:

  1. Clustered
  2. Nonclustered
  3. None of the above

48. Which of the following is a valid code to change the index created on a column of a table to page compression?

Answers:

  1. ALTER INDEX Index_Product ON Table1 WITH ( DATA_COMPRESSION = PAGE ) GO
  2. ALTER INDEX Index_Product ON Table1 SET ( DATA_COMPRESSION = PAGE ) GO
  3. ALTER INDEX Index_Product ON Table1 REBUILD WITH ( DATA_COMPRESSION = PAGE ) GO
  4. ALTER INDEX Index_Product ON Table1 REBUILD SET ( DATA_COMPRESSION = PAGE ) GO

49. What is the return type of the value returned by @@DATEFIRST in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. datetime
  2. date
  3. int
  4. tinyint

50. Which of the following features of SQL Server 2008 enables you to limit the memory used by incoming application requests?

Answers:

  1. Hot Add CPU
  2. Dynamic management views
  3. Resource Governor
  4. Backup Compression

51. Which data type of SQL Server 2008 converts itself into the type of data that is inserted into it?

Answers:

  1. real
  2. rowversion
  3. type_var
  4. sql_variant
  5. monetary

52. Analyze the following command:

-o “C:Folder<file_name>”

Which of the following statements is true if a file with the file name specified in the above command already exists?

Answers:

  1. An error is generated.
  2. The file is overwritten.
  3. None of the above.

53. Multiple CHECK constraints can be applied to a single column and a single CHECK constraint can be applied to multiple columns in SQL Server 2008.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

54. A local temporary stored procedure name can contain a maximum of __________ characters.

Answers:

  1. 58
  2. 116
  3. 128
  4. 512

55. Analyze the following code using wild card characters of SQL Server 2008:

SELECT Name
FROM person.employees
WHERE Name LIKE ‘[_]n’
GO

Which of the following values will be returned by the above code?

Answers:

  1. in
  2. sin
  3. _n
  4. All of the above

56. Which of the following is the default authentication mode for sqlcmd in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. Windows Authentication
  2. SQL Server Authentication
  3. IIS Authentication
  4. Digest Authentication

57. All MDX, DMX and XML/A errors are displayed in the Error List window of the SQL Server 2008. Management Studio.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

58. Which of the following stored procedures is used to delete data from the management data warehouse of a Data Collector?

Answers:

  1. core.sp_delete_data
  2. core.sp_purge_data
  3. core.sp_remove_data
  4. None of the above

59. What is the maximum number of processors that can be used in parallel plan execution using the MAXDOP option in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. 32 processors
  2. 50 processors
  3. 64 processors
  4. 75 processors

60. Which of the following arguments of the fn_get_audit_file() function of SQL Server 2008 specifies the directory indicating the location and audit file set to be read?

Answers:

  1. Initial_file_name
  2. File_pattern
  3. Audit_file_offset
  4. None of the above

61. Analyze the following code snippet:

DECLARE @myDate DATETIME2
SELECT @myDate = ‘2009/10/08 12:35:29.2348 +12:15’
SELECT @myDate AS ‘@myDate’

What is the output of the above code?

Answers:

  1. 2009-10-08 12:35:29
  2. 2009/10/08 12:35:29.2348000
  3. 2009-10-08 12:35:29.2348000
  4. 2009/10/08 12:35:29

62. What exactly is Full-Text Catalog in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. The Full-Text Catalog is an index for searching specific keywords.
  2. The Full-Text Catalog is a file which contains full-text indexes.
  3. The Full-Text Catalog is an inbuilt function for validating text data.
  4. The Full-Text Catalog is a system trigger for checking text validation.

63. Which of the following clauses of SQL Server 2008 avoids enforcing a constraint when repeated inserts are performed?

Answers:

  1. IDENTITY
  2. SPARSE
  3. NOT FOR REPLICATION
  4. COLLATE

64. Which of the following roles is required to connect to a Central Management Server?

Answers:

  1. ServerGroupReaderRole
  2. ServerGroupAdministratorRole
  3. PolicyAdministratorRole
  4. db_ssisoperator

65. What range is supported by the TIME data type in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. 00:00:00.0000000 through 23:59:59.9999999
  2. 00:00:00.0000000 through 24:00:00.0000000
  3. 00:00:00.0000000 through 23:59:00.0000000
  4. 00:00:00.0000000 through 23:59:59.0000000

66. Which of the following is a valid syntax of the ALTER SERVER AUDIT statement used to enable a server audit?

Answers:

  1. ALTER SERVER AUDIT <audit_name> WITH (ENABLE=TRUE)
  2. ALTER SERVER AUDIT <audit_name> SET (ENABLE=TRUE)
  3. ALTER SERVER AUDIT <audit_name> WITH (STATE=ON)
  4. ALTER SERVER AUDIT <audit_name> SET (STATE=ON)

67. What is the name of the default instance installed by SQL Server 2008 Express in your computer?

Answers:

  1. sqlinst
  2. sqlcmd
  3. sqlexpress
  4. sqldef

68. Analyze the following permissions:

1.ALTER permission on the database.
2.CONTROL permission in the database.
3.ALTER ANY SCHEMA permission and CREATE XML SCHEMA COLLECTION permission in the database.

Which of the above permissions is/are required to create an XML SCHEMA COLLECTION?

Answers:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 1 or 2 or 3
  5. 1 and 2 and 3

69. Which of the following statements is true regarding indexes in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. Modifications made in a table will be faster if the number of indexes is more.
  2. Modifications made in a table will be slower if the number of indexes is more.
  3. The number of indexes does not affect the modification process of a table.

70. How many audit action groups are available for a server in SQL Server 2008 to perform different actions on audit data?

Answers:

  1. 25
  2. 30
  3. 35
  4. 40

71. Which of the following data types can be specified as SPARSE?

Answers:

  1. image
  2. text
  3. nchar
  4. geography

72. Analyze the following code snippet for creating a stored procedure in SQL Server 2008:
CREATE PROCEDURE Person.GetEmployees
@LastName nvarchar(50),
@FirstName nvarchar(50)
AS
SET NOCOUNT ON
SELECT FirstName, LastName, JobTitle, Department
FROM Person.EmployeeDepartment
WHERE FirstName = @FirstName AND LastName = @LastName
GO

Which of the following is a valid code to execute the GetEmployees stored procedure?

Answers:

  1. EXECUTE Person.GetEmployees N’John’, N’Miller’
  2. EXEC Person.GetEmployees @LastName = N’Miller’, @FirstName = N’John’
  3. EXECUTE Person.GetEmployees @FirstName = N’John’, @LastName = N’Miller’
  4. All of the above

73. Starting from the lowest, arrange the following operators in the order in which they produce results in an SQL WHERE query.

1. >, >=, <, <=
2. <>
3. =
4. LIKE

Answers:

  1. 1,4,3,2
  2. 4,1,2,3
  3. 3,2,1,4
  4. 2,4,1,3

74. What is the default maximum precision of decimal data type in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. 16
  2. 18
  3. 38
  4. 48

75. What is the maximum number of columns that can be combined into a single composite index key?

Answers:

  1. 8
  2. 16
  3. 32
  4. 64

76. Which of the following values specifies that each instance of the XML data type in column_name can contain multiple top-level elements?

Answers:

  1. DEFAULT
  2. CONTENT
  3. DOCUMENT
  4. FILESTREAM

77. Which of the following is the correct order of steps to be followed while using the Transparent Data Encryption security feature of SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. 1. Create a database encryption key. 2. Create or obtain a certificate protected by the encryption key. 3. Create a master key and protect it by the certificate. 4. Set the database to use encryption.
  2. 1. Create a database encryption key. 2. Create a master key. 3. Create or obtain a certificate protected by the master key. 4. Set the database to use encryption.
  3. 1. Create a master key. 2. Create or obtain a certificate protected by the master key. 3. Create a database encryption key and protect it by the certificate. 4. Set the database to use encryption.

78. Which of the following commands is used to start the Resource Governor in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. ALTER Resource Governor Enable
  2. ALTER Resource Governor Reconfigure
  3. ALTER Resource Governor Set
  4. None of the above

79. Which of the following commands is used to connect to a named instance of SQL Server using the sqlcmd utility of SQL Server?

Answers:

  1. sqlcmd -C myServerinstanceName
  2. sqlcmd -S instanceName
  3. sqlcmd -C instanceName
  4. sqlcmd -S myServerinstanceName

80. Which of the following commands is used to run a Transact-SQL script file by using sqlcmd?

Answers:

  1. sqlcmd -S myServerinstanceName -i C:newScript.sql
  2. sqlcmd -S instanceName -o C:newScript.sql
  3. sqlcmd -S myServerinstanceName -r C:newScript.sql
  4. sqlcmd -S instanceName -i C:newScript.sql

81. What is the default precision of the TIME data type in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. 5 digits
  2. 6 digits
  3. 7 digits
  4. 10 digits

82. Which of the following permissions is required to drop a stored procedure in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. SELECT permission on the schema
  2. ALTER permission on the schema
  3. CONTROL permission on the procedure
  4. Both a and b
  5. Either b or c
  6. Both b and c

83. The login timeout when you try to connect to a server must be a number between __________.

Answers:

  1. 0 and 66020
  2. 1 and 65530
  3. 0 and 65534
  4. 1 and 65535

84. In which of the following statements can TOP clause be used in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. Only SELECT
  2. Only SELECT and INSERT
  3. Only SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, DELETE
  4. Only SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE, MERGE, DELETE

85. Which of the following default passwords is used by sqlcmd if -P option is used at the end of the command prompt without a password?

Answers:

  1. 0000
  2. NULL
  3. 1234
  4. None of the above

86. Which of the following namespaces is used to manage the audit configuration programmatically in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. Microsoft.SqlServer.Management.Smo
  2. Microsoft.SqlServer.Server
  3. Microsoft.sqlserver.management.common
  4. Microsoft.sqlserver.connectioninfo

87. What happens to the audit records if a failure to write the Audit event does NOT trigger the SQL Server instance to shut down?

Answers:

  1. The server blocks any new activity to be performed to the SQL Server instance.
  2. Audit events are buffered in memory until they can be flushed to the target.
  3. The audit is automatically disabled.
  4. An error is displayed.

88. Which of the following code snippets causes only partition number 1 to be rebuilt while changing the compression of a partitioned table?

Answers:

  1. ALTER TABLE Table1 REBUILD WITH (DATA_COMPRESSION = PAGE)
  2. ALTER TABLE Table1 REBUILD PARTITION = 1 WITH (DATA_COMPRESSION = NONE) GO
  3. ALTER TABLE Table1 REBUILD PARTITION ALL WITH (DATA_COMPRESSION = PAGE ON PARTITIONS(1) )
  4. All of the above

89. Analyze the following data types and schemas:

1.The SQL Server system data type.
2.The default schema of the current user in the current database.
3.The dbo schema in the current database.

In which order does the SQL Server Database Engine refer to type_name when a type_schema_name is NOT specified while creating a table in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. 3,2,1
  2. 2,3,1
  3. 3,1,2
  4. 1,2,3
  5. Any order

90. Which of the following options is NOT supported by the ON DELETE clause of a FOREIGN KEY constraint of SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. CASCADE
  2. DELETE
  3. SET NULL
  4. SET DEFAULT

91. Suppose you create a stored procedure and save it in the database with “sp_” prefix. Which of the following statements is true regarding the execution of the stored procedure?

Answers:

  1. The prefix will speed up the execution of the stored procedure.
  2. The prefix will slow down the execution of the stored procedure.
  3. The performance of the stored procedure is not affected.

92. Each table in SQL Server 2008 can have up to ______ nonclustered indexes.

Answers:

  1. 777
  2. 888
  3. 999
  4. 1000

93. Analyze the following code which uses the TOP clause of SQL Server 2008:

USE Person
GO
DECLARE @p AS int
SELECT @p=10
SELECT TOP(@p)
FROM Employee
GO

What Will be the output of the above code?

Answers:

  1. No output is displayed.
  2. A list of first 10 employees is displayed from the Person database.
  3. An incorrect syntax error is displayed.
  4. None of the above.

94. Which of the following is a valid code to remove the key used to encrypt a database using Transparent Data Encryption algorithm?

Answers:

  1. ALTER DATABASE DROP ENCRYPTION KEY
  2. DROP DATABASE ENCRYPTION KEY
  3. ALTER DATABASE REMOVE ENCRYPTION KEY
  4. REMOVE DATABASE ENCRYPTION KEY

95. What should a computed column be marked as so that SQL Server Database Engine can physically store values in a table?

Answers:

  1. ON
  2. WRITE
  3. PERSISTED

96. The output of a Transact SQL query using the GROUPING function of SQL Server 2008 is of __________ return type.

Answers:

  1. varchar
  2. boolean
  3. int
  4. tinyint

97. What is the data type of the parameter “Audit_file_offset” of function “fn_get_audit_file()” in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. varchar
  2. nvarchar
  3. int
  4. bigint

98. Which of the following queries is used to rename a database in SQL Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. sp_renamedb oldname,newname
  2. sp_renamedb newname,oldname
  3. sp_dbrename oldname,newname
  4. sp_rename oldname,newname

99. Which of the following is the correct precedence order of the data types in SQL Server 2008?

1.xml
2.text
3.bigint
4.image
5.float
6.datetime
Answers:

  1. 1,2,3,4,5,6
  2. 6,5,4,3,2,1
  3. 1,6,5,3,2,4
  4. 1,4,2,3,6,5

2,324 total views, 5 views today

Upwork .Net Technology

Knowledge of Net Framework 4.0 Skills Test 2016

Published by:

1. How will you count the odd numbers from the array shown below using LINQ in .Net framework 4.0?

int[]numbers={5,4,1,3,9,8,6,7,2,0};

Answers:

  1. int findoddNumbers = numbers.Count(n => n % 2 == 1);
  2. int findoddNumbers = numbers.Count( n % 2 == 1);
  3. int findoddNumbers = (from number in numbers where numbers%2==1 select Count());
  4. int findoddNumbers = (from number in numbers where number%2==1 select numbers).Count();

2. How do you add MetaDescription to your web page in .Net framework 4.0?

Answers:

  1. HtmlMeta meta2 = new HtmlMeta(); meta2.Name = “description”; meta2.Content = “add meta description”; Page.Header.Controls.Add(HtmlMeta );
  2. Page.MetaDescription
  3. Both a and b are correct.
  4. None of the above.

3. Consider the following code snippet:

namespace ExtensionMethods
{
public static class NumericExtensionMethods
{
public static bool IsNumeric(this string s)
{
float output;
return float.TryParse(s, out output);
}
}
}

After adding the namespace, how will you call the ExtensionMethod on the string if your string variable is defined as:

string test=”4″;

Answers:

  1. test.IsNumeric();
  2. ExtensionMethods.NumericExtensionMethods.IsNumeric();
  3. NumericExtensionMethods m = new NumericExtensionMethods(); m.IsNumeric(test);
  4. None of the above

4. What is the purpose of the System.Windows.Data namespace in .Net framework 4.0?

Answers:

  1. Using System.Windows.Data namespace, you can integrate rich media, including drawings, text, and audio/video content in Windows Presentation Foundation applications.
  2. It contains classes used for binding properties to data sources, data source provider classes, and data-specific implementations of collections and views.
  3. It provides the types that support navigation, including navigating between windows and navigation journaling.
  4. It contains classes for creating windows-based applications that take full advantage of the rich user interface features available in the Microsoft Windows operating system.

5. Suppose you want to eliminate duplicate elements from the array

int[] source = { 7, 4, 1, 3, 9, 8, 6, 7, 2, 1, 8, 15, 8, 23}

and sort the elements in descending order using LINQ in .Net framework 4.0. Which of the following statements can you use?

Answers:

  1. var result = (from s in source orderby s select distinct s).Descending();
  2. var result = (from s in source orderby s descending select s).Distinct();
  3. var result = select distinct s from s in source sortby s descending;
  4. var result = from s in source orderby s descending group p by s select s;

6. Which of the following classes of System.Windows.Media namespace provides rendering support in WPF which includes hit testing, coordinate transformation, and bounding box calculations in .Net framework 4.0?

Answers:

  1. HitTestResult
  2. Visual
  3. Colors
  4. Brush

7. Which of the following statements is correct for ASP.NET MVC Routing in .Net Framework 4.0?

Answers:

  1. It is used to match the incoming requests and to map them to a controller action.
  2. It is used to construct the outgoing URLs which correspond to controller actions.
  3. Both a and b are correct.

8. Which of the following is NOT a valid data source control in .Net framework 4.0?

Answers:

  1. LinqDataSource
  2. XmlDataSource
  3. AccessDataSource
  4. EntityDataSource
  5. All of the above are valid data sources

9. Which of the following statements is correct for WSHttpBinding of WCF in .Net framework 4.0?

Answers:

  1. It is a secure and interoperable binding that is suitable for non-duplex service contracts.
  2. It is a secure and interoperable binding that is suitable for duplex service contracts or communication through SOAP intermediaries.
  3. It is a secure and optimized binding suitable for cross-machine communication between WCF applications.
  4. It is a queued binding that is suitable for cross-machine communication between WCF applications.

10. What result will you get when you run the following LINQ query in .Net framework 4.0?

var scoreRecords = new[] { new {Name = “Alice”, Score = 50},
new {Name = “Bob” , Score = 40},
new {Name = “Cathy”, Score = 45}
};

var scoreRecordsDict = scoreRecords.ToDictionary(sr =>sr.Name);

Response.Write(scoreRecordsDict[“Bob”]);

Answers:

  1. { Name = Bob}
  2. { Name = Bob, Score = 40 }<
  3. Name = Bob
  4. None of the above

11. Which of the following is the correct way to expand the size of application URLs in .Net framework 4.0?

Answers:

  1. <httpModules maxRequestPathLength=”260″ maxQueryStringLength=”2048″ />
  2. <httpRuntime maxRequestPathLength=”260″ maxQueryStringLength=”2048″ />
  3. <httpHandlers maxRequestPathLength=”260″ maxQueryStringLength=”2048″ />
  4. None of the above

12. How will you implement the logic for the following scenario in .Net framework 4.0?

Suppose you have a GridView with paging enabled. You select the third row on page 1 and then move to page 2. Nothing is selected on page 2. When you move back to page 1, the third row should still be selected.

Answers:

  1. Set the GridView DataKeyNames property.
  2. Set the GridView EnablePersistedSelection property to true.
  3. Set the Gridview PagerSettings-Mode property.
  4. It is not possible to implement the given logic for the scenario described above.

13. Which of the following statements is correct for the bubbling routing strategies used by the routing events in WPF in .Net framework 4.0?

Answers:

  1. This event is first raised on the root, then on each element down the tree until the source element is reached.
  2. This event is only raised on the source element. It will have the same behavior as a plain .NET event, except that such events can still participate in mechanisms specific to routed events such as event triggers.
  3. This event is first raised on the source element, then on each element up the tree until the root is reached.
  4. None of the above.

14. How many columns can you select by $orderby OData system query option in .Net Framework 4.0?

Answers:

  1. 5
  2. 12
  3. 20
  4. infinite

15. Which of the following OData system query options is used to determine the maximum number of records to be returned in .Net framework 4.0?

Answers:

  1. $top
  2. $filter
  3. $select
  4. $expand

16. How can you determine, at runtime, if your application is running in the 64-bit version of .Net framework 4.0?

Answers:

  1. Check IntPtr.Size property for a value of 8.
  2. Call the Environment.GetEnvironmentVariable method and pass in the string “Platform” as an argument. Check for a return value of “x64”.
  3. Call the WOW64 emulator method Isx64() and check the boolean return value.

17. Suppose your WCF service root URL is “http://examples.svc”. What will be the response when you request a WCF data service URL with a $skip system query option, as shown below, in .Net framework 4.0?

http://examples.svc/Products?$skip=2&$top=2&$orderby=Rating

Answers:

  1. The response will be the first two product entries from the collection of all products after sorting the collection in descending order of Rating.
  2. The response will be the third and fourth product entries from the collection of all products after sorting the collection in ascending order of Rating.
  3. The response will be the second and third product entries from the collection of all products after sorting the collection in descending order of Rating.

18. Which of the following arrays will be returned as result when you run the following LINQ query in .Net framework 4.0?

object[] varnumbers = { null, 1.0, “two”, 3, “four”, 5, “six”, 7.0 };

var doubles = varnumbers.OfType<double>();

foreach (var d in doubles)
{
Response.Write(d);
}

Answers:

  1. 1, 7
  2. null
  3. two, four, six
  4. null, 1.0, “two”, 3, “four”, 5, “six”, 7.0

19. Which of the following ASP.NET MVC namespaces includes the classes that support forms, input controls, links, partial views, and validation in .Net Framework 4.0?

Answers:

  1. System.Web.Mvc
  2. System.Web.Mvc.Async
  3. System.Web.Mvc.Html
  4. System.Web.Mvc.Sync

20. What is DLR in .Net framework 4.0?

Answers:

  1. It defines the common types that are supported by the languages which are compatible with the .Net framework.
  2. It represents the data types of different languages in a specific format specification.
  3. It is a programming language that manages the execution of programs written in any of several supported languages, allowing them to share common object-oriented classes written in any of the languages.
  4. It is a runtime environment that adds a set of services for dynamic languages to the common language runtime.

21. What is default format used to represent data returned in an ADO.NET Data Services response in .Net framework 4.0?

Answers:

  1. XAML
  2. SOAP
  3. Atom
  4. WSDL

22. Considering the image, which of the following is the correct syntax for encoding a particular string in .Net framework 4.0?

Answers:

  1. Only a
  2. Only b
  3. Both a and b

23. In WCF, what is the significance of the ReceiveRetryCount property of a Poison message in .Net framework 4.0?

Answers:

  1. It is an integer value that indicates the maximum number of times to retry delivery of a message from the application queue to the application.
  2. It is an integer value that indicates the maximum number of retry cycles.
  3. It is the time delay between retry cycles.

24. Which of the following is NOT a valid WPF Localizability attribute in .Net framework 4.0?

Answers:

  1. Readability
  2. Modifiability
  3. Category
  4. Both a and b
  5. All of the above are Localizability attributes

25. Which of the following is NOT a valid QueryExtender filter option in .Net framework 4.0?

Answers:

  1. SearchExpression
  2. RangeExpression
  3. OrderByExpression
  4. All of the above are valid QueryExtender filter options

26. What is the function of WCF Data contracts in .Net framework 4.0?

Answers:

  1. They define, for each parameter or return type, what data is serialized to be exchanged..
  2. They define which operations the client can perform on the service.
  3. They define which errors are raised by the service, and how the service handles and propagates errors to its clients.

27. Which of the following pieces of information is provided by the WCF service contract in .Net framework 4.0?

Answers:

  1. The grouping of operations in a service.
  2. The location of the operations.
  3. The specific protocols and serialization formats that are used to support successful communication with the service.
  4. All of the above.

28. Suppose your site has a page called Index.aspx that you no longer use. Search engines may keep requesting this page.

Which of the following method will you add to the CodeBehind file of Index.aspx that will send requests (including search engine requests) to Default.aspx in .Net framework 4.0?

Answers:

  1. Server.Transfer
  2. Response.Redirect
  3. Response.RedirectPermanent
  4. Server.Execute

29. How will you display the view data in the view of an ASP.NET MVC Application?

Answers:

  1. <%: ViewData[“CurrentTime”] %>
  2. <%=ViewData[“CurrentTime”] %>
  3. %ViewData[“CurrentTime”] %
  4. <ViewData[“CurrentTime”] >

30. How is data passed from controllers to views in an ASP.NET MVC Application?

Answers:

  1. Using ViewData
  2. Using ViewState
  3. Using Sessions
  4. Using Cookies

31. What result will you get when you run the following LINQ query in .Net framework 4.0?

List<string> alphabets = new List<string>() { “whats”, “new”, “in”, “aspnet” };
var alphabetsquery = from alphabet in alphabets select alphabet.Substring(0, 1);
foreach (var alpha in alphabetsquery)
{
Response.Write(alpha);
}

Answers:

  1. wnia
  2. whats
  3. whatsnewinaspnet
  4. aspnetinnewwhats

32. What is a Decorator in WPF of .Net framework 4.0?

Answers:

  1. It is used to add functional handles to elements or provide state information about a control.
  2. It is the base class for elements that apply effects onto or around a single child element, such as Border or Viewbox.
  3. It provides a set of services that can be used to extend the functionality of a common language runtime property.
  4. It is a property with the exception that its value cannot be set outside the class that declared the read-only property.

1,285 total views, 3 views today

Upwork .Net Technology

Dot Net 3.5 using C# Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which of the following are static methods of the System.Reflection Activator class? Answers:

  1. CreateComInstanceFrom<
  2. CreateInstanceFrom
  3. GetInstance
  4. CreateInstance
  5. All of the above

2. Which of the following are true about Extension methods? Answers:

  1. They must be declared static
  2. They can be declared either static or instance members
  3. They must be declared in the same assembly (but may be in different source files)
  4. Extension methods can be used to override existing instance methods
  5. Extension methods with the same signature for the same class may be declared in multiple namespaces without causing compilation errors

3. When using a DataReader to access the results of a Database operation, which of the following are true? Answers:

  1. The DataReader provides a cursor that can be used to move forward and backwards through the result.
  2. The DataReader provides random access capabilities on the result.
  3. The Application code can reference the first row of a multi-row result set faster than it can be by loading it directly into a DataTable
  4. The DataReader can provide the Schema of the result to the application code.

4. Which of the following scenarios are applicable to Window Workflow Foundation? Answers:

  1. Document-centric workflows
  2. Human workflows
  3. User-interface page flows
  4. Builtin support for communications across multiple applications and/or platforms

5. Which of the following are true about using ADO.NET DataSets and DataTables? Answers:

  1. The connection to the database must remain valid for the life of the data objects
  2. All tables in a dataset must come from the same database.
  3. A given instance of a DataTable can be in only one DataSet
  4. Changes made to multiple tables within a DataSet can easily be transferred to a new DataSet which contains only the changes
  5. Content from multiple DataSets can easily be combined into a single DataSet that contains the net result of all changes.

6. Which of the following are true with respect to the standard implementation of Garbage Collection? Answers:

  1. Objects must be set to null in order to be eligible for garbage collection
  2. Unless specific steps are taken, an object may be moved in memory
  3. Objects become eligible for garbage collection as soon as it is impossible for any code to access them
  4. Objects which implement finalizers will always have the finalizer called at some point

7. Which of the following types guarantee atomic reads and writes? Answers:

  1. int
  2. double
  3. string
  4. long
  5. float

8. Which of the following does using Initializer Syntax with a collection as shown below require? CollectionClass numbers = new CollectionClass { 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 }; Answers:

  1. The Collection Class must implement System.Collections.Generic.ICollection<T>
  2. The Collection Class must implement System.Collections.Generic.IList<T>
  3. Each of the Items in the Initializer List will be passed to the Add<T>(T item) method
  4. The items in the initializer will be treated as an IEnumerable<T> and passed to the collection constructor+K110

9. Which features that are not supported in the System.TimeZone class does the System.TimeZoneInfo class provide? Answers:

  1. It provides readable names for both regular time and, if appropriate, daylight savings time
  2. It provides a means of enumerating the known time zones that are available on the local system
  3. It provides functionality to create custom time zones
  4. It provides the period the time zone was in effect for. For example: From 1986 to 2006, it was observed from the first Sunday in April to the last Sunday in October, but since 2007, it is being observed from the second Sunday in March to the first Sunday in November

10. Within Windows Workflow Foundation, Compensating Actions are used for: Answers:

  1. provide a means to rollback a failed transaction
  2. provide a means to undo a successfully committed transaction later
  3. provide a means to terminate an in process transaction
  4. achieve load balancing by adapting to the current activity

11. Of which elements does Generics allow parameterization by type? Answers:

  1. Classes
  2. Structs
  3. Methods
  4. Events
  5. Fields

12. Which of the following do the advantages of Lambda Expressions over Anonymous methods include? Answers:

  1. More concise syntax
  2. The types for a Lambda Expression may be omitted
  3. The body of an anonymous method can not be an expression
  4. Lambda Expressions permit deferred type interference, that anonymous methods do not
  5. All of the above

13. In which of the following types of applications can Windows Workflow Foundation be used? Answers:

  1. Console Applications
  2. Windows Forms based Applications
  3. Windows Presentation Foundation based Applications
  4. ASP.NET based applications
  5. All of the above

14. Which of the following items are recommended when using XML comments to generate documentation? Answers:

  1. <exception>
  2. <code>
  3. <summary>
  4. <events>

15. With which class is the task of mapping a specific point in time into units, such as weeks, months, and years accomplished? Answers:

  1. System.DateTime
  2. System.TimeSpan
  3. System.Globalization.Calendar
  4. System.Globalization.CultureInfo

16. Which of the following are true regarding the System.Collections.Generic.HashSet<T> class? Answers:

  1. HashSet is an unordered collection.
  2. HashSet requires that each element be unique a
    s determined by either a supplied EqualityComparer or the default EqualityComparer
  3. Operations on sets (Union, Intersection, etc) always create new result sets
  4. HashSet provides functionality for “conceptual sets” where the rules for membership can be specified without actually creating all of the items.

17. Which of the following are true regarding System.Threading.ReaderWriterLockSlim? Answers:

  1. It is optimized for single processor/core operations
  2. It is optimized for usage where writes from multiple sources are common
  3. A thread which has a read lock on a resource may not acquire a write lock on the same resource
  4. By default, a thread which has a read lock on a resource and attempts to get another read lock on the same resource will throw an exception

18. The framework provides three different timer classes. Select the answer that properly matches the class with the listed characteristic. Answers:

  1. System.Threading.Timer Simple timer which requires a delegate to be supplied for execution when the timer expires. execution of the method provided by the delegate will be invoked on a ThreadPool Thread.
  2. System.Timers.Timer: Designed for use with worker threads in a multithreaded environment. Can move among threads to handle the raised Elapsed event May result in more accuracy than System.Windows.Forms.Timer instances.
  3. System.Windows.Forms.Timer Lower Resolution timer which requires a UI message pump on the creating thread.
  4. All of the above

19. Which of the following advantages does System.Collections.IDictionaryEnumerator provide over System.Collections.IEnumerator? Answers:

  1. It adds properties for direct access to both the Key and the Value
  2. It is optimized to handle the structure of a Dictionary.
  3. It provides properties to determine if the Dictionary is enumerated in Key or Value order
  4. It provides reverse lookup methods to distinguish a Key from a specific Value

20. While using the capabilities supplied by the System.Messaging classes, which of the following are true? Answers:

  1. Information must be explicitly converted to/from a byte stream before it uses the MessageQueue class
  2. Invoking the MessageQueue.Send member defaults to using the System.Messaging.XmlMessageFormatter to serialize the object.
  3. Objects must be XMLSerializable in order to be transferred over a MessageQueue instance.
  4. The first entry in a MessageQueue must be removed from the queue before the next entry can be accessed
  5. Entries removed from a MessageQueue within the scope of a transaction, will be pushed back into the front of the queue if the transaction fails.

21. What impact will using implicitly typed local variables as in the following example have? var sample = “Hello World”; Answers:

  1. The actual type is determined at compilation time, and has no impact on the runtime
  2. The actual type is determined at runtime, and late binding takes effect
  3. The actual type is based on the native VARIANT concept, and no binding to a specific type takes place.
  4. “var” itself is a specific type defined by the framework, and no special binding takes place

22. Which of the following are true about System.GC under version 3.5 of the Framework? Answers:

  1. You can request that the garbage collector process a generation if it determines that it is appropriate at specific points in your code
  2. You can control the intrusiveness of the garbage collector (i.e. how often it performs collections) while your program is running
  3. You can control the intrusiveness of the garbage collector (i.e. how often it performs collections) only during application initialization
  4. You should specify LowLatency when using Concurrent Server Garbage Collection to improve memory utilization

23. Which of the following operators can be overloaded? Answers:

  1. Assignment (=)
  2. Conditional (&&,||)
  3. Logical (&,|,^)
  4. Shift (<<, >>)

24. Which of the following does the System.IO.Pipes namespace provide? Answers:

  1. Interprocess communication through anonymous and/or named pipes.
  2. Access to named pipes using System.IO.Stream
  3. Access to system level pipe security implemented as discretionary access control lists (DACL) and/or system access control lists (SACL),
  4. Asynchronous read and write operations
  5. All of the above

25. Which of the following statements do Expression Trees fit best? Answers:

  1. Expression trees are a data structure which can be initially composed using language syntax.
  2. Expression trees are dynamically generated code which is executed to perform the desired function.
  3. Expression trees can only be created from Lambda Expressions
  4. Expression trees can be modified once they are created
  5. All of the Above

26. By which contract are the ws-addressing action and replyaction elements of the soap envelop controllable when Windows Communication Foundation is used? Answers:

  1. ServiceContract
  2. OperationContract
  3. DataContract
  4. MessageContract

27. Which of the following are true when comparing ADO.NET with Microsoft DNA (Distributed interNet Applications)? Answers:

  1. ADO.NET provides significantly better performance.
  2. ADO.NET is better suited for communications between disparate systems/applications.
  3. ADO.NET can eliminate the need for COM components in the communication layer.
  4. DNA makes it easier to communicate across firewalled boundaries.

28. When Deleting a DataRow from the DataRowCollection of a DataTable, you can: Answers:

  1. use the DataRowCollection.Remove method to immediately delete the row.
  2. use the DataRowCollection.Remove method to mark the row for deletion when DataRow.AcceptChanges is called.
  3. use the DataRow.Delete method to immediately delete the row.
  4. use the DataRow.Delete method to mark the row for deletion when DataRowAcceptChanges is called.

29. Which of the following are required to be true by objects which are going to be used as keys in a System.Collections.HashTable? Answers:

  1. They must handle case-sensitivity identically in both the GetHashCode() and Equals() methods.
  2. Key objects must be immutable for the duration they are used within a HashTable.
  3. Get HashCode() must be overridden to provide the same result, given the same parameters, regardless of reference equalityl unless the HashTable constructor is provided with an IEqualityComparer parameter.
  4. Each Element in a HashTable is stored as a Key/Value pair of the type System.Collections.DictionaryElement
  5. All
    of the above

30. Which of the following are goals of Windows Communication Foundation? Answers:

  1. Bringing various existing communication technologies into a unified environment.
  2. Cross vendor/platform communication.
  3. Support for asynchronous communications.
  4. Support for distributed applications based on technologies such as MSMQ and/or COM+
  5. All of the above

31. Which access limitation is found in a class member declared protected internal? Answers:

  1. Access is limited to the containing class plus any classes derived from the containing class
  2. Access is limited to the current assembly
  3. Access is limited to the containing class plus any classes derived from the containing class that are also in the current assembly
  4. Access is limited to the containing class plus any classes derived from the containing class or any other class in the current assembly

32. When Windows Communication Foundation is used to develop a Web Service, which of the following are supported? Answers:

  1. WS-Addressing
  2. WS-MetadataExchange
  3. WS-Security
  4. WS-Atomic Transaction
  5. All of the above

33. To which contract is the SessionMode property to disallow, require, or permit applied when Windows Communication Foundation is used? Answers:

  1. ServiceContract
  2. OperationContract
  3. DataContract
  4. MessageContract

34. Which of the following is not supported by remoting object types? Answers:

  1. well-known singleton
  2. well-known single call
  3. client activated
  4. context-agile

35. The default number of threads per processor in the System.Threading.ThreadPool class under version 3.5 of the Framework is: Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 25
  3. 250
  4. 100
  5. 500

36. To which of the following can System.IO.IsolatedStorage not be scoped? Answers:

  1. Restricted to a Specific Application
  2. Restricted to a Specific AppDomain
  3. Restricted to a Specific User
  4. Restricted to a specific Physical Media

37. When using an automatic property, which of the following statements is true? Answers:

  1. The compiler generates a backing field that is completely inaccessible from the application code.
  2. The compiler generates a backing field that is a private instance member with a leading underscore that can be programmatically referenced.
  3. The compiler generates a backing field that is accessible via reflection
  4. The compiler generates a code that will store the information separately from the instance to ensure its security.

38. When using an implicitly typed array, which of the following is most appropriate? Answers:

  1. All elements in the initializer list must be of the same type.
  2. All elements in the initializer list must be implicitly convertible to a known type which is the actual type of at least one member in the initializer list
  3. All elements in the initializer list must be implicitly convertible to the common type which is the base type of the items actually in the list
  4. There are no restrictions on the items in the initializer list as the array is not declared to be a specific type.

39. Which of the following characteristics is present in the DateTime type? Answers:

  1. It always references the UTC (GMT) time
  2. It always references the Local time
  3. It contains a member indicating which time zone it refers to
  4. It contains a member indicating whether the time is UTC, Local, or Unspecified

40. Which of the following code samples show a valid static constructor? Answers:

  1. class Sample { public static Sample() { } }
  2. class Sample { static Sample() { } }
  3. class Sample { static Sample(int value) { } }
  4. class Sample { static void Sample() { } }

41. Which of the following are true regarding System.Web.Mail and System.Net.Mail namespaces? Answers:

  1. System.Web.Mail is not supported under version 3.5 of the Framework
  2. System.Web.Mail is deprecated under version 3.5 of the Framework, and it is officially recommended that System.Net.Mail be used.
  3. System.Web.Mail is the preferred solution when using IIS hosted applications
  4. There are no functional differences; the items were moved to a new namespace to reflect their applicability in a better way

42. In which of the following ways do structs differ from classes? Answers:

  1. Structs can not implement interfaces
  2. Structs cannot inherit from a base struct
  3. Structs cannot have events interfaces
  4. Structs cannot have virtual methods

43. To which of the following do automatic properties refer? Answers:

  1. You declare (explicitly or implicitly) the accessibility of the property and get and set accessors but do not provide any implementation or backing field
  2. You attribute a member field so that the compiler will generate get and set accessors
  3. The compiler creates properties for your class based on class level attributes
  4. They are properties which are automatically invoked as part of the object construction process

44. Given the code below, which of the following items will cause a compilation error? static void F1(params int [] y) { } static void Sample() { int [] j = new Int32[3]; List k = new List(); // ANSWER GOES HERE } Answers:

  1. F1(j);
  2. F1(k);
  3. F1(1, 2, 3);
  4. F1(new [] {1,2,3})
  5. None of the above

45. Which of the following are true about Nullable types? Answers:

  1. A Nullable type is a reference type.
  2. A Nullable type is a structure.
  3. An implicit conversion exists from any non-nullable value type to a nullable form of that type.
  4. An implicit conversion exists from any nullable value type to a non-nullable form of that type.
  5. A predefined conversion from the nullable type S? to the nullable type T? exists if there is a predefined conversion from the non-nullable type S to the non-nullable type T

46. For which of the following scenarios does Reflection.Emit provide support? Answers:

  1. Defining methods dynamically.
  2. Defining types dynamically
  3. Defining assemblies dynamically
  4. Defining Instances dynamically
  5. Exporting an executable code to a disk based assembly

47. Which of the following are true about System.Security.Cryptography under version 3.5 of the framework Answers:

  1. None of the implementations are FIPS-certified
  2. Support is provided for the “Suite B” set of cryptographic algorithms as specified by the National Security Agency (NSA) .
  3. Cryptography Next Generation (CNG) classes are supported on XP and Vista systems
  4. The System.Security.Cryptography.AesManaged class allows custom block size, iteration counts and feedback modes to support any the Rijndael based encryption.

48. Custom non-fatal exceptions should be derived from: Answers:

  1. ApplicationException
  2. DataMisalignedException
  3. ExecutionEngineException
  4. SystemException

49. class Sample { public Sample(int x) { } } In the above code, which of the following other class constructors can directly access the provided constructor? Answers:

  1. public Sample() : this(1) { }
  2. public Sample() : Sample(1) {}
  3. Both of the above
  4. One class constructor can not directly access another constructor

50. Which of the following are characteristics of the System.Threading.Timer class? Answers:

  1. The method provided by the TimerCallback delegate will always be invoked on the thread which created the timer.
  2. The thread which creates the timer must have a message processing loop (i.e. be considered a UI thread)
  3. The class contains protection to prevent reentrancy to the method provided by the TimerCallback delegate
  4. You can receive notification of an instance being Disposed by calling an overload of the Dispose method.

51. Which of the following is not an unboxing conversion? Answers:

  1. void Sample1(object o) { int i = (int)o; }
  2. void Sample1(ValueType vt) { int i = (int)vt; }
  3. enum E { Hello, World} void Sample1(System.Enum et) { E e = (E) et; }
  4. interface I { int Value { get; set; } } void Sample1(I vt) { int i = vt.Value; }
  5. class C { public int Value { get; set; } } void Sample1(C vt) { int i = vt.Value; }

52. Which of the following regarding the System.DateTimeOffset structure are true? Answers:

  1. It provides an exact point in time relative to the UTC time zone
  2. It combines a DateTime structure with a TimeZone structure
  3. It provides arithmetical operations using values with different offsets from the UTC
  4. It can be used to determine the specific TimeZone for a local time

53. Determining the availability of sufficient memory for an operation can be accomplished by: Answers:

  1. There is no supported application level means to determine if a specific amount of memory is available.
  2. using static methods of System.Runtime.MemoryFailPoint and checking the return value
  3. creating an instance of System.Runtime.MemoryFailPoint and monitoring for an InsufficientMemoryException
  4. creating an instance of System.Runtime.MemoryFailPoint and monitoring for an OutOfMemoryException

54. When using version 3.5 of the framework in applications which emit a dynamic code, which of the following are true? Answers:

  1. A Partial trust code can not emit and execute a code
  2. The generated code has no more permissions than the assembly which emitted it.
  3. It can be executed by calling System.Reflection.Emit.DynamicMethod( string name, Type returnType, Type[] parameterTypes ) without any special permissions
  4. None of the above

55. Which of the following characteristics are found in a query expression? Answers:

  1. It must begin with a from clause
  2. It must begin with a select clause
  3. It can end with a group clause
  4. An orderby clause may optionally follow a select clause

56. When using the Demand method of System.Security.IPermission, which of the following will occur? Answers:

  1. The permissions of the code which invoked the Demand method will be evaluated.
  2. For permissions which do a stack walk, an exception will occur only if NONE of the calling codes has the required permission
  3. For permissions which do a stack walk, an exception will occur if ANY of the calling codes does not have the required permission
  4. The permission levels of individual stack frames are always checked regardless of the permission type.

57. Which of the following characteristics do classes in the System.Drawing namespace such as Brush,Font,Pen, and Icon share? Answers:

  1. They encapsulate native resource and must be properly Disposed to prevent potential exhausting of resources.
  2. They are all MarshalByRef derived classes, but functionality across AppDomains has specific limitations.
  3. You can inherit from these classes to provide enhanced or customized functionality
  4. They are Value Type objects.

58. Which of the following are true regarding event declaration in the code below? class Sample { event MyEventHandlerType MyEvent; } Answers:

  1. MyEventHandlerType must be derived from System.EventHandler or System.EventHandler<TEventArgs>
  2. MyEventHandlerType must take two parameters, the first of the type Object, and the second of a class derived from System.EventArgs
  3. MyEventHandlerType may have a non-void return type
  4. If MyEventHandlerType is a generic type, event declaration must use a specialization of that type.
  5. MyEventHandlerType cannot be declared static

59. Which of the following statements apply to developing .NET code, using .NET utilities that are available with the SDK or Visual Studio? Answers:

  1. Developers can create assemblies directly from the MSIL Source Code.
  2. Developers can examine PE header information in an assembly.
  3. Developers can generate XML Schemas from class definitions contained within an assembly.
  4. Developers can strip all meta-data from managed assemblies.
  5. Developers can split an assembly into multiple assemblies.

60. Which of the following is true about C# generics? Answers:

  1. C# allows non-type template parameters
  2. C# supports explicit specialization
  3. C# allows the type parameter to be used as the base class for the generic type
  4. C# allows a generic type parameter itself to be a generic
  5. C# enforces that all codes are valid for all types of parameters

61. The output generated by the fo
llowing code will be:
string t = “This Is a Test”; t.Replace(“T”, “?”); Console.WriteLine(t); Answers:

  1. ?his Is a ?est
  2. ?his Is a ?es?
  3. This Is a Test
  4. ?his Is a Test

62. Which of the following are true about anonymous types? Answers:

  1. They can be derived from any reference type.
  2. Two anonymous types with the same named parameters in the same order declared in different classes have the same type.
  3. Anonymous types can have methods
  4. All properties of an anonymous type are read/write

63. Which of the following are true regarding multiple versions of an assembly? Answers:

  1. When multiple versions of an assembly are available on the search path (AKA private assemblies), the runtime will use the first matching assembly with a version number equal to or higher than the assembly version that was originally linked against.
  2. When assemblies are resolving in the GAC (AKA shared assemblies), both the originator and the version are considered in determining the appropriate assembly.
  3. Configuration files can be used to override the version specified at build time.
  4. Strong Names are not required to utilize .NET’s versioning capabilities

64. Which of the following are true about declarative attributes? Answers:

  1. They must be inherited from the System.Attribute.
  2. Attributes are instantiated at the same time as instances of the class to which they are applied.
  3. Attribute classes may be restricted to be applied only to application element types.
  4. By default, a given attribute may be applied multiple times to the same application element.

65. Which of the following statements are applicable to LINQ to SQL? Answers:

  1. It is an O/RM (object relational mapping) implementation.
  2. It is a set of enhancements to the DataSet and DataTable classes.
  3. It requires the use of the SQLServer as the database
  4. Because LINQ is based on Queries, it can not be used to modify the data in the database.
  5. None of the above

66. When Implementing System.EnterpriseServices.ServicedComponent derived classes, which of the following statements are true? Answers:

  1. Enabling object pooling requires an attribute on the class and the enabling of pooling in the COM+ catalog.
  2. Methods can be configured to automatically mark a transaction as complete by the use of attributes.
  3. You can configure authentication using the AuthenticationOption when the ActivationMode is set to Library.
  4. You can control the lifecycle policy of an individual instance using the SetLifetimeService method.

2,747 total views, 4 views today