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Data Warehousing Test 2016

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1. Which of the following are the modes of OLAP?

Answers:

  1. MOLAP
  2. ROLAP
  3. KOLAP

2. OLAP queries can be characterised as on-line transactions that do not:

Answers:

  1. Access small amounts of data
  2. Analyse the relationships between many types of business elements e.g. sales, products, regions, and channels
  3. Compare aggregated data over hierarchical time periods e.g. monthly, quarterly, yearly
  4. Present data in different perspectives e.g. sales by region vs. sales by channels by product within each region
  5. Respond quickly to user requests, so that users can pursue an analytical thought process without being stymied by the system

3. Normalisation is:

Answers:

  1. The process of organising data in accordance with the rules of a relational database
  2. The process of cleansing the data
  3. The process of integrating the data into the datawarehouse from legacy systems
  4. The process of compressing the data
  5. The process of eliminating invalid data before it is introduced into the data warehouse

4. Which of the following would not be considered as a variable affecting the design of an OLAP system?

Answers:

  1. Query demand
  2. Source of data
  3. Number of dimensions
  4. Atomic data volume
  5. Data volatility

5. A slice is:

Answers:

  1. A subset of a multi-dimensional array corresponding to a single value for one or more members of the dimensions not in the subset
  2. A subset of a multi-dimensional array corresponding to multiple values for one or more members of the dimensions not in the subset
  3. A subset of a multi-dimensional array corresponding to a single value for one or more members of the dimensions in the subset
  4. A subset of a multi-dimensional array corresponding to multiple values for one or more members of the dimensions in the subset
  5. A subset of a multi-dimensional array not corresponding to a single value for one member of the dimensions not in the subset

6. Which of the following techniques can be used to improve query performance?

Answers:

  1. Denormalization
  2. Partitioning
  3. Summarization
  4. Denormalization and Partitioning
  5. Denormalization, Partitioning and Summarization

7. The term OLAP was coined by:

Answers:

  1. Date
  2. Codd
  3. IBM
  4. Oracle
  5. Microsoft

8. The main objects used by OLAP programs are:

Answers:

  1. Multidimensional cubes
  2. Metadata
  3. RDBMS tables
  4. Fact tables
  5. Pivot tables

9. Granularity refers to the:

Answers:

  1. Validity of the data stored in a data warehouse
  2. The level of detail of the facts stored in a data warehouse
  3. The timeliness of the data stored in a data warehouse
  4. The redundancy of the data stored in a data warehouse
  5. Compactness of the data stored in a data warehouse

10. Which of the following queries would be correlated with a Data warehouse?

Answers:

  1. What is the current account balance of this customer?
  2. How many customers have not paid their balances on time?
  3. What is the total number of customers in the middle region?
  4. Which product line sells best in middle region and how does this correlate to demographic data?
  5. Which customer makes the maximum purchases?

11. Data Volatility describes:

Answers:

  1. The degree to which data and data structures change over time
  2. The redundancy of the data
  3. The volume of the data
  4. The compactness of the data
  5. The validity of the data

12. A data warehouse is a “subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, non-volatile collection of data in support of management’s decision-making process”. The term non-volatile means that:

Answers:

  1. The data is refreshed often
  2. The data is backed up often
  3. The data is deleted often
  4. The data is rarely changed
  5. The data is of low volume

13. Which of the following is not true regarding an OLTP system?

Answers:

  1. OLTP is generally regarded as unsuitable for data warehousing
  2. OLTP systems can be repositories of facts and historical data for business analysis
  3. The purpose of an OLTP system is to run day-to-day operations
  4. The Data Model of an OLTP system is normalised
  5. OLTP offers large amounts of raw data

14. A data warehouse includes data from various sources including legacy systems. Legacy systems implies:

Answers:

  1. Systems that have been developed at different times by different people for a variety of purposes
  2. Systems which are no longer useful
  3. Systems whose data is outdated
  4. Systems whose technology is outdated
  5. Systems whose data is corrupt

15. A multi-dimensional data set is sparse if:

Answers:

  1. The data to be analysed is less in volume
  2. If a relatively high percentage of the possible combinations (intersections) of the members from the data set’s dimensions contain missing data
  3. If a relatively high percentage of the possible combinations (intersections) of the members from the data set’s dimensions contain invalid data
  4. If a relatively high percentage of the possible combinations (intersections) of the members from the data set’s dimensions contain valid data
  5. If a relatively high percentage of the possible combinations (intersections) of the members from the data set’s dimensions contain outdated data

16. A data warehouse is a “subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, non-volatile collection of data in support of management’s decision-making process”. The data within the warehouse is integrated in that:

Answers:

  1. Users from all departments help to create the database
  2. Data from various departments is collected into the warehouse
  3. The final product is a fusion of various legacy system information into a cohesive set of information
  4. Every user has access to the data in the warehouse
  5. It contains the data of the enterprise in its entirety

17. Normalization applied to the dimension tables of a star schema is known as:

Answers:

  1. Snowflaking
  2. Synchronization
  3. Slicing and Dicing
  4. Replication
  5. Data transformation

18. Replication refers to the:

Answers:

  1. Physical copying of data from one database to another
  2. Cleansing of the data
  3. Integration of data from various sources into the data warehouse
  4. Analysis of the data
  5. Recovery of data

19. ROLAP stands for:

Answers:

  1. Recyclic On-line Analytical Processing
  2. Relational On-line Analytical Processing
  3. Reduced On-line Analytical Processing
  4. Rotated On-line Analytical Processing
  5. Redundant On-line Analytical Processing

20. In a star schema, a table which contains data about one of the dimensions is called a:

Answers:

  1. Fact table
  2. Meta table
  3. Data Dictionary
  4. Pivot table
  5. Dimension table

21. Which of the following would not be an application of Data Mining in the banking field?

Answers:

  1. Detect patterns of fraudulent credit card use
  2. Ascertaining the number of transactions made in a day
  3. Determine credit card spending by customer groups
  4. Find hidden correlation between different financial indicators
  5. Predict the customers likely to change their credit card affiliation

22. A Star Schema is a database design that consists of:

Answers:

  1. A fact table
  2. Dimension tables
  3. Pivot tables
  4. A fact and pivot tables
  5. A fact table and one or more dimension tables

23. HOLAP stands for:

Answers:

  1. Hierarchical On-line Analytical Processing
  2. Hybrid On-line Analytical Processing
  3. Horizontal On-line Analytical Processing
  4. Hyper On-line Analytical Processing
  5. HyperCube On-line Analytical Processing

24. A structure that stores multi-dimensional information, having one cell for each possible combination of dimensions is known as:

Answers:

  1. Table
  2. Section
  3. Partition
  4. Cube
  5. Repository

25. Which Data Mining function/technique is used to analyse a collection of records over a period of time?

Answers:

  1. Classification
  2. Associations
  3. Sequential/Temporal patterns
  4. Clustering
  5. Segmentation

26. Which technique of Data Mining involves developing mathematical structures with the ability to learn?

Answers:

  1. Clustering and Segmentation
  2. Neural Networks
  3. Fuzzy Logic
  4. Linear Regression Analysis
  5. Rule based Analysis

27. A datawarehouse should be able to implement advanced query functionality. This means :

Answers:

  1. The RDBMS must provide a complete set of analytic operations including core sequential and statistical operations
  2. The RDBMS must not have any architectural limitations
  3. The RDBMS server must support hundreds, even thousands, of concurrent users while maintaining acceptable query performance
  4. Query performance must not be dependent on the size of the database, but rather on the complexity of the query
  5. The warehouse must ensure local consistency, global consistency, and referential integrity

28. The modification of data as it is moved into the data warehouse is:

Answers:

  1. Data Transformation
  2. Replication
  3. Synchronization
  4. Data migration
  5. Normalization

29. Which of the following statements is incorrect regarding Data Mining?

Answers:

  1. It is the process of turning data into information
  2. It is a collection of many techniques
  3. It is a replacement for OLAP
  4. It is based on machine generated hypothesis
  5. It is used in Decision Support, Prediction, Forecasting and Estimation

30. Which of the following would be the only similarity between a datawarehouse and OLTP system?

Answers:

  1. Purpose
  2. Structure of data
  3. Type of data
  4. Condition of data
  5. Data model

31. Which of the following is not true regarding the process of Data Mining?

Answers:

  1. Software techniques are used for finding patterns and regularities in sets of data
  2. It is the computer that is responsible for finding the patterns by identifying the underlying rules and features in the data
  3. Data mining analysis tends to work from the data up
  4. The best techniques are those developed with an orientation towards small volumes of data
  5. The analysis process starts with a set of data, uses a methodology to develop an optimal representation of the structure of the data, during which time knowledge is acquired

32. Data quality management refers to the fact that:

Answers:

  1. Ad-hoc analysis must not be slowed or inhibited by the performance of the data warehouse RDBMS
  2. The warehouse must ensure local consistency, global consistency, and referential integrity
  3. The RDBMS server must support hundreds, even thousands, of concurrent users while maintaining acceptable query performance
  4. The server must include tools that co-ordinate the movement of subsets of data between warehouses
  5. The RDBMS must provide a complete set of analytic operations including core sequential and statistical operations

33. Which of the following stage is concerned with the extraction of patterns from the data?

Answers:

  1. Selection
  2. Pre-processing
  3. Transformation
  4. Data Mining
  5. Interpretation and Evaluation

34. The Metadata of the data warehouse should at least contain:

Answers:

  1. The structure of the data
  2. The algorithm used for summarisation
  3. The mapping from the operational environment to the data warehouse and the algorithm used for summarisation
  4. The structure of the data and the algorithm used for summarisation
  5. The structure of the data, the algorithm used for summarisation and the mapping from the operational environment to the data warehouse and the algorithm used for summarisation

35. Which of the following features are required by OLAP applications?

Answers:

  1. Multidimensional views of data
  2. Calculation-intensive capabilities
  3. Time intelligence
  4. Multidimensional views of data and Calculation-intensive capabilities
  5. Calculation-intensive capabilities and Time intelligence

36. Data Mining is also known as

Answers:

  1. Data Extraction
  2. Data Cleansing
  3. Data Archiving
  4. Knowledge Discovery in Databases (KDD)
  5. Data Preservation

37. Given the following steps between raw data and extracted knowledge, arrange them in the correct order:

1 Data mining
2 Transformation
3 Selection
4 Pre-processing
5 Interpretation and Evaluation

Answers:

  1. 3,4,2,1,5
  2. 4,3,2,1,5
  3. 4,2,1,3,5
  4. 4,1,2,3,5
  5. 3,4,1,2,5

38. The data warehouse is typically a large database on a high performance SMP system. Here SMP stands for:

Answers:

  1. Symmetric Multi-Processing
  2. Superior Multi-Processing
  3. Systematic Massive Processing
  4. Symmetric Massive Processing
  5. Systematic Multi-Processing

39. The main impetus behind data warehousing was:

Answers:

  1. To discover means to reduce the data volumes
  2. To make OLTP systems work faster
  3. To reduce human interaction with database systems
  4. To access corporate knowledge repositories based on huge databases to make sound business decisions
  5. To standardise the database products used

40. SQL stands for:

Answers:

  1. Structured Query Language
  2. Systematic Query Language
  3. Structured Query Logic
  4. Structured Queuing Logic
  5. Standard Query Logic

41. Changing the view of the data to a higher level of aggregation is known as:

Answers:

  1. Implosion
  2. Drill down
  3. Drill up
  4. Synchronisation
  5. Summarisation

42. The movement of data from one environment to another is known as:

Answers:

  1. Data Migration
  2. Normalization
  3. Replication
  4. Data Mining
  5. Data Cleansing

43. In which component of the enterprise is the data re-organised for analysis and information extracted from the data?

Answers:

  1. The Data Warehouse
  2. The Data Mart
  3. The Data Mine
  4. The operational RDBMS
  5. Metadata

44. A means of extending the data accessible to the end user beyond that which is stored in the OLAP server is know as :

Answers:

  1. Consolidation
  2. Multi Dimensional Analysis
  3. Drill Down
  4. Navigation
  5. Reach through

45. The logical organisation of data in a database is called:

Answers:

  1. Normalisation
  2. Schema
  3. View
  4. Fact table
  5. Dimension

46. Which of the following type of data is most likely to be stored on some form of mass storage ?

Answers:

  1. Metadata
  2. Highly summarised data
  3. Lightly summarised data
  4. Current detail data
  5. Older detail data

47. The requirement that the datawarehouse RDBMS server must support hundreds and thousands of concurrent users while maintaining an acceptable query performance is known as:

Answers:

  1. Terabyte Scalability
  2. Load Performance
  3. Mass User Scalability
  4. Data Quality Management
  5. Query Performance

48. Metadata does not include:

Answers:

  1. The actual data
  2. A description of tables and fields in the warehouse, including data types and the range of acceptable values
  3. A similar description of tables and fields in the source databases, with a mapping of fields from the source to the warehouse
  4. A description of how the data has been transformed, including formulae, formatting, currency conversion, and time aggregation
  5. Information that is needed to support and manage the operation of the data warehouse

49. The main objective of Data Mining is:

Answers:

  1. The safe storage of data
  2. Elimination of errors from the data
  3. Deleting data that is no longer important to the organization
  4. The extraction of implicit, previously unknown, and potentially useful information from data
  5. To help in the generation of reports for the management

50. In the Discovery model of Data Mining, the emphasis is on which of the following?

Answers:

  1. The system automatically discovering important information hidden in the data
  2. The user who is responsible for formulating the hypothesis and issuing the query on the data to affirm or negate the hypothesis
  3. Volume of the data being examined
  4. Timeliness of the data
  5. Speed with which the data is examined

51. In a star schema, the central table which contains the individual facts being stored in the database is called a:

Answers:

  1. Fact table
  2. Meta table
  3. Data Dictionary
  4. Pivot table
  5. Dimension table

52. Which of the following rules would be considered the central core of OLAP?

Answers:

  1. Multidimensional Conceptual View
  2. Intuitive Data Manipulation
  3. Accessibility
  4. Batch Extraction vs Interpretative
  5. Transparency

53. Changing the view of the data to a greater level of detail is known as:

Answers:

  1. Explosion
  2. Drill down
  3. Drill up
  4. Exploration
  5. Aggregation

54. A multidimensional cube records a set of data derived from:

Answers:

  1. Fact tables
  2. Pivot tables
  3. Dimensions
  4. Fact tables and Dimensions
  5. Fact tables and Pivot tables

55. Which Data Mining technique partitions the database so that each partition or group is similar according to some criteria or metric ?

Answers:

  1. Clustering and Segmentation
  2. Induction
  3. Neural Networks
  4. Data Visualisation
  5. Linear Regression Analysis

56. Which of the following is not associated with data warehousing?

Answers:

  1. Transaction processing
  2. Information retrieval and analysis
  3. Multi-dimensional data model
  4. Query processing
  5. Transformed and summarised data

57. Which of the following is an architecture for OLAP?

Answers:

  1. MOLAP
  2. ROLAP
  3. KOLAP
  4. MOLAP and ROLAP
  5. MOLAP, ROLAP and KOLAP

58. Under OLAP terminology, slice and dice refers to:

Answers:

  1. The user-initiated process of navigating by calling for page displays interactively, through the specification of slices via rotations and drill down/up
  2. Restricting the view of database objects to a specified subset
  3. A means of extending the data accessible to the end user beyond that which is stored in the OLAP server
  4. Computing all of the data relationships for one or more dimensions
  5. Applying calculations to input data at the time the request for that data is made

59. In the Verification model of Data Mining, the emphasis is on which of the following?

Answers:

  1. The system automatically discovering important information hidden in the data
  2. The user who is responsible for formulating the hypothesis and issuing the query on the data to affirm or negate the hypothesis
  3. Volume of the data being examined
  4. Timeliness of the data
  5. Speed with which the data is examined

60. The applications of Data Mining would not include:

Answers:

  1. Discovering buying-patterns for cross selling
  2. Financial market prediction
  3. Discovering errors made during data entry
  4. Discovering which customer is most profitable
  5. Credit assessment

61. A data warehouse is a “subject-oriented, integrated, time-variant, non-volatile collection of data in support of management’s decision-making process”. The data within the warehouse is integrated in such a way that:

Answers:

  1. Users from all departments help to create the database
  2. It contains the data of the enterprise in its entirety
  3. The final product is a fusion of various legacy system information into a cohesive set of information
  4. Every user has access to the data in the warehouse

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Upwork Databases

Data Structures Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which graph traversal algorithm uses a queue to keep track of the vertices which need to be processed?

Answers:

  1. Breadth-first search
  2. Depth-first search

2. A simple graph with n vertices and k components can have at the most _______.

Answers:

  1. n edges
  2. n-k edges
  3. (n-k)(n-k-1)/2 edges
  4. (n-k)(n-k+1)/2 edges

3. What is the minimum number of edges which must be removed from a complete bipartite graph of six nodes K(6) so that the remaining graph is a planar?

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 6

4. Which feature of heaps allows them to be efficiently implemented using a partially filled array?

Answers:

  1. Heaps are binary search trees
  2. Heaps are complete binary trees
  3. Heaps are full binary trees
  4. Heaps contain only integer data

5. What happens if you make a recursive call without making the problem smaller?

Answers:

  1. The operating system detects the infinite recursion because of the “repeated state”
  2. The program keeps running until you press Ctrl-C
  3. The results are non-deterministic
  4. The run-time stack overflows, halting the program

6. Tree algorithms typically run in time O(d) . What is d?

Answers:

  1. The depth of the tree
  2. The number of divisions at each level
  3. The number of nodes in the tree
  4. The total number of entries in all the nodes of the tree

7. Here is a code for an integer variable n

while (n > 0)
{
n = n/10; // Use integer division
}
What is the worst case scenario analysis for the above loop?

Answers:

  1. O(1)
  2. O(log n)
  3. O(n)
  4. O(n2)

8. Suppose we have a circular array implementation of a queue, with ten items in the queue stored at data[2] through data[11]. The CAPACITY is 42. Where does the push member function place the new entry in the array?

Answers:

  1. data[1]
  2. data[2]
  3. data[11]
  4. data[12]

9. Which of the following sorting algorithms yield approximately the same worst-case and average-case running time behavior in O(n*log(n))?

Answers:

  1. Bubble sort and selection sort
  2. Heap sort and merge sort
  3. Quick sort and radix sort
  4. Tree sort and Median-of-3 quicksort

10. The operation for adding an entry to a stack is traditionally called ________.

Answers:

  1. add
  2. append
  3. insert
  4. push

11. For a complete binary tree with depth d, the total number of nodes is:

Answers:

  1. 2d+1
  2. 2d
  3. 2d-1
  4. 2d2

12. Which of the following is false?

Answers:

  1. A binary search begins with the middle element in the array
  2. A binary search continues halving the array either until a match is found or until there are no more elements to search
  3. If the search argument is greater than the value located in the middle of the binary, the binary search continues in the lower half of the array

13. Which of the following applications may use a stack?

Answers:

  1. A parentheses balancing program
  2. Keeping track of local variables at run time
  3. Syntax analyzer for a compiler
  4. All of the above

14. What is the value of the post-fix expression 6 3 2 4 + – *?

Answers:

  1. Something between -15 and -100
  2. Something between -5 and -15
  3. Something between 5 and 15
  4. Something between 15 and 100

15. The minimum number of interchanges needed to convert the array 89,19,14,40,17,12,10,2,5,7,11,6,9,70 into a heap with the maximum element at the root is:

Answers:

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3

16. Suppose T is a complete binary tree with 14 nodes. What would be the minimum possible depth of T?

Answers:

  1. 0
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5

17. In which data structure do the insertion and deletion take place at the same end?

Answers:

  1. Linked list
  2. Tree
  3. Stack
  4. Linked list of stack

18. What is the formulae to find maximum number of nodes n in a perfect binary tree?

Answers:

  1. 2h + 1 – 1
  2. 2h + 1
  3. 2h
  4. 2h + 1 + 1

19. A chained hash table has an array size of 512. What is the maximum number of entries that can be placed in the table?

Answers:

  1. 511
  2. 512
  3. 1024
  4. There is no maximum limit

20. In which dynamically created linked list can the first node be recovered after moving to the second node?

Answers:

  1. Simple linked list
  2. Circular linked list
  3. Doubly linked list
  4. Both b and c

21. What is the best definition of a collision in a hash table?

Answers:

  1. Two entries are identical except for their keys
  2. Two entries with different data have exactly the same key
  3. Two entries with different keys have exactly the same hash value
  4. Two entries with exactly the same key have different hash values

22. What is the pre-order traversal equivalent of the following algebraic expression?

[a+(b-c)]*[(d-e)/(f+g-h)]

Answers:

  1. abc-+de-fg+h-/*
  2. *+a-bc/-de-+fgh
  3. a+*b-/c-d-e+fgh
  4. *+a-bc-/d+e-fgh

23. A sparse matrix can be a lower-triangular matrix when____.

Answers:

  1. all the non-zero elements lie only on the leading diagonal
  2. all the non-zero elements lie above the leading diagonal
  3. all the non-zero elements lie below the leading diagonal
  4. None of the above

24. A graph in which all nodes are of an equal degree is known as:

Answers:

  1. Multigraph
  2. Non – regular graph
  3. Regular graph
  4. Complete graph

25. What is the maximum number of statements that may be recursive calls in a single function declaration?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. n (n is the argument)
  4. There is no fixed maximum

26. Which additional requirement is placed on an array so that binary search may be used to locate an entry?

Answers:

  1. The array elements must form a heap
  2. The array must have at least 2 entries
  3. The array must be sorted
  4. The array’s size must be a power of two

27. What is the worst-case scenario for heapsort to sort an array of n elements?

Answers:

  1. O(log n)
  2. O(n)
  3. O(n log n)
  4. O(n2)

28. The recurrence relation T(n)=mT(n/2)+an2 is satisfied by___

Answers:

  1. T(n)=O(nm)
  2. T(n)=O(m*log(m))
  3. T(n)=O(n*log(m))
  4. T(n)=O(m*log(n))

29. If ‘data’ is a circular array of CAPACITY elements and ‘last’ is an index in that array, what is the formula for the index after ‘last’?

Answers:

  1. (last % 1) + CAPACITY
  2. last % (1 + CAPACITY)
  3. (last + 1) % CAPACITY
  4. last + (1 % CAPACITY)

30. Consider the node of a complete binary tree whose value is stored in data[i] for an array implementation. If this node has a right child, where will the right child’s value be stored (the array’s first index is 0)?

Answers:

  1. data[i+1]
  2. data[i+2]
  3. data[2*i + 1]
  4. data[2*i + 2]

31. In a complete binary tree, the parent of any node k can be determined by ________.

Answers:

  1. 2k
  2. 2k+1
  3. K/2
  4. 2K-1

32. Consider a linked list of n elements which is pointed by an external pointer. What is the time taken to delete the element which is a successor of the pointed element by a given pointer?

Answers:

  1. O(1)
  2. O(log2n)
  3. O(n)
  4. O(n*log2n)

33. Suppose X is a B-tree leaf containing 41 entries and has at least one sibling. Which of the statements would be true in this case?

Answers:

  1. Any sibling of X is also a leaf
  2. Any sibling of X contains at least 41 entries
  3. The parent of X has exactly 42 entries
  4. X has at least 41 siblings

34. In a complete binary tree of n nodes, how far are the most distant two nodes? Assume each in the path counts 1. Assume log(n) is log base 2.

Answers:

  1. about log(n)
  2. about 2*log(n)
  3. about 3*log(n)
  4. about 4*log(n)

35. In a graph G, F is a spanning forest of G if
(i)F is a subgraph of G containing all the nodes of G
(ii)F is an order forest containing trees T1,T2,…Tn
(iii)Ti contains all the nodes that are reachable in G from the root Ti and are contained in Tj for some j<i..

Which of the above conditions is/are true?

Answers:

  1. (i),(ii)
  2. (ii),(iii)
  3. (i),(iii)
  4. (i),(ii) and (iii)

36. Which information is not saved in the activation record when a function call is executed?

Answers:

  1. Current depth of recursion
  2. Formal parameters
  3. Location where the function should return when done
  4. Local variables

37. The linked list implementation of sparse matrices is superior to the generalized dope vector method because it is __________.

Answers:

  1. conceptually easier and completely dynamic
  2. efficient if the sparse matrix is a band matrix
  3. efficient in accessing an entry
  4. all of these

38. Which situation occurs frequently if the selected hash function is poor?

Answers:

  1. Overflow
  2. Underflow
  3. Collision
  4. None of the above

39. The post-order traversal of a binary tree starts with:

Answers:

  1. Post-order traversal of the left sub tree
  2. Post-order traversal of the right sub tree
  3. Post-order traversal of the root
  4. Post-order traversal of the lowest node

40. One difference between a queue and a stack is:

Answers:

  1. Queues require dynamic memory but stacks do not
  2. Stacks require dynamic memory but queues do not
  3. Queues use two ends of the structure but stacks use only one
  4. Stacks use two ends of the structure but queues use only one

41. What is the minimum number of nodes in a full binary tree with depth 3?

Answers:

  1. 4
  2. 8
  3. 11
  4. 15

42. Using which traversal in a sorted binary insertion tree can a sorted array of numbers be obtained?

Answers:

  1. Pre-order traversal
  2. Post-order traversal
  3. In order traversal
  4. Top-down traversal

43. Where does the push member function place the new entry on the linked list in the linked list implementation of a queue?

Answers:

  1. At the head
  2. At the tail
  3. After all other entries that are greater than the new entry
  4. After all other entries that are smaller than the new entry

44. Which term is used to describe an O(n) algorithm?

Answers:

  1. Constant
  2. Linear
  3. Logarithmic
  4. Quadratic

45. What is the minimum number of nodes in a complete binary tree with depth 3?

Answers:

  1. 4
  2. 8
  3. 11
  4. 15

46. What is true of the complete bipartite graphs K(3,3) and K(2,4)?

Answers:

  1. Both are planar
  2. Neither is a planar
  3. Both are isomorphic
  4. None of these

47. If X is the adjacency matrix of a graph G with no self loops, the entries along the principle diagonal of X are ______.

Answers:

  1. all zeros
  2. all ones
  3. both zeros and ones
  4. different

48. Consider a linked list implementation of a queue with two pointers: front and rear. The time needed to insert element in a queue of length n is:

Answers:

  1. O(1)
  2. O(log2n)
  3. O(n)
  4. O(n*log2n)

49. What is the worst-case scenario for mergesort to sort an array of n elements?

Answers:

  1. O(log n)
  2. O(n)
  3. O(n log n)
  4. O(n2)

50. Consider a hashing function that resolves collision by quadratic probing. Assume that the address space is indexed from 1 to 8. If a collision occurs at position 4, the location which will never be probed is:

Answers:

  1. 4
  2. 5
  3. 8
  4. 2

51. In which data structure is the concept of rotation used?

Answers:

  1. Binary search tree
  2. Circular queue
  3. AVL tree
  4. Circular linked list

52. You have implemented a queue with a circular array keeping track of the first, the last, and the count (the number of items in the array). Suppose the first is zero, and the last is CAPACITY-1, what can you say about the count?

Answers:

  1. The count must be zero
  2. The count must be CAPACITY
  3. The count can be zero or CAPACITY, but no other value can occur
  4. None of the above

53. A procedure that calls itself in a program is called _______.

Answers:

  1. Repeat
  2. Loop
  3. Recursion
  4. Tree

54. State whether True or False.

For all possible inputs, a linear algorithm to solve a problem must perform faster than a quadratic algorithm to solve the same problem.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

55. If a max heap is implemented using a partially filled array called data, and the array contains n elements (n > 0), where is the entry with the greatest value?

Answers:

  1. data[0]
  2. data[n-1]
  3. data[n]
  4. data[2*n + 1]

56. What is the worst-case scenario for quicksort to sort an array of n elements?

Answers:

  1. O(log n)
  2. O(n)
  3. O(n log n)
  4. O(n2)

57. Which of the following lines of the code will delete two successive nodes of a single linked linear list(with more than two nodes)? Here ‘LINK[X]’ denotes the address field of node X.

Answers:

  1. LINK[X]:=LINK[LINK[X]]
  2. X:=LINK[LINK[X]]
  3. LINK[LINK[X]]:=X
  4. LINK[X]:=LINK[LINK[LINK[X]]]

58. A non- planar graph with the minimum number of vertices has:

Answers:

  1. 10 edges, 5 vertices
  2. 9 edges, 6 vertices
  3. 6 edges, 4 vertices
  4. 9 edges, 5 vertices

59. A circuit which is a connected graph and which includes every vertex of the graph is known as_____.

Answers:

  1. Euler
  2. Unicursal
  3. Hamiltonian
  4. Clique

60. A one dimensional array A has indices 1…75. Each element is a string and takes up three memory words. The array is stored starting at location 1120 decimal. The starting address of A[49] is:

Answers:

  1. 1267
  2. 1164
  3. 1264
  4. 1169

61. A simple graph in which there exists an edge between every pair of vertices is called a/an _________.

Answers:

  1. incomplete graph
  2. complete graph
  3. Euler graph
  4. planner graph

62. Let A be a sorted array of n=10 elements. Assume that only one comparison is required to determine whether the target is equal to, less than, or greater than A[i]. Which of the following denotes the average successful time of finding an arbitrary element x in A using the binary search?

Answers:

  1. 1.6
  2. 2.9
  3. 4.2
  4. 5.5

63. Which operations require linear time for their worst-case behavior in the linked-list version of a queue?

Answers:

  1. front
  2. push
  3. empty
  4. None of these operations require linear time

64. Which of the following statements about binary trees is false?

Answers:

  1. Every Node must have at least two children
  2. Every non-empty tree has exactly one root node
  3. Every node has at the most two children
  4. None of the above

65. How many real links are required for a sparse matrix having 10 rows, 10 columns and 15 non-zero elements? (Pick the nearest answer)

Answers:

  1. 15
  2. 20
  3. 50
  4. 100

66. In a graph G having the cut set matrix C(G) and an incidence matrix A(G), the rank of C(G) would be____

Answers:

  1. The same as that of A(G)
  2. More than that of A(G)
  3. Less than that of A(G)
  4. Independent of the rank of A(G)

67. Which of the operations is simpler in the doubly linked list than it is in the simple linked list?

Answers:

  1. Insertion
  2. Deletion
  3. Both a and b
  4. None of the above

68. Which of the following formulae in big-Oh notation best represents the expression n2+35n+6?

Answers:

  1. O(n3)
  2. O(n2)
  3. O(n)
  4. O(42)

69. The operation for removing an entry from a stack is traditionally called _______.

Answers:

  1. delete
  2. peek
  3. pop
  4. remove

70. Which queue allows insertion and deletion at both ends?

Answers:

  1. Simple queue
  2. Circular queue
  3. Dequeue
  4. Special queue

71. What kind of initialization needs to be done for a chained hash table?

Answers:

  1. None
  2. The key at each array location must be initialized
  3. The head pointer of each chain must be set to NULL
  4. Both B and C must be carried out

72. The number of nodes in the largest maximal independent set of the complete bipartite graph K(4,2) is_____ .

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 6

73. Which of the following techniques is used to resolve collision in hashing?

Answers:

  1. Separate chaining
  2. Open addressing
  3. Linear probing
  4. All of the above

74. You have implemented a queue with a linked list keeping track of a front pointer and a rear pointer. Which of these pointers will you change during an insertion into a NONEMPTY queue?

Answers:

  1. Neither of them changes
  2. Only front_ptr changes
  3. Only rear_ptr changes
  4. Both change

75. Which of the following operations is performed more efficiently by the doubly linked list than by the linear linked list?

Answers:

  1. Deleting a node the location of which is given
  2. Searching an unsorted list for a given item
  3. Inserting a node after the node with a given location
  4. Traversing the list to process each node

76. Four characters are placed in a queue in the following order: D, C, B, and A. If they are removed one at a time, what will be the order of their removal?

Answers:

  1. ABCD
  2. ABDC
  3. DCAB
  4. DCBA

77. What is the meaning of the statement: “Entries in a stack are ‘ordered'”?

Answers:

  1. A collection of stacks can be sorted
  2. Stack entries may be compared with the ‘<‘ operation
  3. The entries must be stored in a linked list
  4. There is a first entry, a second entry, and so on

78. A given connected graph G is a Euler graph if and only if all vertices of G are of ______.

Answers:

  1. the same degree
  2. even degrees
  3. odd degrees
  4. different degrees

79. Which of the following data structures has a balanced condition?

Answers:

  1. AVL Tree
  2. Doubly Linked List
  3. Double Ended Queue
  4. Stack

80. A matrix is called sparse when______

Answers:

  1. most of its elements are non-zero
  2. most of its elements are zero
  3. all of its elements are non-zero
  4. None of the above

81. Which of the following operations in the simple linked list will modify the beginning of the linked list?

Answers:

  1. Deletion of the first node
  2. Insertion after the last node
  3. Insertion after the first node
  4. None of the above

82. You have implemented a queue with a circular array keeping track of the first item, the last item, and the count (the number of items in the array). Suppose the address of the first is zero, and that of the last is CAPACITY-1, what can you say about the count?

Answers:

  1. The count must be zero
  2. The count must be CAPACITY
  3. The count can be zero or CAPACITY, but no other value can occur
  4. None of the above

83. What is the worst-case scenario for the binary search for finding a single item in an array?

Answers:

  1. Constant time
  2. Logarithmic time
  3. Linear time
  4. Quadratic time

84. A binary tree, all the levels of which except possibly the last have the maximum number of nodes and all the nodes at the last level appear as far left as possible, is known as:

Answers:

  1. Full binary tree
  2. 2-Tree
  3. Threaded tree
  4. Complete binary tree

85. What is the pre-order traversal equivalent of the following algebraic expression?

[a+(b-c)]*[(d-e)/(f+(g-h))]

Answers:

  1. abc-+de-fg+h-/*
  2. *+a-bc/-de+f-gh
  3. a+*b-/c-d-e+fgh
  4. *+a-bc-/d+e-fgh

86. In the linked representation of a sparse matrix, the head node for a column list stores_____

Answers:

  1. a pointer to the next column head node
  2. a pointer to the first node in the column list
  3. column number
  4. All of the above

87. The hashing function which dynamically adapts to changes in the table being accessed is called ________.

Answers:

  1. Real
  2. Linear
  3. Partial
  4. Virtual

88. What will happen if in data structure a pop operation on the stack causes the stack pointer to move past the origin of the stack?

Answers:

  1. Overflow
  2. Underflow
  3. Null
  4. Garbage collection

89. If h is the depth of the tree, which formula will be used to find the maximum number of nodes n in a perfect binary tree?

Answers:

  1. 2h + 1 – 1
  2. 2h + 1
  3. 2h
  4. 2h + 1 + 1

90. What is the minimum number of edges and vertices possible in a non- planar graph?

Answers:

  1. 10 edges, 5 vertices
  2. 9 edges, 6 vertices
  3. 6 edges, 4 vertices
  4. 9 edges, 5 vertices

91. Which of the following is the worst-case scenario for operations on heaps?

Answers:

  1. Neither insertion nor removal is better than linear
  2. Insertion is better than linear, but removal is not
  3. Removal is better than linear, but insertion is not
  4. Both insertion and removal are better than linear

92. Which of these are standard operations of Stack Data Structure?

Answers:

  1. Push, delete
  2. Insert, pop
  3. Put, extract
  4. Push, pop

93. Suppose we have a circular array implementation of a queue, with ten items in the queue stored at data[2] through data[11]. The CAPACITY is 42. Where does the enqueue member function place the new entry in the array?

Answers:

  1. data[1]
  2. data[2]
  3. data[11]
  4. data[12]

94. A binary search tree is generated by inserting the following integers in the order: 50,15,62,5,20,58,91,3,8,37,60,24. How many nodes are in the left and right subtrees, respectively?

Answers:

  1. (4,7)
  2. (7,4)
  3. (8,3)
  4. (3,8)

95. What is the worst-case scenario for the binary search for finding a single item in an sorted array?

Answers:

  1. Constant time
  2. Logarithmic time
  3. Linear time
  4. Quadratic time

96. What is the maximum depth of recursive calls a function may make?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. n (where n is the argument)
  4. There is no fixed maximum

97. Consider this binary search tree.

Which will be the new root if you remove the root and replace it with something from the left subtree?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 5

98. The number of distinct simple graphs with up to three nodes is _______.

Answers:

  1. 15
  2. 10
  3. 7
  4. 9

99. In a selection sort algorithm, the number of passes required to perform the sort are ______.

Answers:

  1. N
  2. N-1
  3. N-2
  4. N^2

1,895 total views, 4 views today

Upwork Databases

ANSI SQL Test 2016

Published by:

1. The simplest query must include at least________ and _________.

Answers:

  1. A select clause
  2. A where clause
  3. A from clause
  4. A group by clause
  5. A having clause
  6. An order by clause

2. Which of the following are aggregate functions in SQL?

Answers:

  1. Avg
  2. Select
  3. Order By
  4. Sum
  5. Union
  6. Group by
  7. Having

3. Which logical operator can reverse the result?

Answers:

  1. AND
  2. OR
  3. NOT
  4. ANY

4. What are the programs that execute automatically whenever DML operations are performed on tables called?

Answers:

  1. Triggers
  2. Procedures
  3. Functions
  4. None of the above

5. The primary key index does not allow ________ data in a field.

Answers:

  1. Numeric
  2. Characte
  3. Date
  4. Null
  5. Duplicate
  6. All of the above

6. Which character function should be used to return a specified portion of a character string?

Answers:

  1. CONCAT
  2. LENGTH
  3. SUBSTR
  4. INITCAP

7. Which one of the following correctly selects rows from the table myTable that have null in column column1?

Answers:

  1. SELECT * FROM myTable WHERE column1 is null
  2. SELECT * FROM myTable WHERE column1 = null
  3. SELECT * FROM myTable WHERE column1 EQUALS null
  4. SELECT * FROM myTable WHERE column1 NOT null
  5. SELECT * FROM myTable WHERE column1 CONTAINS null

8. What does the following Update statement do?
Update OrderTable set OrderDiscount=OrderDiscount*1.10

Answers:

  1. Increases OrderDiscount of first row by 10%
  2. Increases OrderDiscount of all rows by 10%
  3. Does nothing without where clause
  4. Gives an error due to lack of where clause

9. Consider the following table structure of students:
rollno number(4)
name varchar(20)
course varchar(20)
What will be the query to display the courses in which the number of students
enrolled is more than 5?

Answers:

  1. Select course from students where count(course) > 5;
  2. Select course from students where count(*) > 5 group by course;
  3. Select course from students group by course;
  4. Select course from students group by course having count(*) > 5;
  5. Select course from students group by course where count(*) > 5;
  6. Select course from students where count(group(course)) > 5;
  7. Select count(course) > 5 from students;
  8. None of the above

10. Consider the following tables:

Books
——
BookId
BookName
AuthorId
SubjectId
PopularityRating (the popularity of the book on a scale of 1 to 10)
Language (such as French, English, German etc)
Subjects
———
SubjectId
Subject (such as History, Geography, Mathematics etc)
Authors
——–
AuthorId
AuthorName
Country

What is the query to determine which Authors have written at least 1 book with a popularity rating of less than 5?

Answers:

  1. select authorname from authors where authorid in (select authorid from books where popularityrating<5)
  2. select authorname from authors where authorid in (select authorid from books where popularityrating<=5)
  3. select authorname from authors where authorid in (select BookId from books where popularityrating<5)
  4. select authorname from authors where authorid in (select authorid from books where popularityrating in (0,5))

11. Examine the code given below:

SELECT employee_id FROM employees WHERE commission_pct=.5 OR salary > 23000
Which of the following statements is correct with regard to this code?

Answers:

  1. It returns employees whose salary is 50% more than $23,000
  2. It returns employees who have 50% commission rate or salary greater than $23,000
  3. It returns employees whose salary is 50% less than $23,000
  4. None of the above

12. Which component of an RDBMS validates the syntax of the user’s query?

Answers:

  1. Query Parse
  2. The Database Manage
  3. Query Optimization
  4. Database Administrato

13. What does MOD() function do?

Answers:

  1. Returns the remainder after division
  2. Modifies the column definition
  3. Modifies the definition of a table
  4. None of the above

14. Which of the following is not a SQL operator?

Answers:

  1. Between..and..
  2. Like
  3. In
  4. Is null
  5. Having
  6. Not in

15. Which of the following operation is invalid with respect to dates?

Answers:

  1. date + numbe
  2. date * numbe
  3. date – numbe
  4. date – date
  5. date + number/24

16. What does the term DDL stand for?

Answers:

  1. Data Description Language
  2. Dynamic Data Language
  3. Data Definition Language
  4. Data Derived Language
  5. Descriptive Data Language

17. Consider the following tables:

Books
——
BookId
BookName
AuthorId
SubjectId
PopularityRating (the popularity of the book on a scale of 1 to 10)
Language (such as French, English, German etc)
Subjects
———
SubjectId
Subject (such as History, Geography, Mathematics etc)
Authors
——–
AuthorId
AuthorName
Country

What is the query to determine which German books(if any) are more popular than all the French?

Answers:

  1. select bookname from books where language=’German’ and popularityrating = (select popularityrating from books where language=’French’)
  2. select bookname from books where language=’German’ and popularityrating > (select popularityrating from books where language=’French’)
  3. select bookname from books where language=’French’ and popularityrating > (select max(popularityrating) from books where language=’German’)
  4. select bookname from books where language=’German’ and popularityrating > (select max(popularityrating) from books where language=’French’)

18. Consider the following tables:

Books
——
BookId
BookName
AuthorId
SubjectId
PopularityRating (the popularity of the book on a scale of 1 to 10)
Language (such as French, English, German etc)
Subjects
———
SubjectId
Subject (such as History, Geography, Mathematics etc)
Authors
——–
AuthorId
AuthorName
Country

What is the query to determine which is the most popular book written in French?

Answers:

  1. select bookname from books where language=’French’ and popularityrating = (select max(popularityrating) from books where language=’French’)
  2. select bookname from books where language=’French’ and popularityrating = (select max(popularityrating) from books Having language=’French’)
  3. select bookname,max(popularityrating) from books where language=’French’ and max(popularityrating)
  4. select bookname,max(popularityrating) from books where language=’French’ having max(popularityrating)

19. How many foreign key constraints can a table have?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 6
  7. None of the above

20. When a table is dropped using a simple DROP statement, SQL performs some more operations simultaneously, select all the valid operations?

Answers:

  1. Removes all rows from the table
  2. Drops all the table’s indexes
  3. Removes all dependent views
  4. Removes all dependent procedures

21. You want to display the titles of books that meet the following criteria:

1. Purchased before November 11, 2002
2. Price is less than $500 or greater than $900

You want to sort the result by the date of purchase, starting with the most recently bought book.
Which of the following statements should you use?

Answers:

  1. SELECT book_title FROM books WHERE price between 500 and 900 AND purchase_date < ’11/11/2002′ ORDER BY purchase_date;
  2. SELECT book_title FROM books WHERE price IN (500, 900) AND purchase_date< ’11/11/2002′ ORDER BY purchase_date ASC;
  3. SELECT book_title FROM books WHERE (price < 500 OR price >900) AND purchase_date DESC;
  4. SELECT Book_title FROM books WHERE (price < 500 OR price >900) AND purchase_date<’11/11/2002′ ORDER BY purchase_date DESC;

22. Which operator will be evaluated first in the following statement:

select (age + 3 * 4 / 2 – 8) from emp

Answers:

  1. +
  2. /
  3. *

23. What clause should be used to display the rows of a table in ascending order of a particular column?

Answers:

  1. Where
  2. Order By
  3. Group By
  4. Having
  5. First Group By and then Having
  6. Like
  7. Between

24. What is the correct order of clauses in the select statement?
1 select
2 order by
3 where
4 having
5 group by

Answers:

  1. 1,2,3,4,5
  2. 1,3,5,4,2
  3. 1,3,5,2,4
  4. 1,3,2,5,4
  5. 1,3,2,4,5
  6. 1,5,2,3,4
  7. 1,4,2,3,5
  8. 1,4,3,2,5

25. Which of the following statements is true?

(a)The Insert statement creates new rows
(b)The Update statement modifies the table structure

Answers:

  1. only (a) is true
  2. only (b) is true
  3. oth (a) and (b) are true
  4. oth (a) and (b) are false

26. A table Students has a column called name which stores the names of the students. What will be the correct query to display the names of the students in reverse order?

Answers:

  1. Select name from students reverse;
  2. Select name from students reverse name;
  3. Select name from students order by name descending;
  4. Select name from students order by name reverse;
  5. Select name from students order by name desc;
  6. Select desc name from students;
  7. Select reverse name from students;

27. Choose the appropriate query for the Products table where data should be displayed primarily in ascending order of the ProductGroup column. Secondary sorting should be in descending order of the CurrentStock column.

Answers:

  1. Select * from Products order by CurrentStock,ProductGroup
  2. Select * from Products order by CurrentStock DESC,ProductGroup
  3. Select * from Products order by ProductGroup,CurrentStock
  4. Select * from Products order by ProductGroup,CurrentStock DESC
  5. None of the above

28. Examine the two SQL statements given below:
SELECT last_name, salary, hire_date FROM EMPLOYEES ORDER BY salary DESC
SELECT last_name, salary, hire_date FROM EMPLOYEES ORDER BY 2 DESC
What is true about them?

Answers:

  1. The two statements produce identical results
  2. The second statement returns an error
  3. There is no need to specify DESC because the results are sorted in descending order by default

29. The overall logical structure of a database can be expressed graphically by:

Answers:

  1. Data Flow Chart
  2. Flow Chart
  3. Directed Chart
  4. Entity-Relationship Diagram
  5. None of the above

30. In an RDBMS, which term is used to describe ‘data about data’?

Answers:

  1. Meta data
  2. Data dictionary
  3. Database
  4. None of the above

1,447 total views, 2 views today

Upwork Computer Skills

Windows XP Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which of the following descriptions about the Windows Task Scheduler is most accurate?

Answers:

  1. It is a tool that enables you to schedule programs and other utilities to run regularly, when it is most convenient for you.
  2. t is a utility available in the Windows Accessories that helps you arrange your daily routine and appointments.
  3. It is a tool that schedules when Windows should save unsaved files automatically.
  4. It is a Windows user interface that allows you to customize the Taskbar.

2. By hovering the mouse pointer over the clock, what happens?

Answers:

  1. It displays the time in a bigger font.
  2. It will speak out the time through the speaker connected to the computer.
  3. It will show the time in analog format.
  4. It will display the current day of the week and the date.

3. You can automatically rearrange desktop icons in Windows XP. Which of the following statements in the above regard is/are correct.

Answers:

  1. You can sort the icons by Name.
  2. You can sort the icons by Size.
  3. You can sort the icons by Type.
  4. You can sort the icons by Date Modified.
  5. All of the above
  6. None of the above

4. Which of the following statements about the Stand By option while shutting down your computer is correct?

Answers:

  1. It waits for 5 minutes before shutting down the computer.
  2. It helps to conserve power by shutting off some hardware, like the hard disk.
  3. It shuts down the computer for a specific time and then restarts it.
  4. Stand By will save your desktop and all open files to a special Windows file called hiberfil.sys. This file usually resides in the computer’s root folder (C:hiberfil.sys).

5. A common name given to the bitmapped desktop image (usually a picture) that serves as a background for the entire desktop is:

Answers:

  1. Wallpaper</>span
  2. Theme
  3. Texture
  4. Mosaic

6. An icon with an arrow in its lower-left corner, which can be clicked for quick access to the object it represents, is a(n):

Answers:

  1. Application icon
  2. Folder (directory) icon
  3. Document icon
  4. Shortcut icon

7. Which of the following statements about the file security levels while browsing is/are correct?

Answers:

  1. Low is designed with the minimum safeguards.
  2. Under Low security, active content such as scripting, runs without prompting.
  3. Medium-low is the same as Medium but with less frequent prompts.
  4. Medium is the default security level for the Internet.
  5. All of the above

8. Can you edit a .html File using Notepad?

Answers:

  1. Yes
  2. NO

9. Which statement(s) about the Recycle Bin is/are correct?

Answers:

  1. All deleted files except media files are sent to the Recycle Bin.
  2. You can restore any selected files from the Recycle Bin folder by right clicking and then selecting Restore.
  3. The Recycle Bin stores files for one month before permanently deleting them.
  4. More than one file at a time cannot be restored from the Recycle Bin.

10. Windows XP has a new user system. Its new user system:

Answers:

  1. Was inherited from Windows 98.
  2. Was inherited from Windows 3.x.
  3. Was inherited from Windows NT/2000.
  4. Was not inherited from any prior Windows O/S.

11. The left side of the Start menu contains two parts, separated by a thin horizontal line. The Windows XP term for manually inserting a shortcut to one of your chosen applications into the top part of the left side (by using the right-context menu of the application in Windows Explorer) is called:

Answers:

  1. Attaching an application to the Start menu.
  2. Pinning an application to the Start menu.
  3. Placing an application into the Start menu.
  4. Porting an application to the Start menu.

12. In addition to the Start button, the taskbar in Windows XP is further divided into sections for:

Answers:

  1. Logging out or shutting down the computer.
  2. Open (running) programs
  3. Automatically started programs when booting the computer and notifications of events
  4. Shortcuts to various applications

13. Which of the following features is/are new in the Windows XP Start menu?

Answers:

  1. It shows you who is logged on.
  2. It automatically adds the most frequently used programs.
  3. It enables you to move any program you want to the Start menu.
  4. The pinned list (at the top of the Start menu) will be automatically loaded with the user’s default Web browser and e-mail program.

14. Some computers in your local area network (LAN) have Windows XP Home Edition installed, whereas the others use Windows XP Professional. Is it possible to utilize the NTFS Encrypting File System (EFS) security feature on those computers in the LAN that have Windows XP Home Edition installed?

Answers:

  1. Yes
  2. No

15. Starting with Windows 95, the File Manager tool for organizing and controlling the files and folders of the computer’s storage systems, such as the hard drive(s) and disk drive(s) has been called:

Answers:

  1. Windows Manager
  2. Internet Explorer
  3. Windows Explorer
  4. Windows Task Manager

16. There is a better method to enable or disable services on your computer than using msconfig and hardware profiles. When using msconfig, you might disable some services that are necessary to boot the system. Which of the following should be used to enable or disable services.

Answers:

  1. Device Manager
  2. Event Viewer
  3. Microsoft Management Console (MMC)
  4. Local Security Policy

17. Which of the following would be a System Restore feature in Windows XP?

Answers:

  1. It allows you to take a quick backup of your important data.
  2. It helps you recover data that has been lost due to a hard disk crash.
  3. It allows you to quickly clean up unwanted files, folders, and desktop icons.
  4. It allows you to restore your computer to a previous state in case of a system problem.
  5. It allows you to quickly reinstall Windows XP in case of need.

18. What is the main purpose of mapping network drives?

Answers:

  1. It provides a convenient way of accessing a shared resource such as a folder, file, or printer.
  2. It helps to reduce network traffic by automatically making a copy of the shared resource on the user’s computer.
  3. It speeds up processing and memory usage by automatically making a copy of the shared resource on the user’s computer.
  4. None of the above options.

19. Which of the following features is/are available in Windows XP?

Answers:

  1. A built-in CD burner
  2. Windows Media Player
  3. Windows antivirus
  4. Microsoft Excel

20. Which Windows XP feature allows users to compare and update their offline files and folders with those on the network?

Answers:

  1. Synchronization Manager
  2. Network Location Awareness
  3. Offline Viewing
  4. Credential Manager

21. Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the grouping of Windows tabs?

Answers:

  1. Only Windows of the same program can be grouped into one tab.
  2. You can group windows of all open programs into one tab.
  3. You can group windows of only two programs at a time.
  4. There is no option to group tabs in Windows XP.

22. Which of the following activities can you accomplish with the Remote Desktop feature in Windows XP?

Answers:

  1. You can get a miniature view of your desktop by clicking on the Desktop icon.
  2. You can automatically clear up unwanted Desktop icons.
  3. You can view files and documents on your computer’s desktop from a coworker’s computer.
  4. You can view files and documents on any computer’s desktop from your computer.

23. Which of the following is/are valid Window’s file names?

Answers:

  1. expert-rating
  2. expert rating
  3. expert*rating
  4. 643764736
  5. expert rating certifications!

24. Windows XP has several command-line utility tools for troubleshooting the computer. Suppose that your computer seems to have a problem with connecting to the Internet. Before reporting your connectivity problems to your ISP, which tool could you use to display the current TCP/IP network configuration values and to refresh the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings?

Answers:

  1. Ping
  2. Ipconfig
  3. Tracert
  4. Msconfig

25. What happens when you hold down the Windows button key and press the E key?

Answers:

  1. It opens the Windows Explorer.
  2. It opens the Internet Explorer.
  3. It opens the default search engine.
  4. It opens the color settings.

26. Which of the following statements about Windows XP features is/are correct?

Answers:

  1. Windows XP can automatically download updates.<>
  2. Windows XP offline files allows you to synchronize your files with your file server.
  3. If Fast User Switching is enabled, you cannot use offline files.
  4. There is a “System Restore” functionality within Windows XP.

27. With Windows XP, the default display resolution is 800×600 in 32-bit true color. With some computers 32-bit video tends to slow down screen redraws. How could you drop the screen depth to 16 bits instead of 32 bits in order to speed up the display in older PCs, especially laptops?

Answers:

  1. In the Colors control panel, set the Colors option to Medium (16 bits).
  2. In the Color Management control panel, set the Color depth to Medium (16 bits).
  3. In the System control panel, set the Monitor depth to 16 bits.
  4. In the Display Properties dialog box, on the Settings page, set the Color quality option to Medium (16 bits).

28. Windows XP usually retains copies of old drivers when newer versions of them are installed or upated. If the new drivers have problems, the user can return to the previous version. Does this new Windows XP feature work with printer drivers?

Answers:

  1. Yes
  2. No

29. A set of instructions that tells Windows XP which devices to start when you boot your computer, or which settings to use for each device, is called a ____________. Several different sets can be created and are especially useful if you have a laptop computer because you can have the computer preset when the computer is operating at different physical locations.

Answers:

  1. Software profile
  2. Localized profile
  3. Hardware profile
  4. Settings profile

30. The Windows XP installs its search function that, by default, has an animated dog character, Rover. Which of the following is/are true?

Answers:

  1. Rover could be replaced with another animated character or with no character at all.
  2. Rover cannot be replaced by another character. It is a permanent feature.
  3. Rover could be replaced by another character, but another animated character must be used (instead of having no character at all).

31. Which key combination would you use to flip between open windows?

Answers:

  1. Alt + Shift
  2. Alt + Tab
  3. Ctrl + Tab
  4. Ctrl + Alt

32. Which of the following statements is true if you open an existing file, make changes to it, and save it with a new name?

Answers:

  1. The original file will be deleted.
  2. The original file remains unchanged.
  3. The changes will be saved in the original file.
  4. The original file is sent to the Recycle Bin.

33. What type of icons are displayed in the system tray?

Answers:

  1. Icons of media-related programs.
  2. Icons of programs developed by Microsoft.
  3. Icons of programs that are loaded into memory.
  4. All of the above

34. What does the Desktop Cleanup Wizard do?

Answers:

  1. It removes suspected virus shortcuts from the desktop.
  2. It removes the desktop wallpaper.
  3. It removes the desktop shortcuts that have never been used.
  4. It sends all the desktop icons to the Recycle Bin.

35. While viewing file names through the Windows Explorer, what happens if you drag and drop a file named letter1.txt on top of another file named letter2.txt lying in the same folder?

Answers:

  1. The contents of letter2.txt will be replaced by the contents of letter1.txt.
  2. The contents of letter1.txt will be replaced by the contents of letter2.txt.
  3. The contents of letter1.txt will be appended to the contents of letter2.txt.
  4. The contents of letter2.txt will be appended to the contents of letter1.txt.
  5. Nothing will happen.

36. What is the key combination to Quit a program through Task Manager that is not responding?

Answers:

  1. Alt + Del
  2. Ctrl + Alt + Del
  3. Ctrl + Del
  4. Shift + Alt + Del

37. You are logged in as an administrator to the computers on your small local network and you want to change the names of those computers and the workgroup so that their names are more informative. One way to change the names would be to:

Answers:

  1. Open the System control panel. Select the System tab and then click Change. Enter the desired name for the computer and click OK.
  2. Open the System control panel. Select Change Name from the Edit menu and then click Change Name. Enter the desired name for the computer and click OK.
  3. Right click the Desktop and select Personalize. Select the Computer Name tab and then click Change. Enter the desired name for the computer and click OK
  4. Open the Performance and Maintenance control panel. Select the Computer Name tab and then click Change. Enter the desired name for the computer and click OK.
  5. Right Click on My Computer icon, choose properties and select tab ‘Computer Name’ or(use run command and put sysdm.cpl) and click on the Change button. Enter the desired name for computer and click OK.

38. Which of the following statements about icons on the desktop is correct?

Answers:

  1. You can rename an icon by left-clicking the mouse button and selecting Rename.
  2. You can rename an icon by right-clicking the mouse button and selecting Rename.
  3. You can delete an icon by left-clicking and selecting Delete.
  4. You cannot rename an icon.

39. A new function of Windows XP that allows two or more users in a local network to use only one Internet connection by routing all the Internet traffic through one computer is called __________________.

Answers:

  1. Internet Routing
  2. Windows Internet Sharing (WIS)
  3. Internet Connection Sharing (ICS)
  4. Windows Connection Sharing (WCS)

40. The Microsoft file format that contains the bitmapped graphics and metadata for the skins used in the three preinstalled Windows XP visual themes is:

Answers:

  1. msthemes
  2. msstyles
  3. msskins
  4. msluna

41. What should you type on the command prompt to return back to Windows?

Answers:

  1. Quit
  2. Return
  3. Leave
  4. Exit

42. Which of the following statements about Windows XP Internet Connection Sharing (ICS) is true?

Answers:

  1. Using ICS, you can connect different computers to the Internet using just one dial-up connection, however you require at least two modems.
  2. You require a router for using ICS.
  3. Using ICS, a single computer can connect to more than one dial-up connection.
  4. Using ICS, a single computer can connect to a dial-up and DSL connection simultaneously.
  5. Using ICS, multiple computers can connect to the Internet through only one dial-up connection.

43. What happens when you choose ClearType for your screen fonts in Windows XP?

Answers:

  1. Only the black and white text will be visible.
  2. Only the text in primary colors will be visible.
  3. The font resolution is improved.
  4. The font size will automatically adjust to the screen area of the monitor.

44. Windows XP has an On-Screen Keyboard function that could be used by a pointer device in case the keyboard is not functioning. (True or false?)

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

45. You have created a directory called TEST that includes the files test1.txt, test2.txt, test3.txt, test4.txt, test5.txt, and test6.txt. How can you select test2.txt, text3.txt, and test6.txt from the list of files visible in the Windows Explorer?

Answers:

  1. Press&Hold Ctrl and click on the three required files, one by one.
  2. Press&Hold Shift and click on the three required files, one by one.
  3. Press&Hold Alt and click on the three required files, one by one.
  4. Right-click each file name, one by one, and choose the Cut option.

46. How does Windows File Protection (WFP) in Windows XP work?

Answers:

  1. It protects Windows XP from viruses that damage important files.
  2. It prevents the replacement or removal of protected system files.
  3. It protects the user data incase of a hard-disk crash.
  4. It allows you to conveniently protect your files through password access.

47. Accelerator (hot) keys: Several menu commands, such as File, Edit, Table, or Tools, have one underlined letter as shown. The command associated with the underlined character can be Quickly executed if that character is entered on the keyboard immediately after the _____ key is pressed.

Answers:

  1. Shift
  2. Alt
  3. Ctrl
  4. Windows

48. Which of the following statements regarding Windows XP user access is/are correct?

Answers:

  1. Multiple users cannot switch between accounts without restarting the computer.
  2. Multiple users can switch between accounts without restarting the computer.
  3. Windows XP does not support multiple user access.
  4. None of the above

49. Windows XP includes a new type of view for folders that contain graphics files. This folder view is called _________ and displays small images of all the graphics in the folder in the bottom right-hand pane of Windows Explorer and a large image of a selected picture in the top right-hand pane.

Answers:

  1. Gallery
  2. Images
  3. Pictures
  4. Filmstrip

50. Which Windows XP feature provides an underlying service that allows Windows and applications to determine when a machine has changed network locations?

Answers:

  1. Synchronization Manager
  2. Network Location Awareness (NLA)
  3. Offline Viewing
  4. Peer-to-peer Networking Support

51. The _____________ is a large hidden file where Windows XP finds information about all of the hardware, software, and various settings and user options.

Answers:

  1. Windows Registry
  2. Finder
  3. Preferences
  4. Windows SysOps

52. How can you customize Advanced Start menu options in windows XP operating system.

Answers:

  1. Right click on the Taskbar and click the Customize button.
  2. Right click on the Taskbar, choose Properties, click on Start Menu, and click the Customize button.
  3. Right click on the Taskbar and choose open all users.
  4. Left click on the Taskbar; choose Properties.

53. Which of the following type of objects can you search on your computer and on the network, using Windows XP Search Companion?

Answers:

  1. People in your contact list
  2. Pictures
  3. Documents
  4. Windows Help
  5. All of the above

54. A new feature introduced in Windows XP that allows another user to log in and use the system without having to log out the previous user and Quit any running applications is known in Windows XP as:

Answers:

  1. Multiple user login
  2. Simulcasting
  3. Fast user switching
  4. Multiprocessing

55. The hard-drive utility tool in Windows XP for automatically fixing file system errors or for searching for and attempted recovery of bad sectors is:

Answers:

  1. CheckDisk (CHKDSK)
  2. SystemCheck (SYSCHK)
  3. DiskFix (DSKFX)
  4. DiskScan (DSKSCN)

56. The new feature of Windows XP that can edit films, add sound and titles, and delete scenes is:

Answers:

  1. Windows Movie Maker
  2. Windows Film Director
  3. Movie Producer
  4. Film Maker

57. State whether the following statement is true or false.

With Windows XP, you cannot specify that files with certain file name extensions should always open in the same program.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

58. The older version of the Windows XP Desktop is called the “Windows Classic” look. One way to get the Windows Classic Desktop from the new default Windows XP Desktop is to:

Answers:

  1. In the System control panel, select Properties from the View menu. Select the Desktop tab and click on the Desktop pull-down list and select Windows Classic. Click OK.
  2. Right-click on the desktop and choose Properties. Select the Themes tab and click on the Theme pull-down list and select Windows Classic. Click OK.
  3. In the Display control panel, select Properties. Select the Desktop tab and click on the Theme pull-down list and select Windows Classic. Click OK.
  4. Right-click on the desktop and choose Themes. Select the Desktops tab and click on the Desktop pull-down list and select Windows Classic. Click OK.

59. Windows XP tracks whatever files that load during every boot and application launches, and the operating system uses that information to prefetch files into RAM. These prefetch data are parsed into a file named __________ located in the WindowsPrefetch folder on the boot drive. Every three days, a limited defragmentation operation automatically occurs in the background during idle for only those files in that file to further speed up the computer’s file access.

Answers:

  1. Defrag.sys
  2. Prefetch.sys
  3. Defrag.ini
  4. Layout.ini

60. Microsoft makes available a tool called the _____________________ for checking computers with a Windows operating system. This tool helps remove infections left by third-party software installed on the computer and displays a report describing the outcome in a log file named mrt.log in the %WINDIR%debug folder.

Answers:

  1. Microsoft Reliability Tool
  2. Microsoft Windows Malicious Software Removal Tool
  3. Microsoft Windows Antivirus Tool
  4. Microsoft Recovery Tool

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