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Upwork Internet Concepts

Knowledge of Google Analytics Test 2016

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1. To apply filters to your data so as to keep your “raw” data intact, you can create a:

Answers:

  1. new Analytics account.
  2. duplicate profile in your account.
  3. duplicate report in your account.

2. How can a goal in Google Analytics be made inactive?

Answers:

  1. by deleting the goal
  2. by turning it off

3. Google Analytics tracks data from a variety of sources to provide:

Answers:

  1. closed-loop ROI analysis.
  2. open-loop ROI analysis.
  3. Ad Sense report analysis.
  4. AdWords report analysis.

4. The traffic sources leading to increase in traffic and revenue can be identified by:

Answers:

  1. goal funnel>select goal
  2. all traffic sources report>Ecommerce tab
  3. goal value> select goal
  4. all traffic sources report>goal conversion tab

5. To identify the steps of a payment processing wizard that are causing people to abandon the purchase, you should:

Answers:

  1. set up a new goal in Google Analytics.
  2. use the funnel visualization report in Google Analytics.
  3. set up a new Analytics profile.
  4. create a program to parse all the links to be monitored.

6. Once created, a custom report is available for as long as:

Answers:

  1. you want it.
  2. your current session is active.
  3. 72 hours only.
  4. two months.

7. A visitor’s interaction with your website after clicking on your Google AdWords Ad can be monitored by:

Answers:

  1. Google Analytics.
  2. Google AdSense.
  3. Google AdWords.
  4. Google Webmaster Tools.

8. The percentage of visits in which the users left your site after visiting only the entrance page is known as:

Answers:

  1. crawl rate.
  2. visitor segmentation.
  3. bounce rate.
  4. pageviews.

9. The above visualization can be obtained by:

Answers:

  1. traffic source>goal conversion
  2. visitors>visits for all visitors
  3. goals>funnel visualization
  4. visitors>map overlay

10. While customizing a goal, the ‘Required step’ checkbox:

Answers:

  1. does not affect the Funnel Visualization report.
  2. prevents a goal from showing a conversion in any other goal report.
  3. does not keep a goal from showing a conversion in any other goal report.
  4. affects only the Funnel Visualization report.

11. Auto tagging and link tagging:

Answers:

  1. require extra expenditure.
  2. append additional query string parameters on to the end of URLs pointing to your site.
  3. eliminate the need for appending additional query strings to the end of URLs.
  4. always cause visitors to be transferred to an error page.

12. A funnel can be defined:

Answers:

  1. without setting up a goal.
  2. only after creating a custom segment.
  3. only 24 hours after the installation of the tracking code.
  4. after setting up a goal.

13. The Query String Variable utm_content is used to:

Answers:

  1. identify the medium the user is using to get to your site.
  2. identify the vendor used.
  3. identify the keyword being used in the ad.
  4. differentiate between similar ads.

14. To see the Google AdWords cost data within Google Analytics, you must:

Answers:

  1. contact Google Analytics support.
  2. check the “Apply Cost Data Checkbox” located under the Analytics tab while in Google AdWords.
  3. check the “Apply Cost Data Checkbox” located under the Analytics tab while in Google Analytics.
  4. apply for a premium Google Analytics Account.

15. Motion charts allow you to visualize the data in a maximum of ___ dimensions.

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5

16. Which three of the following variables are required for proper tracking by Analytics when you use campaign tracking?

Answers:

  1. utm_campaign
  2. utm_medium
  3. utm_source
  4. utm_term
  5. utm_content

17. Navigation summary shows:

Answers:

  1. paths visitors use to get to your content.
  2. top sources per page.
  3. top keywords per page.
  4. how visitors found your site.

18. Google analytics does not allow you to:

Answers:

  1. identify where your visitors come from.
  2. identify most lucrative geographic markets.
  3. identify errors for URLs in Sitemap.
  4. submit a sitemap.
  5. see errors and problems encountered by Google’s crawlers while accessing pages on your site.

19. If you click Visualize on a Keyword report, each dot on the motion chart hence obtained will represent a:

Answers:

  1. keyword.
  2. date.
  3. frequency.
  4. user.

20. The Google Analytics tracking code is:

Answers:

  1. profile-specific.
  2. website-specific.
  3. URL-specific.
  4. domain-specific.

21. The Google Analytics tracking code snippet needs to be placed in:

Answers:

  1. all the pages that need to be tracked.
  2. only the index page of the site for which the pages are to be tracked.
  3. a separate webpage in a sub domain directory as specified by Google.

22. A funnel represents:

Answers:

  1. the path that you expect visitors to take on their way to converting to the goal.
  2. the predicted number of visitors over the next one year.
  3. the behavior of visitors after they leave your site.
  4. the path taken by visitors before entering your site.

23. Unduplicated (counted only once) visitors to your website over the course of a specified time period are counted as:

Answers:

  1. Unique pageviews.
  2. Unique Visitors.
  3. Aggregate page views.
  4. Returning Visitors.

24. Consider the following user navigation:

The number of unique page views for the above mentioned user navigation is:

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5

25. A unique pageview:

Answers:

  1. is counted when a visitor hits reload after reaching a page.
  2. aggregates pageviews that are generated by the same user during the same session.
  3. is counted when a user navigates to a different page.
  4. is counted when a user exits your site.

26. Filters can not be used to:

Answers:

  1. show data for a particular sub domain.
  2. identify problems with site metadata.
  3. exclude an IP from visitors’ data.
  4. build a field from other two fields of tracking data.

27. If a visitor hits reload after reaching a page, it will be counted as:

Answers:

  1. an additional pageview.
  2. a unique pageview.
  3. a bounced visitor.
  4. achievement of a goal.

28. If there is a certain subdirectory of your website that you’d like to track,

Answers:

  1. you can enter the subdirectory url as the default page for a domain in your “Main Website Profile Information” to only report on traffic to that directory
  2. you can create a funnel to only report on traffic to that directory
  3. you can create a filter to only report on traffic to that directory
  4. it is not feasible to only report on traffic to that directory

29. State whether true or false:

It is possible to sign up for a Google Analytics Account via an existing Google AdWords account.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

30. Event Tracking Trending:

Answers:

  1. is not a feature of Google Analytics.
  2. can be obtained by content>event tracking>trending
  3. can be obtained by visitors>event tracking>trending
  4. can be obtained by goals>event tracking>trending

31. For the purpose of Google Analytics reports, a session is considered to have ended if the user has been inactive on the site

for:

Answers:

  1. 15 minutes.
  2. 30 minutes.
  3. 24 hours.
  4. 30 days.

32. When the Google Analytics Tracking code is installed, tracking begins:

Answers:

  1. after 24 hours.
  2. after approval by the Google Analytics team.
  3. immediately.
  4. after you pay the requisite fee.

33. The following question is based on the graphic shown above.

Which visualization does not belong to Google Analytics?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

34. Automatic tracking of Google AdWords campaigns in Google Analytics:

Answers:

  1. is not possible.
  2. can be achieved by enabling “Auto Tagging” in Google AdWords.
  3. can be achieved by enabling “Auto Tagging” in Google Analytics.
  4. can be achieved by enabling “Automatic Tracking” in Google AdWords.

35. Which of the following statement about Google Analytics is incorrect?

Answers:

  1. Google Analytics provides the ability to add any number of users to your account.
  2. It is possible to grant varying levels of access to your reports to others.
  3. You may grant access to the reports of particular profiles when adding a new user.
  4. You can not modify access for existing users.

36. Excluding your own internal traffic in a Google Analytics report can:

Answers:

  1. not be achieved.
  2. be achieved by using Funnels.
  3. be achieved by using Filters.
  4. be achieved by using Goals.

37. For the purpose of generating reports, a unique visitor is determined using:

Answers:

  1. cookies.
  2. password.
  3. username.
  4. email Id.

38. What is the maximum number of events per visit that can be tracked by Google Analytics?

Answers:

  1. 50
  2. 500
  3. 5000
  4. Unlimited

39. Google Analytics logs a page-view:

Answers:

  1. each time the page is loaded irrespective of the tracking code execution.
  2. each time the tracking code is executed.
  3. each time the user logs in any of the Google accounts.
  4. each time the user clicks on a Google Ad.

40. A pharmaceutical products website has a product description page with images, price and description of the drug X. The users an click the Order Now button on this page to reach the payment processing page. To track what fraction of the visitors visited the product description page, but not the payment processing page, you should:

Answers:

  1. set up a trending report.
  2. create a filter.
  3. create a custom report.
  4. create a funnel.

41. Choose the incorrect statement.

Answers:

  1. Advanced segments allow you to choose what types of visits you want to be considered when generating data for a report.
  2. Advanced fragmentation is a tool you can use to slice and dice your Analytics data with great precision.

42. A high bounce rate generally indicates:

Answers:

  1. the site entrance pages are highly relevant to your visitors.
  2. your sites’ pages are well crawled by Google.
  3. your site’s pages are highly ranked by Google.
  4. the site entrance pages aren’t relevant to your visitors.

43. While creating a new filter in Google Analytics, by which field can a custom filter be specified?

Answers:

  1. Filter Name
  2. Filter Type
  3. Available Website Profiles
  4. Selected Website Profiles

 

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Upwork Internet Concepts

Internet Marketing Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which of the following can negatively impact a site’s ranking in search results?

Answers:

  1. Excessive link exchanging
  2. Static content
  3. Using automated programs or services to create links to your site
  4. Contact Us Page

2. What type of income statement items are marketing expenses?

Answers:

  1. Variable Cost
  2. Fixed Cost
  3. Revenue
  4. Cost of Good Sold

3. Why has web marketing become a popular form of marketing?

Answers:

  1. It is much cheaper than other forms and often more effective
  2. Television advertising is being offered less
  3. It is easier than traditional marketing
  4. It has been heavily advertised

4. What is “cost per customer acquisition”?

Answers:

  1. The amount a company pays a customer to try their product
  2. The average cost of marketing spent per new customer
  3. The cost of marketing staff
  4. The cost to beat competitors

5. Which 3 industries are the largest users of affiliate marketing?

Answers:

  1. Prescription drugs, electronics, child products
  2. Gambling, adult, retail
  3. Retail outlets, bakeries, beverage
  4. Computer equipment, auto manufacturers, construction

6. What is the primary goal of web marketing?

Answers:

  1. To give the target market an ad like they would see on TV
  2. To sell customers on the spot
  3. To earn affiliate income
  4. To drive potential customers to the company website

7. Which of the following would not be effective in headline writing?

Answers:

  1. Using words that draw attention
  2. Using words that people may search for
  3. Using small words which take up space and do not add value
  4. Using words such as “new, exciting, special offer”

8. What is search engine optimization?

Answers:

  1. Paying for placement on a search engine results page
  2. Building a site which has the qualities that search engines look for, which will ultimately get the site a high rank in the listings
  3. Optimization of a site so it gets more affiliate revenue
  4. Selling memberships to the site

9. Why would a company possibly want to spend more on PPC early on?

Answers:

  1. It costs less early on
  2. To drive traffic to their site and increase awareness
  3. To let the competition know they are serious
  4. To sell more products

10. Why would a firm employ guerilla web marketing?

Answers:

  1. It is guaranteed to work
  2. It allows greater flexibility
  3. It gives the firm more control over its marketing budget
  4. It is unconventional and can often leave a lasting impression on potential customers

11. What is a “call to action”?

Answers:

  1. Hoping the customer buys your product
  2. Recruiting new employees
  3. Creating a new ad campaign
  4. Using verbs to encourage people to take an action

12. How can chat rooms bolster site traffic?

Answers:

  1. The competition can come to the chat and try to steal customers
  2. It gives the company a way to distance themselves from customers
  3. By having people talk positively about your company and by answering questions people may have in a non threatening,
  4. anonymous method
  5. It gives a way for customers to log complaints

13. Who was one of the original widely known affiliate marketers?

Answers:

  1. Ebay
  2. AT&T
  3. WorldCom
  4. Amazon

14. What are the four P’s of marketing?

Answers:

  1. Placement, Production, Procurement, Procedures
  2. Product, Price, Placement, Promotion
  3. Position, Price, Production, Premature
  4. Product, Promotion, Procedures, Procurement

15. What is the best way to make internet marketing effective?

Answers:

  1. Focus on one specific technique such as direct email
  2. Use a myriad of methods online
  3. Spend a lot of money on it
  4. Use email marketing first

16. What is a double opt in process?

Answers:

  1. Someone must email the firm twice to get on a list
  2. Someone must ask to be on your email list, and then verify by clicking a link they want to be on it
  3. Someone must email the firm twice to get off an email list
  4. Someone has to send an email confirming an online purchase

17. What is the purpose of having a special landing page for a PPC ad?

Answers:

  1. It costs less if done that way
  2. It gives the potential to have mixed messages on the site
  3. Statistics can be gathered on the page, as well as special offers can be shown to the ad clicker
  4. Customers expect it

18. Why is it important to fine tune the timing of the ad and keywords used?

Answers:

  1. It costs less in later hours
  2. To be sure to spend more money on marketing
  3. Required by law
  4. To carefully target the customer base desired, not wasting impressions and clicks

19. What is an auto-responder?

Answers:

  1. A person who replies to all emails for the company
  2. An automatic email message sent to someone who takes an action such as submitting a form on a company website
  3. A method of direction communication with clients
  4. An email relay system

20. Who regulates affiliate marketing?

Answers:

  1. No one currently
  2. SEC
  3. IRS
  4. Internet Affiliate Board

21. Why have social networking sites become a popular method of internet marketing?

Answers:

  1. They are free and easy to use
  2. They guarantee more traffic to your site
  3. Ease of use, large number of users, easy to target specific demographics
  4. They are a passing trend

22. What is a secondary reason to actively maintain a company blog, besides giving potential customers something to read?

Answers:

  1. It keeps the marketing staff busy in down times
  2. It impresses clients
  3. A well maintained blog will help increase page rank with search engines
  4. It makes the company seem larger than it is

23. Why has web marketing become the primary method of marketing for some companies?

Answers:

  1. It is more effective than anything else for all companies
  2. It is inexpensive compared to other methods
  3. It reaches a broad based audience
  4. It guarantees increased sales

24. How can a podcast be used to drive customers to a website?

Answers:

  1. By only hosting the podcast on the website
  2. By giving information on the podcast which gives the listener the desire to learn more, and directing them to the website for that
  3. information
  4. By making the podcast a premium one which costs money
  5. By telling the listeners that they need your product

25. What is meant by “white hat”?

Answers:

  1. When marketers show up for work wearing white hats
  2. Dishonest techniques for gaining higher rankings
  3. Ethical and honest methods of increasing page rankings
  4. Software used to increase rankings

26. What is brand strategy?

Answers:

  1. Creating the image you want your company perceived as and marketing in a way that portrays that image to customers
  2. Strategy for reaching customers worldwide
  3. Creating a package that catches peoples eyes
  4. Creating an image that contradicts competitor’s assertations

27. What is “cost per action”?

Answers:

  1. Same as pay per click
  2. A payment agreement where a specific action creates a payable event for the affiliate, such as a click, a purchase, a number of
  3. page views
  4. A payment agreement where costs change depending on volume
  5. The product cost

28. How do firms typically budget once positive results are seen from their internet marketing campaign?

Answers:

  1. Decrease the overall budget
  2. Spend more on the methods which are not producing results
  3. Increase the budget and focus on those activities which are working
  4. Stop marketing

29. What should a company do once it achieves its search engine ranking goals?

Answers:

  1. Stop promoting the site
  2. Constantly monitor and improve their site in order to maintain their ranking
  3. Revise the site once in awhile
  4. Sell advertising on their site

30. Why is it important to set daily maximum budgets for pay per clicks ad campaigns?

Answers:

  1. It helps with ad placement
  2. It is required
  3. It helps drive affiliate sales
  4. Costs of clicked links can add up quickly if not limited

31. How important is content on a site when optimizing it?

Answers:

  1. Not important at all, does not factor in
  2. Mildly important to keep customers happy
  3. It is the only thing which creates a higher ranking in search engines
  4. Very important, new content especially

32. How is the pricing model of a click determined?

Answers:

  1. Standardized rate for the ad
  2. Google sets the price worldwide
  3. Ads always cost more in later months
  4. The more popular a search term, the more a customer will have to pay to use that term in his/her target keywords list

33. How should a company allocate its marketing budget among the various methods of internet marketing?

Answers:

  1. Depends on the company and what is most effective for its business
  2. Spread evenly among the methods chosen
  3. Haphazardly
  4. Spend most on email marketing

34. What is meant by “guerilla marketing”?

Answers:

  1. Using resources such as time, energy and imagination rather than money to market
  2. Using advertising spots which utilize gorillas to capture the audience
  3. Having a large scale marketing budget
  4. Using television ads instead of web ads

35. How is the “open rate” important?

Answers:

  1. It tells the company how many people clicked on the links in the email
  2. It lets the company know how many people bought a product
  3. It is the number of people who received the email
  4. It is the number of people who actually opened the email sent to them, giving the company insight into how effective the email marketing campaign was

36. What is an “impression”?

Answers:

  1. When a person buys a product from a site
  2. When your ad is displayed on a page online, not necessarily clicked on
  3. When an ad is clicked on
  4. When an ad makes an impression on a client

37. How much would a company pay for the given example: Ad displays 20 times, 2 users click the ad, cost per click is 5 cents.

Answers:

  1. 90 cents
  2. 10 cents
  3. 20 cents
  4. 1 cent

38. What is a “landing page”?

Answers:

  1. The page a potential customer sees when they click on your paid ad
  2. The main company website
  3. A page where the customer can buy the product
  4. Where the pay per click ads are created

39. What is an important step early on when forming a web marketing strategy?

Answers:

  1. Designing catchy ads
  2. Allocating a large budget to the project
  3. Identifying your customer base
  4. Hiring a consulting firm

40. Why is affiliate marketing a favorable form of marketing?

Answers:

  1. It is inexpensive
  2. Nothing is paid unless there is a sale resulting from the affiliate’s efforts
  3. It guarantees increased sales
  4. It is complex so not many people utilize it

41. What is one advantage to using a purchased email list?

Answers:

  1. The firm selling them often makes up fake email addresss
  2. Large quantity of email addresses and markets otherwise not reached
  3. The bounce rate is very low
  4. It is targeted at your potential customers

42. How do listeners decide what is a worthwhile podcast to continually listen to?

Answers:

  1. High quality audio and high quality content
  2. If its funny
  3. Broad based podcasts with no general direction
  4. Having several hosts and a myriad of topics

43. What is a site index?

Answers:

  1. A page which has a linkable outline of all of the pages on a website
  2. A site with only 1 page
  3. A site with special deals for purchasers
  4. A special ranking with search engines

44. How can supplemental materials be delivered to the podcast listener?

Answers:

  1. Embedded into the audio file
  2. Files can be made available for download along with the link to the podcast
  3. The listener has to go to a special site only during the podcast
  4. The listener must pay for any additional materials

45. How can posting on other message boards help drive traffic to a company site?

Answers:

  1. You can steal away clients from other companies directly
  2. You can tell lies about competitors
  3. You can trump up claims of what your company does
  4. By becoming an expert on a subject and giving people information which demonstrates your company’s knowledge and expertise

46. Why are purchased email lists typically ineffective?

Answers:

  1. They are too expensive
  2. They distribute an email to far more people than the company has in its contacts
  3. They make up fake emails to sell
  4. They are not targeted at customers specific to your company and have high bounce rates

47. What is a trackback?

Answers:

  1. Same as a trademark
  2. A method of notification that somebody links to document/html
  3. When someone goes to your site because of your podcast
  4. A count of how many downloads your podcast has

48. How can a company profit from a podcast directly?

Answers:

  1. Pay another company to host it
  2. Charge for premium content
  3. Set up an affiliate link
  4. All podcasts are free, they can not be directly profitable

49. Which of the following are podcasts least likely to target?

Answers:

  1. Sales
  2. Branding
  3. Customer loyalty
  4. Content delivery

50. Why is the subject line of any email campaign important?

Answers:

  1. It gives the person an opportunity to delete the email before reading it
  2. It is all the receiver sees besides the email address until they open the email
  3. It lets the receiver know they are about to be sold something

51. What is A/B testing?

Answers:

  1. Testing 2 products to see which is safer
  2. Using 2 versions of an ad, measuring results to see which one is more effective
  3. Testing 2 products to see which one sells more
  4. Using 2 versions of an ad to see which one has less bounce rate

52. What is the “active voice” style of writing ads?

Answers:

  1. Using “you” and not “I” or “we” – directing wording towards the customer
  2. Writing in the first person
  3. Writing in the third person
  4. Speaking omnisciently

53. Why is reciprocal linking becoming an important way to reach potential clients?

Answers:

  1. Visitors to other sites of a similar nature to yours are likely to click on links to bring them to your site
  2. It creates an income stream
  3. It is the easiest way to create traffic
  4. It builds goodwill

54. How can the signature block be used effectively?

Answers:

  1. Increases the length of the email making it seem more important
  2. Branding the firm and relaying information to the email recipient such as the company blog
  3. Guarantees further marketing success
  4. Expensive form of marketing

55. What is meant by “niche marketing”?

Answers:

  1. Targeting a broad based group of people
  2. Targeting a very specific demographic
  3. Advertising on the television
  4. Advertising only online

56. What is meant by “web 2.0”?

Answers:

  1. The resurgence of internet companies with more interactive focus, such as blogging and social networking
  2. Any website which has survived the dot.com bust
  3. Sites made using new technology
  4. Internet companies who focus on retail sales

57. How are keywords utilized by search engines?

Answers:

  1. They are all that the search engine uses to rank pages
  2. The keywords are a brief description of what topics your site relates to
  3. They help the search engine decide how good your sites content is
  4. The keywords guarantee positioning

58. What is one unfavorable trait sometimes seen in affiliate marketing?

Answers:

  1. The cost is low
  2. It brings additional traffic to a site
  3. Affiliates will use unethical techniques to drive customers in hopes of earning a commission
  4. It is only paid for based on successful selling

59. What is “bounce rate” in terms of email marketing?

Answers:

  1. The percentage of emails sent to a list which are returned as undeliverable
  2. The percentage of repeat clients
  3. The percentage of people who receive an email and buy the product
  4. The percentage of people who click the links in an email

60. How is click-through rate measured in an email campaign?

Answers:

  1. The number of emails which did not bounce back
  2. The number of people who click on a link in the email bringing the potential customer to your site
  3. The number of people who purchased a product or service from the email
  4. The number of people who replied to the email

61. What is affiliate marketing?

Answers:

  1. Same as guerilla marketing
  2. Selling ad space on your site
  3. When a 3rd party helps market your business, and in turn you pay them a commission based on sales as a result of their efforts
  4. Pay per click marketing

62. Why would a company hire internet marketing specialists if marketing is relatively easy to do online?

Answers:

  1. It reduces taxable profits
  2. To get a second opinion
  3. Creates goodwill
  4. Hired experts can drive the best results of campaigns and help guide the company in its marketing

63. What is meant by “viral marketing”?

Answers:

  1. Creating ads that users pay to watch
  2. Creating ad campaigns which are expensive and well produced
  3. Creating ad campaigns with a very narrow focus
  4. Creating ad campaigns which are inexpensive, gain massive popularity and become widely distributed

64. What is the purpose of a traditional press release?

Answers:

  1. It acts as a direct marketing sales tool
  2. It can be mailed out to potential clients
  3. It announces company information to a widely dispersed group of people
  4. It target markets to internet users

65. What are meta tags?

Answers:

  1. The content of the site
  2. Embedded information about your website such as keywords
  3. Links to other sites
  4. Images on the site

66. Why are affiliates not the same as having a sales force?

Answers:

  1. The affiliates are virtual
  2. The affiliates can be based anywhere in the world
  3. The affiliate only drives traffic, they do not necessarily convert them to sales
  4. The affiliates have limited availability

67. How are Pay Per Click ad campaigns billed?

Answers:

  1. Everytime an ad is displayed it costs the company money
  2. Set monthly fee regardless of impressions or clicks
  3. Discounted based on length of commitment
  4. The customer pays each time their ad is clicked on, usually billed monthly

68. What is the purpose of sending a monthly newsletter?

Answers:

  1. It creates work for employees at the company
  2. It builds branding, creates awareness and a connection with potential clients
  3. It gives people a chance to opt out of ever talking to your company again
  4. Required by law

69. What is a “value proposition”?

Answers:

  1. The pricing of the product
  2. The same as a business plan
  3. A statement as to how the company will make more money
  4. A statement as to how the company adds value for customers

70. What is the formula for calculating cost per customer acquisition?

Answers:

  1. Marketing spent on television divided by the number of new customers
  2. Sales divided by customers
  3. Total marketing budget divided by all customers ever
  4. Total marketing budget for a specific period divided by the number of new customers for that same period

3,088 total views, 10 views today

Upwork Internet Concepts

Google AdWords Test 2016

Published by:

1. The term for the number of impressions an ad has accrued in relation to the rest of the active ads within the same ad group is:

Answers:

  1. Ad Impression Rate (%)
  2. Ad Served Percentage (%)
  3. Ad Delivery Rate (%)
  4. Ad Impression Accrual Rate (%)

2. What is the AdWords related term for the following?

“The total number of unique users who will be served your ad over a specific period of time”

Answers:

  1. Campaign viewers
  2. Demography
  3. Audience
  4. Reach

3. Which factors are directly impacted by increasing the Adwords ad budget?

Answers:

  1. Ad Impressions
  2. Clicks on the ad
  3. Ad position
  4. The CPC (cost per click)

4. Your maximum CPC (Cost per click) is $0.70. If your ad receives two clicks, one costing $0.10 and the other costing $0.60, what would your average CPC for those clicks be?

Answers:

  1. $0.30
  2. $0.35
  3. $0.50
  4. $0.55

5. Which of the following statements with regard to AdWords settings are correct?

Answers:

  1. Increasing the budget leads to an increase in the CTR (Clickthrough rate).
  2. Targeting smaller regions through ads can result in more relevant ads with higher clickthrough rates.
  3. Targeting smaller regions through ads results in fewer impressions.
  4. Choosing specific keywords will result in higher clickthrough rates.

6. Is it possible for you to limit the number of impressions you will allow per month for a particular campaign on Google Display Network?

Answers:

  1. Yes
  2. No

7. Which of the following statements about campaign dates is correct?
Answers:

  1. It is not possible to specify a campaign start date and end date in the same campaign.
  2. By default, AdWords pre-sets the campaign start date with today’s date.
  3. You cannot pause the campaign midway if an end date has been specified.

8. Which of the following statements about Campaign Negative Keywords are correct?

Answers:

  1. Negative keywords contain a ‘#’ in front of the keyword.
  2. The use of Negative keywords reduces your CPC (Cost per click).
  3. You can prevent entire campaigns from showing on a certain query by applying negative keywords to them.
  4. You can prevent entire campaigns from showing in a particular country on a certain query by applying negative keywords to them.

9. Which of the following is not a part of the “Tools” Feature of Google AdWords:

Answers:

  1. Change history
  2. Conversions
  3. Google Analytics
  4. Google AdSense

10. Why is the Actual cost-per-click (CPC) sometimes less than the CPC you have specified for a keyword?

Answers:

  1. Because Adwords applies a discount on the total billed clicks for high budget campaigns
  2. Because Adwords applies a discount on the total billed clicks for less popular keywords
  3. Because AdWords gives you the lowest possible price in order for you to maintain your ad’s position
  4. Because Adwords is applying a discount on the total billed clicks displayed on the content network

11. Is it possible to set a maximum CPC (cost per click) at the Ad group level?

Answers:

  1. Yes
  2. No

12. What is the correct way of calculating the CTR (Clickthrough rate):

Answers:

  1. The number of impressions your ad receives divided by the number of clicks it receives
  2. The number of clicks your ad receives divided by its cost per click
  3. The number of clicks your ad receives divided by its unique visitors
  4. The number of clicks your ad receives divided by its number of impressions

13. What is the primary reason for increasing the CPC (cost per click)?

Answers:

  1. To increase ad Impressions
  2. To hike the ad budget
  3. To increase Ad position

14. State whether true or false.

Given that the cost of the bid is kept constant, a keyword’s Quality Score for Google and the search network is directly proportional to its ad position.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

15. State whether true or false.

If you run out of characters in your AdWords ad, the display URL field can be used as another line of ad text.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

16. In an Adwords ad, how many characters is the display URL limited to?

Answers:

  1. 28
  2. 30
  3. 35
  4. 40

17. Which of the following is not a part of the “Tools and Analysis” Feature of Google AdWords:

Answers:

  1. Change history
  2. Conversions
  3. Google Analytics
  4. Website Optimizer
  5. Google AdSense

18. Google AdWords does not accept an Ad copy that includes:

Answers:

  1. excessive capitalization
  2. product price
  3. incorrect grammar
  4. numerals

19. What happens when you turn on frequency capping for a campaign?

Answers:

  1. It limits the number of times your ads appear on the search network.
  2. It limits the number of times your ads appear on the content network and search network.
  3. It limits the number of times your ads appear to the same unique user on the content network.
  4. It limits the advertising cost to the campaign’s daily budget.

20. At which of the following levels may a daily budget be set?

Answers:

  1. Keyword
  2. Campaign
  3. AdWords Account

21. State whether true or false.

If your Adwords ad attracts a higher CTR (Clickthrough rate), it will lead to an improved ad position.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

22. State whether true or false.

Negative keywords cannot be applied to a whole Ad group?

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

23. On which page of the Google search results would an Adwords Ad triggered by a keyword with an Average Position (Avg. Pos.) of 9-16 generally appear?

Answers:

  1. The first page
  2. The second page
  3. The third page
  4. The fourth page

24. While using Geo-Targeting to target your ad to specific people, which of the following parameters can be targeted?

Answers:

  1. The person’s country
  2. The person’s language preference
  3. The continent in which the person lives

25. Keyword matching options determine which Google searches can trigger your ads to appear. Which of the following searches could trigger an ad for the keyword “Online course” using Exact Match settings?

Answers:

  1. Cheap Online course
  2. Course
  3. Online course
  4. ecourse

26. Which of the following statements about Ad rotation in Google AdWords is correct?

Answers:

  1. Rotation is always done evenly and all rotated ads within a campaign get equal exposure.
  2. Rotation may be based on the CTR (click through rate).
  3. Ad rotation is not available on the Google content network.

27. What is the maximum duration for which a Change history report can be generated by using the Reporting and Tools feature?

Answers:

  1. This month
  2. Last 2 years
  3. Last 5 years
  4. Last 1 year
  5. Last month

28. The Google Ad placement feature allows you to choose locations on the Google content network where your ad can appear. Which of the following can be selected as an area for the ad to appear?

Answers:

  1. An entire website
  2. A selection of pages from a website
  3. An individual ad unit on a single page

29. State whether true or false.

A CPM pricing model means advertisers pay for impressions received.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

30. Which of the following statements about Adwords Ad Scheduling are correct?

Answers:

  1. It allows you to control the days on which ads should appear.
  2. It allows you to control the time at which ads should appear.
  3. It allows you to raise or lower your bids for a campaign at certain times of the day.
  4. It allows you to change the countries being targeted at certain times of the day.

31. Which of the following statements about an Ad group is correct?

Answers:

  1. Ad groups only apply to the search network
  2. You cannot set prices for individual keywords within an Ad group
  3. An ad group contains one or more ads

32. With regard to AdWords, what is a Placement?

Answers:

  1. The cost of having your ad placed in number one position amongst the Adwords advertisers vying for the same keyword
  2. An ad placed for a definite period of time irrespective of how it will perform over the period
  3. Any website or other ad position on the Google content network where you would like to see your ads appear
  4. An automatic feature that allows you to retain your ad’s position by constantly changing your CPC

33. Which statistic does Google report on to show you how well your campaign is performing in terms of successful conversions?

Answers:

  1. Conversions/ Cost per click (%)
  2. Impressions/Conversions (%)
  3. Cost/Conversion

34. In the above ad, how can you make visitors reach hairlosscentral.com/signup?

Answers:

  1. By adding hairlosscentral.com/signup in the ad copy
  2. By changing the display URL to hairlosscentral.com/signup
  3. By changing the destination URL to hairlosscentral.com/signup
  4. By hyper linking the ad title to hairlosscentral.com/signup

35. If your keyword is “reading books” and you would like to ban the ad from people looking for downloadable books, how would your keyword be submitted to AdWords?

Answers:

  1. reading books -downloadable
  2. reading books *downloadable
  3. reading books (downloadable)
  4. reading books

36. Keyword matching options determine which Google searches can trigger your ads to appear. Which of the following searches could trigger an ad for the keyword “online course” using Broad Match settings?

Answers:

  1. Online
  2. Course
  3. ecourse
  4. Cheap online course

37. Which of the following statements about the Adwords Ad variations feature are correct?

Answers:

  1. Ad variations may constitute ads from different ad groups
  2. Ad variations may constitute ads from different keywords
  3. Ad variations are a good way to see how different versions of an ad perform
  4. Ad variations are multiple versions of an ad for a single product or service

38. What does the “Conversions (many-per-click)” value represent?

Answers:

  1. The number of view-through conversions.
  2. The number of conversions counted on the 60-day lookback.
  3. Conversions (many-per-click) count a conversion every time a conversion is made within 30 days following an AdWords ad click.
  4. There is no such statistic.

39. Which of the following will NOT happen if the view-through conversion window is set to 14 days in the Google AdWords account?

Answers:

  1. The view-through conversions that occur after 14 days will be discarded.
  2. The Click conversions will still be counted on the standard 30-day lookback.
  3. This setting will not impact view-through conversions which have already been recorded.
  4. The view-through conversions that occur before 14 days will be discarded.

2,914 total views, 9 views today

Upwork Internet Concepts

Amazon Web Services (AWS) Test 2016

Published by:

1. One EC2 Compute Unit (ECU) provides the CPU capacity eQuivalentto:

Answers:

  1. 1.0-1.2 GHz 2007 Opteron
  2. 1.0-1.3 GHz 2007 Opteron
  3. 1.0-2.1 GHz 2007 Opteron
  4. 1.0-3.1 GHz 2007 Opteron

2. Suppose you are making a request to the Amazon Flexible Payment Service and you get an error called InternalError. What is the cause of the error?

Answers:

  1. A retriable error has occurred due to some transient problem in the system.
  2. The transaction could not be completed because the tokens have incompatible payment instructions.
  3. One or more parameters in the request is/are invalid.
  4. The usage type specified is invalid.

3. Which of the following parameters are mandatory for the InstallPaymentInstruction operation of the Amazon Flexible Payment Service?

Answers:

  1. PaymentInstruction
  2. TokenFriendlyName
  3. CallerReference
  4. TokenType
  5. PaymentReason

4. Which of the following statements are true with regard to the Amazon Mechanical Turk Notifications?

Answers:

  1. A notification can be sent through email.
  2. There is no facility available for sending notifications.
  3. Notification is sent only in case a HIT expires.

5. Once you create an Amazon Mechanical Turk HIT, you can’t change its HITType.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

6. How do you access Amazon S3 buckets and objects that were created using <CreateBucketConfiguration>?

Answers:

  1. http://s3.amazonaws.com/yourbucket/yourobject
  2. http://yourbucket.s3.amazonaws.com/yourobject
  3. Neither a nor b

7. What does the following Mechanical Turk web service request do?

http://mechanicalturk.amazonaws.com/?Service=AWSMechanicalTurkRequester
&AWSAccessKeyId=[tHe Requester’s Access Key ID]
&Version=2008-08-02
&Operation=CreateQualificationType
&Signature=[signature for this request]
&Timestamp=[your system’s local time]
&Name=EnglishWritingAbility
&Description=The%20ability%20to%20write%20and%20edit%20text
&QualificationTypeStatus=Active

Answers:

  1. It creates a HIT named EnglishWritingAbility.
  2. It sets the QualificationType for a HIT.
  3. It creates the qualification type for a HIT.
  4. It retrieves data for the particular type of qualification.

8. Which of the following statements is not correct with regard to Elastic Block Store?
Answers:

  1. EBS allows you to create volumes that can be mounted as devices by Amazon EC2 instances.
  2. Amazon EBS volumes are automatically replicated on the backend.
  3. Amazon EBS are composed of Regions and Availability Zones.
  4. Amazon EBS provides the ability to create snapshots of your Amazon EBS volumes to Amazon S3.

9. What will be the value of the Action attribute of the form where the bucket name is johnsmith?Example:
<form action=”???????” method=”post” enctype=”multipart/form-data”>..</form>

Answers:

  1. http://s3.amazonaws.com/
  2. http://www.johnsmith com/
  3. http://johnsmith.s3.amazonaws.com/
  4. http://jonhnsmith.s3.amazonaws.com/

10. In which of the following cases can the status of a Mechanical Turk HIT change from Reviewing to Reviewable?

Answers:

  1. When the status parameter is set to Reviewable using the SetHITAsReviewing operation.
  2. When the HIT’s life cycle has elapsed.
  3. When the DisposeHit operation is called.

11. Which of the following are the types of Grantee, that can access a bucket or an object of Amazon S3?

Answers:

  1. Owner
  2. AWS User Group
  3. Both a and b

12. The following request is submitted to the Amazon E-Commerce Service. What will be the outcome?

http://webservices.amazon.com/onca/xml?Service=AWSECommerceService
&SearcHIndex=All
&Sort=salesrank
&Keywords=Books
&ResponseGroup=Medium,Offers
&Count=50
&Operation=ItemSearch
&AssociateTag=[Your Tag Name]
&SubscriptionId=[Your subscription id]

Answers:

  1. The count parameter has a value 50 which produces an error.
  2. The responsegroup parameter doesn’t support multiple values.
  3. The salesrank value of the sort parameter is not allowed if the value of the searchindex parameter is set to All.
  4. The request is error free.

13. With regard to Amazon EC2, do volumes need to be un-mounted in order to take a snapshot?

Answers:

  1. Yes
  2. No

14. How many CNAME aliases can you have per distribution?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 5
  3. 10
  4. 20

15. With regard to Amazon EC2, the amount of CPU that is allocated to a particular instance is expressed in terms of:

Answers:

  1. Latency
  2. EC2 compute units
  3. EBS volume units
  4. Elastic block stores

16. Which of the following is not related to the RebootInstances Operation of EC2?

Answers:

  1. The operation will succeed if the instances are valid and belong to the user.
  2. This is a synchronous operation.
  3. Requests to reboot terminated instances are ignored.
  4. This operation is asynchronous; it only queues a request to reboot the specified instances.

17. What will the Amazon S3 PutObjectInline operation do if an object already exists in a bucket?

Answers:

  1. It will add a new object to the bucket.
  2. It will create a new object for the bucket.
  3. It will overwrite the existing object in the bucket.
  4. If an object already exists in the bucket, this operation will fail to add a new object.

18. Which of the following statements is not correct with regard to Amazon Simple Storage Service (Amazon S3)?

Answers:

  1. Amazon S3 is simpler, require no schema, automatically indexes your data and provides a simple API for storage and access.
  2. This service aims at maximizing the benefits of scale and at passing those benefits on to the developers.
  3. Each object is stored in a bucket and retrieved via a unique, developer-assigned key.
  4. Write, read, and delete objects containing data from 1 byte to 5 gigabytes of each.

19. What is the function of the RetryTransaction operation of the Amazon Flexible Payment Service?

Answers:

  1. To fetch details of a transaction referred to by the transactionId.
  2. If a transaction was temporarily declined, the transaction can be processed again using the original transaction ID.
  3. If in case Error is returned by the request made by you, the transaction id can be sent again for request.
  4. To get recursive results for a given operation in case it returns error.

20. With reference to the Amazon Fulfillment Web Service, what are inbound APIs used for?

Answers:

  1. You send your new or used products to Amazon’s fulfillment centers.
  2. Amazon picks your products from the inventory and packages them.
  3. Amazon ships the products to your customers from the network of Amazon fulfillment centers.

21. With reference to the Amazon Flexible Payment Service, for how many days is a Reserve authorization valid?

Answers:

  1. 10 days
  2. 7 days
  3. 1 day (24 hours)
  4. There is no time limit.

22. In conjunction with which of the following other Amazon web services does Amazon SimpleDB service work?

Answers:

  1. Amazon Simple Queue service
  2. Amazon Simple Storage Service
  3. Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud service
  4. Both b and c

23. You have placed an order by Amazon Fulfillment Web Service and want to cancel the order. The order can’t be canceled if the FulfillmentOrderStatus is:

Answers:

  1. Complete
  2. CompletedPartial
  3. Shipped
  4. All of above

24. How is Amazon S3, TCP Window Scaling defined ?

Answers:

  1. It will improve network throughput performance between your operating system and application layer.
  2. It will resize the window.
  3. It will allow you to improve efficiency.
  4. None of above

25. You are going to create an Amazon Mechanical Turk HIT. Which of the following parameters are required in the request?

Answers:

  1. Operation
  2. HITTypeId
  3. LifetimeInSeconds
  4. All of above

26. How can you find user selectable kernels in Amazon EC2?

Answers:

  1. DescribeBundleTasks
  2. DescribeInstances
  3. DescribeKeyPairs
  4. DescribeAvailabilityZones

27. Which of the following is correct if CNAME is empty in Amazon CloudFront service?

1.<?xml version=”1.0″ encoding=”UTF-8″?>
<DistributionConfig xmlns=”http://cloudfront.amazonaws.com/doc/2008-06-30/”>
<Origin>mybucket.s3.amazonaws.com</Origin>
<CallerReference>20080930090000</CallerReference>
<Comment>My comments</Comment>
<Enabled>true</Enabled>
</DistributionConfig><

2.<?xml version=”1.0″ encoding=”UTF-8″?>
<DistributionConfig xmlns=”http://cloudfront.amazonaws.com/doc/2008-06-30/”>
<Origin>mybucket.s3.amazonaws.com</Origin>
<CallerReference>20080930090000</CallerReference>
<CNAME/>
<Comment>My comments</Comment>
<Enabled>true</Enabled>
</DistributionConfig>

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. Both 1 and 2

28. In Amazon Mechanical Turk concept, which of the following is correct?

Answers:

  1. The human being is the one requesting that a task be completed, and the computer is completing the task.
  2. The computer is the one requesting that a task be completed, and the human being is completing the task.
  3. Both the human being and the computer are involved in completing the task.

29. Is the following statement true or false?

It is not possible to retrieve offers and discounts using Amazon E-Commerce Service.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

30. What is the function of the approveWork command in Amazon Mechanical Turk?

Answers:

  1. It approves of the assignment submitted by the Workers.
  2. It approves of the newly created HIT.
  3. It retrieves the workerid of the worker to whom work has been assigned.
  4. It approves of the Worker chosen to do an assignment.

31. The following request is submitted to the Amazon E-Commerce Service. What will be the outcome?

http://webservices.amazon.com/onca/xml?Service=AWSECommerceService
&SearchIndex=Books
&Sort=salesrank
&Keywords=DVD
&ResponseGroup=Medium,Offers
&amp;Count=20
&Operation=ItemSearch
&AssociateTag=[Your Tag Name]
&SubscriptionId=[Your subscription id]

Answers:

  1. It will return the top 20 books on the subject of DVDs in the order of sales rank.
  2. It will return the top 20 DVDs on the subject of books in the order of sales rank.
  3. It will either return the top 20 books or DVDs depending upon availability.
  4. It will produce an error.

32. Which of the following, defines the term EC2 Amazon Machine Images?
Answers:

  1. It is a packaged-up environment that includes all the necessary bits to set up and boot your instance.
  2. It offers persistent storage for Amazon EC2 instances.
  3. It provides the developers with the tools to build failure resilient applications.
  4. It provides the ability to create point-in-time consistent snapshots of your volumes that are then stored in Amazon S3.

33. Which of the following Use Cases belong to Inbound FWS APIs?

Answers:

  1. Getting a Fulfillment Order
  2. Marking a Shipment as Shipped
  3. Listing All Fulfillment Orders
  4. Canceling a Fulfillment Order

34. In case of Amazon E-Commerce Service, what will happen if you pass the AssociateTag parameter but omit the SubscriptionId

and AWSAccessKeyId parameters?

Answers:

  1. It will return the results but will not add commission to your account if any sales occur.
  2. It will return results and add commission on the basis of the AssociateTag if any sales occur.
  3. If SubscriptionId is not provided, an error will be returned.

35. Which type of AWS requests do not require Access Key ID authentication?

Answers:

  1. Anonymous requests
  2. Authenticated requests

36. Which of the following Amazon EC2 Operations doesn’t require the PublicIP as a request parameter?

Answers:

  1. Allocate Address
  2. Release Address
  3. Associate Address

37. Is the following statement true or false?

With reference to the Amazon Flexible Payment Service, once you subscribe to the caller notification using the SubscribeForCallerNotification operation, you cannot unsubscribe the notification service.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

2,052 total views, 8 views today

Upwork Intelligence and Aptitude

Programming Aptitude Test 2016

Published by:

1. A bus travels from point A to point E. At stop B, it drops seven passengers and picks up twelve. At point C it drops four passengers and picks up one third of the passengers as compared to the passengers picked up at point B. At point D, it drops five passengers and picks up double the number it drops. At point E, it picks up five passengers and drops half the number as compared to the passengers dropped at point C. If there are twenty passengers in the bus at point E, how many passengers were there in it at point A?

Answers:

  1. 5
  2. 9
  3. 7
  4. 11

2. He cannot dance because he is a singer. Which out of the following is the most appropriate conclusion?

Answers:

  1. All singers can dance.
  2. Some singers cannot dance.
  3. No singer can dance.
  4. Some singers can dance.

3. Given below is a set of numbers. Find the missing number.

354, 180, 64, ___, 10.2, 8.7

Answers:

  1. 21
  2. 18
  3. 27
  4. 12

4. Four friends, A, B, C, and D, decide to save money in a bank. The bank’s specialty is that every month, the money gets doubled. At the end of the second month, A withdraws $50 from the bank. At the end of the third month, B withdraws $50 from the bank. At the end of the fourth month, C withdraws $50 from the bank. At the end of the fifth month, D withdraws $50.016 from the bank. After the last withdrawal, their balance in the bank becomes zero. Calculate how much amount the four friends had deposited in the bank?

Answers:

  1. $13.438
  2. $23.438
  3. $25.438
  4. $30.438
  5. $44.438

5. In a certain code, INTELLIGENT is written as EJPAHHECAJP. How is HUMOROUS written in the same code?

Answers:

  1. DQIKNKQO
  2. DQINKOQK
  3. DQIONKKQ
  4. DQIOQKNK

6. Find the missing number in the above diagram.

Answers:

  1. 32
  2. 31
  3. 26
  4. 24

7. If some fruits are vegetables, all vegetables are plants, some plants are leaves and all leaves are green, which of the following is the most appropriate answer?

Answers:

  1. All plants are green.
  2. All vegetables are green.
  3. Some vegetables are leaves.
  4. All plants are leaves.

8. A man buys a table for $60. After a year, the value of the table has increased to $70 and he decides to sell the table. But a few days later, he regrets his decision to sell the table and buys it again. Unfortunately, he has to pay $80 to get it back. So he loses $10. After another year of owning the table, he finally decides to sell the table for $90. What is the overall profit or loss the man makes?
Answers:

  1. A profit of $20
  2. A profit of $10
  3. A profit of $30
  4. A loss of $30
  5. A loss of $10

9. When Jack sleeps, Jill starts crying and Peter starts laughing. If Peter is not laughing, which of the following is the most appropriate conclusion?

Answers:

  1. Jack is not sleeping but Jill is crying.
  2. Jack is not sleeping.
  3. Jack is sleeping but Jill is not crying.
  4. Jack is sleeping but Jill is crying.

10. If all players are young and young players are strong, which of the following is the most logical conclusion?

Answers:

  1. Those who are strong are players.
  2. Those who are only strong but not young are players.
  3. Only young people can be players.
  4. Only young players can be strong.

11. There are five people, A, B, C, D and E. A is older than B. C is older than D. D is older than E. B and E are of exactly the same age.
If the above information is true, which of the following must also be true?

Answers:

  1. C is younger than E.
  2. C is older than A.
  3. B is older than C.
  4. A is older than E.

12. A man is climbing up a cliff. He climbs six meters in one minute and falls down three meters in the next minute. This sequence goes on throughout the climb. Calculate the time taken to reach the top if the cliff is 60 meters high?

Answers:

  1. 31 minutes
  2. 33 minutes
  3. 39 minutes
  4. 40 minutes

13. Four people, Peter, Smith, Jack, and Tom, arrive at the airport. If three people are speaking the truth and only one is lying, who is the first person to arrive at the airport?

Peter: “Tom got here first.”
Smith: “Peter arrived later than Tom.”
Jack: “Smith is lying.”
Tom: “I arrived earlier than Jack.”

Answers:

  1. Peter
  2. Jack
  3. Tom
  4. Smith

14. If Sophie has five friends in the class and no one else has five friends, which out of the following is the most appropriate answer?

Answers:

  1. No one in the class has friends.
  2. Everybody in the class has friends.
  3. All friends of Sophie have 5 friends each.
  4. At least 1 student in the class has 5 friends.

15. Find the next number in the series 4, -5, 11, -14, 22, ___?

Answers:

  1. -21
  2. -33
  3. -27
  4. -30

16. Look at the following arrangement?

8Z5*CD2%J$7SQRI@Z12
What will come in place of the question mark (?) in the following series based on the above arrangement?
58C
*ZD
C52
?

Answers:

  1. D*%
  2. 2CJ
  3. $%S
  4. 7JQ

17. Given below is a set of numbers. One of the numbers does not belong to the set. Which one is it?

36, 157, 303, 470, 666, 891

Answers:

  1. 891
  2. 157
  3. 303
  4. 470
  5. 666

18. How many A’s in the following sequence are immediately preceded by B but not immediately followed by C?

CABDACBAEBACDBCADBAEBAFCAB

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 1

19. If all buses are cars, all cars are trains, all trains are trucks and no truck is a scooter, which of the following is the most appropriate answer?

Answers:

  1. All scooters are cars.
  2. Some buses are scooters.
  3. All buses are trucks.
  4. Some trucks cannot be cars.

20. On an average, Robert drinks 360 bottles of wine in a year. Which of the given statements would be true?

Answers:

  1. Robert drinks more than 35 bottles of wine in a month.
  2. Robert drinks less than 8 bottles of wine in a week.
  3. Robert drinks more than 2 bottles of wine every day.
  4. Robert drinks 100 bottles of wine in 6 months.

21. Albert repays three installments, a, b and c, of a loan that he had taken for buying an electric heater. The total of the first installment and the second installment is $150. The total of the second installment and the third installment is $200. The total of the third installment and thrice the first installment is $250. What is the third installment?

Answers:

  1. $50
  2. $100
  3. $150
  4. $200

22. There are four birds A,B,C, and D. A can fly eight miles farther than B. B can fly five miles farther than C. A can fly thirteen miles farther than C. D can fly twenty miles farther than A. Which one can fly the farthest?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

23. On hearing the letter ‘A’, an athlete jumps once, on hearing the letter ‘B’, he jumps thrice and on hearing the letter ‘C’, he jumps twice. If the sequence in which he jumps is ABCCBABCACCB, how many times did the athlete jump?

Answers:

  1. 35
  2. 20
  3. 30
  4. 25

24. In a certain code, “how are you” is written as ‘dmadv vitres zonki’, ‘are you jack’ is written as ‘vitres zonki jack’ and ‘flowers are beautiful’ is written as ‘dregres vitres istebla’. What is the code for ‘are’?

Answers:

  1. dmadv
  2. dregres
  3. zonki
  4. vitres

25. A dial clock shows the time as quarter past eight when seen through a mirror. What is the actual time shown by the clock?

Answers:

  1. Quarter to four
  2. Quarter past two
  3. Quarter to three
  4. Quarter past four

26. If all dogs are faithful and some dogs are pets, which out of the following is the most appropriate answer?

Answers:

  1. All dogs that are pets are faithful.
  2. Some dogs are faithful.
  3. All dogs that are faithful are pets.
  4. Some pets that are dogs are faithful.

27. In a sports tournament, team R is at the top in the league while team O has less points than team R but more points than team B. If team C has more points than team V and team V is exactly below team O, which team is at the second place?

Answers:

  1. R
  2. B
  3. O
  4. C
  5. V

28. A watch shows the correct time at midnight and then begins to lose 15 minutes per hour. Six hours ago, it stopped completely. If the clock now shows the time as 3:45 a.m., what is the time now?

Answers:

  1. 9:00 a.m.
  2. 10:00 a.m.
  3. 11:00 a.m.
  4. 12 noon

29. Jack refused to buy a computer offered to him by Sam for $2048. A year later, Sam again offered Jack the same computer for $1280 but Jack refused again. The next year, he again offered Jack the same computer for $800. One year after that, the computer was again offered but Jack did not buy it. The following year, Jack bought the computer from Sam for $312.50. If the rate of discount offered every year were constant, at what price was the computer offered in the fourth year?

Answers:

  1. $456
  2. $500
  3. $526
  4. $550

30. Find the next number in the series 1, 3, 15, 45, 225, ___?

Answers:

  1. 675
  2. 1125
  3. 550
  4. 450

31. If some caps are hats, some hats are umbrellas, some umbrellas are coats and all coats are shirts, which of the following is correct?

Answers:

  1. Those umbrellas which are not coats are shirts.
  2. Some shirts are umbrellas.
  3. Those caps which are not hats are shirts.
  4. All shirts are caps.

32. Find the next number in the series 10, 2, 8, 2, 6, 2, __?

Answers:

  1. 4
  2. 6
  3. 8
  4. 10

33. If engineers are called ‘goats’, doctors are called ‘sheep’, lawyers are called ‘ducks’, painters are called ‘sparrows’ and singers are called ‘lions’, what will Peter be called if he left engineering to become a painter and is now a singer?

Answers:

  1. goat
  2. sheep
  3. duck
  4. sparrow
  5. lion

34. If ‘+’ means ‘-‘, ‘/’ means ‘+’, ‘-‘ means ‘*’ and ‘*’ means ‘/’, what would be the value of 3030 / 20 * 50 + 10 – 220?

Answers:

  1. 730.4
  2. 830.4
  3. 630.4
  4. 930.4

35. Statement:Some teachers are lawyers and no lawyer is a doctor. What is the correct conclusion from the given statement?

Answers:

  1. No teacher is a doctor.
  2. No lawyer is a teacher.
  3. Some teachers are doctors.
  4. Some lawyers are teachers.

36. The cost of the first camera is three eighths more than that of the second and the cost of the third camera is five eighths more than that of the second one. If the total cost of all the three cameras is $12000, what will be the cost of the second camera?

Answers:

  1. $1000
  2. $2000
  3. $3000
  4. $6000

37. In a certain code, P$Q means P is a brother of Q, P@Q means P is daughter of Q, P%Q means P is the grandfather of Q, P*Q means P is a son of Q. Which of the following expressions represents the relationship: A is the father of C?

Answers:

  1. A*B@C
  2. A*B%C
  3. C*B%A
  4. C*A%B

38. A, B, C, D, and E are five children studying in a class. D is taller than A. B is shorter than C but taller than E. C is taller than D. E is taller than A. Who among the following is the shortest in height?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. E

39. If some books are pens, all pens are tables, all tables are chairs and no chair is an eraser, which of the following is correct?

Answers:

  1. All books are tables.
  2. All books are chairs.
  3. No table is an eraser.
  4. Only some pens are chairs.

40. What is the value of R in the following set of equations?

1) P + Q = 2
2) R x P + Q = 5
3) P + R x Q = 7

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 4
  4. 5
  5. 7

41. If pencils are cheaper than pens, and pens are cheaper than erasers; and Peter does not have enough money to buy 5 pens, which of the following will be the most appropriate answer?

Answers:

  1. Peter has money to buy 1 pen.
  2. Peter does not have money to buy 1 pen.
  3. Peter has money to buy 5 pencils.
  4. Peter has money to buy pencils but not enough money to buy pens.
  5. Peter has enough money to buy erasers.

42. In a basketball tournament, a player scored three points in his first match. In the second match, he scored five points more than he scored in the first match. In the third match, he scored five times more points as compared to the first match. The points in the fifth and the sixth matches were thirty five and forty eight points respectively. Calculate the points which the player scored in his fourth match, if all the points scored follow a particular pattern?

Answers:

  1. 18
  2. 21
  3. 24
  4. 30

43. If all bells are made from brass, brass is a metal and some metals are yellow in color, which of the following is/are the most appropriate answer/s?

Answers:

  1. Brass is not yellow in color.
  2. All yellow colored things are metals.
  3. Bells are made from metal.
  4. Bells can be brown in color.

44. In a certain code, BREAD is written as $#*@!, and BUTTER is written as $3%%*#. How is RUBBER written in that code?

Answers:

  1. #3%%*@
  2. #3$$@$
  3. #3%%#$
  4. #3$$*#

45. If all red flowers are white and no white flowers are pink, which of the following is the most appropriate answer?

Answers:

  1. No red flower is pink.
  2. Some red flowers are pink.
  3. No red flowers are white.
  4. All white flowers are red.

46. What would come in place of the question mark in the following letter-number series?

D8W
J27Q
P64K
?

Answers:

  1. V100E
  2. V125E
  3. U125E
  4. W125E

47. Statement:Some teachers are lawyers and no lawyer is a doctor. What is the correct conclusion drawn from the given statement?

Answers:

  1. No teacher is a doctor.
  2. No lawyer is a teacher.
  3. Some teachers are doctors.
  4. Some lawyers are teachers.

48. Peter purchased three cameras. The cost of the first camera is 3/8-times the cost of the second camera, and the cost of the third camera is 5/8-times the cost of the second camera. If the total cost of the three cameras is $12,000, what is the cost of the second camera?

Answers:

  1. $1,000
  2. $2,000
  3. $3,000
  4. $6,000

49. A certain clock shows the correct time at midnight and then begins to lose 15 minutes per hour. Six hours ago, when it stopped completely, it showed the time as 3:45 a.m. What is the time now?

Answers:

  1. 9:00 a.m.
  2. 10:00 a.m.
  3. 11:00 a.m.
  4. 12 noon

50. If all dogs are faithful and some dogs are pets, then which of the following is the most appropriate answer?

Answers:

  1. All pets that are dogs are faithful.
  2. Some dogs are faithful.
  3. All dogs that are faithful are pets.
  4. Some pets that are dogs are faithful.

51. Carefully study the following arrangement:

8Z5*CD2%J$7SQRI@Z12

What will replace the question mark (?) in the following sequence, which is based on the above-given arrangement?
58C
*ZD
C52
?

Answers:

  1. D*%
  2. 2CJ
  3. $%S
  4. 7JQ

52. In a certain code,
P$Q means P is the brother of Q,
P@Q means P is the daughter of Q,
P%Q means P is the grandfather of Q, and
P*Q means P is the son of Q.

Which of the following expressions represents the relationship: P is the father of R?

Answers:

  1. P*Q@R
  2. P*Q%R
  3. R*Q%P
  4. R*P@Q

53. A bus travels from Point A to Point E. At Point B, it drops seven passengers and picks up twelve. At Point C, it drops four passengers and picks up one-third of the total number of passengers it picked up at Point B. At Point D, it drops five passengers and picks up double the number it drops. At Point E, it picks up five passengers and drops half the number of passengers it dropped at Point C. If there are twenty passengers in the bus at Point E, how many passengers were there in it at Point A?

Answers:

  1. 5
  2. 9
  3. 7
  4. 11

1,510 total views, 5 views today

Upwork Intelligence and Aptitude

Computer Aptitude Test 2016

Published by:

1. HGFE is related to ZYXW in the same way as PONM is related to:

Answers:

  1. JKEF
  2. TSRQ
  3. QTSR
  4. EDOQ

2. Refer to the diagram.
From the 4 given options, choose the one that completes the series.
Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

3. Ronald is taller than George, who is shorter than Bill. George is taller than Jimmy and Hillary, where Hillary is the shortest. Who is the tallest among all?

Answers:

  1. Ronald
  2. Bill
  3. George
  4. Jimmy
  5. Cannot be determined

4. If 123 means “Very hot day”, 356 means “hot filtered coffee” and 289 means “day and night”, the numeral that stands for “very” is:

Answers:

  1. 5
  2. 2
  3. 1
  4. 9

5. Bodyguard is related to person in the same way as:

Answers:

  1. Teacher : School
  2. Mayor : City
  3. Soldier : Country
  4. Monk : Temple

6. A solid cube is painted green on two adjacent sides and black on the sides opposite to the green sides and yellow on the remaining sides. The cube is then cut into 64 small cubes of equal size. How many cubes have three sides painted?

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 8

7. C is larger than B. D is smaller than A, which is larger than C. E is larger than D but smaller than B. The largest among them is:

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. Cannot be determined

8. What can you infer from the following statement:

All liquids are pure, some liquids are dark brown

Answers:

  1. All pure things are dark brown
  2. No pure liquid is dark brown
  3. All liquids are dark brown
  4. None of these

9. Five books are lying in a pile. Q is lying on M and O is lying under N. M is lying above N and P is lying under O. Which one is lying at the bottom?

Answers:

  1. M
  2. N
  3. O
  4. P

10. Refer to the diagram.
Choose the missing figure from the 4 given options.

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

11. The word which cannot be formed from the letters used in “POSTENTATION” is:

Answers:

  1. PATIENT
  2. NATION
  3. OTHER
  4. STATION

12. Fill the blanks in the following series:

l m _ n m l _ m n n m _ l _ n n m l l _ n

Answers:

  1. mnlnm
  2. nllmm
  3. lmmnl
  4. nmlnn

13. A rectangle is 3 times as long as it is wide and its perimeter (total length of all 4 sides) is 112 centimeters. What are its length and width?

Answers:

  1. 42 centimeters and 14 centimeters
  2. 45 centimeters and 15 centimeters
  3. 39 centimeters and 13 centimeters
  4. 54 centimeters and 18 centimeters

14. 16 workers dig an 80 meters long trench in 5 days. How long will it take 24 workers to dig a 72 meters long trench?

Answers:

  1. 5 days
  2. 4 days
  3. 2 days
  4. 3 days
  5. 8 days

15. Refer to the diagram.
From the 4 given options, choose the one that completes the series.

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

16. The term “MATCHING” is used as a code word by a shopkeeper to indicate prices, M stands for 1 , A for 2, T for 3, and so on. The price of an article priced TIN is:

Answers:

  1. 376
  2. 367
  3. 368
  4. None of these

17. A is a sister of B, B is a daughter of C, C is the husband of D. What is D to B?

Answers:

  1. Brother
  2. Sister
  3. Mother
  4. Father

18. Ship is related to fish as a ____ is related to bird.

Answers:

  1. feather
  2. tree
  3. branches
  4. kite

19. Pete employed five men to develop computer software. They were able to develop it in 13 days. Had Pete suspended 2 of them after the 4th day, then in how many days would the work have been completed?

Answers:

  1. 14
  2. 15
  3. 17
  4. 19

20. What will be the next term in the following series?

OAC, QDG, SGK,?

Answers:

  1. STK
  2. UJO
  3. RST
  4. PQT

21. If the 10th of January of a leap year falls on Saturday, then the 11th of March of the same year falls on a:

Answers:

  1. Monday
  2. Wednesday
  3. Thursday
  4. Saturday

22. A boy cycles a distance of 5 miles at a speed of 15 miles per hour and then cycles all the way back at a speed of 10 miles per hour. How long did the entire journey take him?

Answers:

  1. 1 hour
  2. 40 minutes
  3. 50 minutes
  4. 30 minutes
  5. 45 minutes

23. What is the missing number in the following series?

12, 144, 16, ?, 18, 324

Answers:

  1. 256
  2. 216
  3. 238
  4. 234

24. Adam bought a painting for $100 and sold it to Brian at a profit of 25%. Brian further sold it to Chris at a loss of 25%. At what price did Chris buy the painting from Brian?

Answers:

  1. $93.75
  2. $105
  3. $100
  4. $75
  5. $87.50

25. The number which is one fourth of the one third of the quarter of 288 is:

Answers:

  1. 18
  2. 6
  3. 12
  4. 3

26. Fill the blanks in the following series:

a b _ b c _ c _ b a _ c

Answers:

  1. aaab
  2. caab
  3. baac
  4. cabb

27. Arrange in meaningful order:

1.Wall
2.House
3.Clay
4.Bricks
5.Room

Answers:

  1. 2,5,4,1,3
  2. 3,4,1,5,2
  3. 2,4,1,3,5
  4. 4,1,5,3,2

28. B is the daughter of A and cousin of C. D’s father is E and D is the father of C. Also, the father of A is E. Who is B to D?

Answers:

  1. Grand daughter
  2. Daughter
  3. Niece
  4.  Wife

29. What is the missing number in the following series?

5, 10, 15, __, 29, 38, 47

Answers:

  1. 20
  2. 25
  3. 30
  4. 22

30. Jack and Harry share 102 marbles such that Harry has 5 times more marbles than Jack has. How many marbles does Harry have?

Answers:

  1. 75 marbles
  2. 80 marbles
  3. 67 marbles
  4. 90 marbles
  5. 85 marbles

31. If C is 24 and BAG is 71 then DEAF is:

Answers:

  1. 90
  2. 92
  3. 93
  4. 94

32. Based on the diagram, find the missing number.

Answers:

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 6

33. I am 4 times the age of my younger brother who is only three years old. After 10 years what will my age be?

Answers:

  1. 52
  2. 42
  3. 32
  4. 22
  5. Cannot be determined

34. Which is the incorrect number in the following series?

5, 10, 29, 84, 247

Answers:

  1. 5
  2. 10
  3. 29
  4. 84
  5. 247

35. A few days back when Pete had fever, he was taken to his uncle’s clinic, which is 6 Kilometers towards the right of his house, but his uncle was not available, so he was taken to hospital 12 Kilometers towards the left of clinic. The doctor prescribed him a medicine and the chemist shop was 1 Kilometer towards the left. The minimum distance which he had to cover to come back to his home from the chemist shop was:

Answers:

  1. 7 Kilometers
  2. 9 Kilometers
  3. 11 Kilometers
  4. 13 Kilometers

36. Which number in the following series is incorrect?

5, 13, 35, 73, 158

Answers:

  1. 5
  2. 13
  3. 35
  4. 73
  5. 158

37. Consider the following statements:

P,Q,R are intelligent
P,S,T are hardworking
S,R,T are honest
P,Q,T are ambitious

Who among them is neither hardworking nor ambitious?

Answers:

  1. P
  2. Q
  3. R
  4. T

38. When a certain number is tripled, the result is the same as adding 34 to it. What is the number?

Answers:

  1. 20
  2. 15
  3. 18
  4. 17
  5. 21
  6. 19

39. The day that will come two days after tomorrow will be Saturday. What was the day that came two days before yesterday?

Answers:

  1. Friday
  2. Sunday
  3. Saturday
  4. Monday

40. Web : Spider

Answers:

  1.  Flower : Bee
  2. Cave : Lion
  3. Canal : Snake
  4. Nest : Bird

41. Choose a pair of words from the options that expresses a similar relation as expressed by the pair of words given below.

Web : Spider

Answers:

  1. Flower : Bee
  2. Cave : Lion
  3. Canal : Snake
  4. Nest : Bird

42. Which is the incorrect number in the following series?

11, 29, 84, 247, 734

Answers:

  1. 11
  2. 29
  3. 84
  4. 247
  5. 734

43. The term MATCHING is used as a code-word by a shopkeeper to indicate prices. As per the code, the letter M stands for 1; A for 2; T for 3; and so on. The price of an article priced TIN is:

Answers:

  1. 376
  2. 367
  3. 368
  4. None of these

44. A few days back when Pete had fever, he was taken to his uncle’s clinic, which is six kilometers to the right of his house. As his uncle was not present in the clinic, he was taken to another hospital 12 kilometers to the left of the clinic. The doctor checked him and prescribed a medicine, which was available at the chemist’s shop one kilometer to the left of the hospital. The minimum distance that he had to cover to come back to his home from the chemist’s shop was:

Answers:

  1. 7 Kilometers
  2. 9 Kilometers
  3. 11 Kilometers
  4. 13 Kilometers

45. Jack and Harry share 102 marbles such that Harry has 5 times as many marbles as Jack has. How many marbles does Harry have?

Answers:

  1. 75 marbles
  2. 80 marbles
  3. 67 marbles
  4. 90 marbles
  5. 85 marbles

46. If 16 workers dig an 80-meter long trench in five days, how long it will take 24 workers to dig a 72-meter long trench?

Answers:

  1. 5 days
  2. 4 days
  3. 2 days
  4. 3 days
  5. 8 days

47. When a certain number is tripled, the result is the same as adding 34 to the number. What is the number?

Answers:

  1. 20
  2. 15
  3. 18
  4. 17
  5. 21
  6. 19

48. What is the missing number in the following series?

14, 196, 16, ?, 18, 324

Answers:

  1. 256
  2. 216
  3. 238
  4. 234

49. Fill the blanks in the following sequence:

a b _ b c _ c _ b a _ c

Answers:

  1. aaab
  2. caab
  3. baac
  4. cabb

50. A rectangle is three-times as long as it is wide, and its perimeter, i.e., the total length of all four sides, is 112 centimeters. What are its length and width?

Answers:

  1. 42 centimeters and 14 centimeters
  2. 45 centimeters and 15 centimeters
  3. 39 centimeters and 13 centimeters
  4. 54 centimeters and 18 centimeters

51. What is the missing number in the following series?

5, 10, 19, __, 33, 38, 47

Answers:

  1. 36
  2. 25
  3. 38
  4. 24

52. A boy cycles a distance of five miles at a speed of 15 miles per hour and then cycles all the way back at a speed of 10 miles per hour. What was the duration of the entire journey?

Answers:

  1. 1 hour
  2. 40 minutes
  3. 50 minutes
  4. 30 minutes
  5. 45 minutes

53. Pete employed five men to develop a computer software, who were able to develop it in 13 days. Had Pete suspended two of them after the fourth day and the remaining three had continued to work, then the total number of days taken to complete the task would have been:

Answers:

  1. 14
  2. 15
  3. 17
  4. 19

54. Analyse the series given below:

5, 13, 35, 73, 158

Which of the following numbers in the series is incorrect?

Answers:

  1. 5
  2. 13
  3. 35
  4. 73

2,408 total views, 6 views today

Upwork Intelligence and Aptitude

Analytical Skills Test 2016

Published by:

1. A teacher categorizes five students, P, Q, R, S and T. She comes up with the following conclusions:

All Ps are Qs.
All Qs Are Rs.
Some Ss are Ps.
All Ss are Qs.
No Ts are Rs.

Which one of the following is/are true?

Answers:

  1. All Rs are Ps.
  2. Some Ts are Qs.
  3. All Ps are Ss.
  4. No Qs are Ts.
  5. Some Ts are Ps.

2. There are 6 hotels in the city A, B, C, D, E, and F.

Hotel D is 25km to the north of hotel F, which is 35km to the northeast of hotel B.
Hotel A is 15km west of Hotel E and 25 km to the southwest of Hotel C.
Hotel B, A and E are in straight line in the given order.
Hotel B and E is 30 km apart from each other.

If visitor moves from hotel E to hotel D via hotel A, B and F. How much distance it will have to cover?

Answers:

  1. 90km
  2. 120km
  3. 125km
  4. 150km

3. Four lions, P, Q, R and S, and four tigers, L, M, N and O are being transferred from a wild life sanctuary. They are being transferred in two special animal transport vehicles. Each vehicle can hold four animals and keeping the animals in the vehicle follows the following conditions:

There are exactly two lions and two tigers in each vehicle.
Either P or Q, but not both, can be kept in the first vehicle.
If L is in the first vehicle, R must also be in the first vehicle.
If N is in the first vehicle, Q cannot be in the first vehicle.
If Q is in the first vehicle, which of the other three animals are kept along with Q?

Answers:

  1. P, M and O
  2. R, S and L
  3. R, L and M
  4. R, M and N
  5. S, L and O

4. There are 6 hotels in the city A, B, C, D, E, and F.

Hotel D is 25km to the north of hotel F, which is 35km to the northeast of hotel B.
Hotel A is 15km west of Hotel E and 25 km to the southwest of Hotel C.
Hotel B, A and E are in straight line in the given order.
Hotel B and E is 30 km apart from each other.

Which hotel is the farthest to the southwest of hotel D?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

5. There are 6 hotels in the city A, B, C, D, E, and F.

Hotel D is 25km to the north of hotel F, which is 35km to the northeast of hotel B.
Hotel A is 15km west of Hotel E and 25 km to the southwest of Hotel C.
Hotel B, A and E are in straight line in the given order.
Hotel B and E is 30 km apart from each other.

Which hotel is the nearest to the northeast of hotel E?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

6. Veronica has 2 friends Shaun and Michael . Both Shaun and Michael are having Birthday today. Veronica wants to wish them in their free incoming time slot, which is 11AM -1PM according to their respective time zone. At what time intervals Veronica should make call (first Shaun and then Michael) so that she is able to call them in their free incoming call time slot if the Time zone of the three is as follows:

Veronica Time Zone: +11:00 GMT
Shaun Time Zone: +6:00 GMT
Michael Time Zone: +09:30 GMT

Answers:

  1. 04:00 PM to 06:00 PM and 12:30 PM to 02:30 PM
  2. 06:00PM to 08:00 PM and 02:30 PM to 04:30 PM
  3. 08:00PM to 10:00 PM and 04:30 PM to 06:30 PM
  4. 02:00 PM to 04:00 PM and 06:30 PM to 08:30 PM

7. Count the number of triangles in the diagram given below.

Answers:

  1. 22
  2. 25
  3. 21
  4. 27

8. In a certain code language,

‘Tuta Kaba’ means ‘red apples’
‘Pita haka’ means ‘sweet oranges’
‘Haka nut kaba’ means ‘sweet luscious apples’

Which word in the language means ‘luscious’?

Answers:

  1. Tuta
  2. Kaba
  3. nut
  4. Haka

9. This question is based on following series: aABLJ1238YZM957QRF

Which character is midway between the 3rd character from left and 6th character from right?

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 3
  3. 8
  4. Y

10. Suppose there is a family of 6 members namely C1, C2, C3, C4, C5, and C6. The relation among the family members is such that there are 2 fathers, 1 mother, and 3 brothers. No person in the family is having a relation of grandmother to the other family members. The additional information is given as follows:
C3 is the sister of C6.

C2 is the brother of C5’s husband.

C4 is the father of C1 and grandfather of C6.

Who is the mother in the family?

Answers:

  1. C3
  2. C2
  3. C1
  4. C5

11. Jack is sleeping.

Which statement/ statements among the following is/are necessary to justify the statement?

1)Jack is in bed.
2)It is afternoon.
3)Everyone lying on the bed is sleeping.

Answers:

  1. 1 & 2
  2. 2 & 3
  3. 1 & 3

12. Bob walks 8km towards North and turns to his right and walks 4km more. He then turns to his right and walks 5km and turns again to his right and walks another 4 km. Here he meets Smith coming from the opposite direction. They both stop here.

If the starting point from where bob started is marked as A and finishing point is marked as B, then what is the distance between A and B?

Answers:

  1. 8km
  2. 4km
  3. 3km
  4. 9km

13. Stefan and Elena both start walking from one point towards West. Stefan turns to right after walking 20km. Elena turns to left after walking the same distance. Stefan waits for some time and then walks another 10km whereas Elena walks only 5km. After that, they both start walking towards South and cover 15 km each. How far is Stefan from Elena?

Answers:

  1. 10km
  2. 15km
  3. 30km
  4. 25km

14. Five people, P, Q, R, S and T are appearing in an interview. The order in which they will be called for the interview is fixed. P will be called before R, Q before S and T before P. Which among the following is the correct sequence in which they would attend the interview?

Answers:

  1. P, R, Q, S, T
  2. P, R, S, T, Q
  3. Q, R, P, T, S
  4. Q, S, T, P, R

15. A marketing executive reaches his office by 9 AM (+5:30 GMT) in India. He has to make a conference call to his colleagues sitting in different countries having different time zones as given below:

Kuwait (+03:00 GMT)
Finland (+02:00 GMT)
Moscow (+04:00 GMT)
Japan (+09:00 GMT)

At what time interval (According to India’s time zone) can he call his colleagues before lunch i.e. 1 pm (According to every one’s time zone)?

Answers:

  1. 9:00 AM to 9:30 AM
  2. 9:30AM to 10:00 AM
  3. 10:00 AM to 10:30 AM
  4. 10:30 AM to 11:00 AM

16. There are six floors in a building from the first floor to the top floor. No two people can live on the same floor.

P lives two floors below M.
S lives on the floor above N.
Only one floor is vacant.

If P lives on the second floor, which of the following would be true?

Answers:

  1. S lives on the third floor.
  2. M lives on the fifth floor.
  3. N lives on the floor above M.

17. Suppose there is a family of 6 members namely C1, C2, C3, C4, C5, and C6. The relation among the family members is such that there are 2 fathers, 1 mother, and 3 brothers. No person in the family is having a relation of grandmother to the other family members. The additional information is given as follows:
C3 is the sister of C6.

C2 is the brother of C5’s husband.

C4 is the father of C1 and grandfather of C6.

How many male members are there in the family?

Answers:

  1. 5
  2. 4
  3. 3
  4. 2

18. This question is based on following series: aABLJ1238YZM957QRF

Complete the series. aL2, AJ3, Y9Q, B1?

Answers:

  1. Z
  2. 3
  3. Y
  4. 8

19. Bob walks 8km towards North and turns to his right and walks 4km more. He then turns to his right and walks 5km and turns again to his right and walks another 4 km. Here he meets Smith coming from the opposite direction. They both stop here.

If Bob is to again reach the point from where he started, in which direction will he have to go from the point he’s standing?

Answers:

  1. SOUTH
  2. WEST
  3. NORTH EAST
  4. NORTH

20. This question is based on following series: aABLJ1238YZM957QRF

Which character is 5th of the left of the 9th letter from the right in the series?

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. L
  3. 9
  4. None of these

21. Read the statements below:

P can speak English and Spanish.
Q can speak English and French.
R can speak French and Spanish.
S can speak German and English.
T, a Spaniard, can also speak German.

Who among the following cannot have a conversation without an interpreter?

Answers:

  1. P and R
  2. Q and S
  3. Q and T
  4. P and T

22. A,B,C, and D are sitting around a round dinner table and discussing their profession.
A said, “I am sitting opposite to the Tester.”
B said, “I am on the right of the Programmer.”
Debugger said, “I am on the left of the Manager.”
D said, “I am sitting opposite to C.”

What are the professions of A and B respectively?

Answers:

  1. Manager and Programmer.
  2. Programmer and Tester.
  3. Manager and Tester.
  4. Manager and Debugger.

23. Damon is running 80m towards the west, then he turned left and walked 10m, then he turned to the left and went 10m and then turned left again and went 10m. How far is Damon from the starting point?

Answers:

  1. 80m
  2. 70m
  3. 20m
  4. 20m

24. If Fin is the brother of Austin. Cane is the daughter of Austin. Karol is the sister of Fin. Goofy is the brother of Cane.

Who is the uncle of Goofy?

Answers:

  1. Karol
  2. Cena
  3. Fin
  4. Austin

25. A certain code word uses numbers 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. The numbers are written from left to right. The numbers correspond to the following conditions:

1)The code word can contain a minimum of two numbers. The numbers can be the same or different.
2)1 cannot be the first number in the code word.
3)If 2 occurs, it should occur more than once.
4)3 cannot be the last number in the word nor can it be next to last.
5)If 1 occurs, 4 must also occur.
6)If 2 does not occur, 5 too cannot occur.

Which of the following is the code word?

Answers:

  1. 1224
  2. 2532
  3. 3225
  4. 4315
  5. 5413

26. Five friends, A, B, C, D and E work in different offices. One of them is a singer, the other a lawyer, the third a doctor, the fourth a sportsman and the fifth a chef. One day, they meet and discuss their respective earnings.

E is earning as much as the singer.
C is earning less than the lawyer.
A is earning less than the doctor.
B is earning more than the chef.
C is earning more than the doctor.
The doctor is earning more than the sportsman.
E is earning more than B.

What is A’s profession?

Answers:

  1. Singer
  2. Lawyer
  3. Chef
  4. Cannot be determined

27. Suppose there is a group of 5 people P, Q, R, S, and T. Information about these 5 persons is as following:

Among them 1 is cricketer, 1 is Hockey player, and 1 is football player.

P and S are unmarried women in the group and do not take part in any game.

None of the women plays Hockey or Cricket.

There is a married couple in the group. T is the husband.

Q is the brother of R and is neither a hockey player nor a football player.

Who is the Wife of T?

Answers:

  1. Q
  2. R
  3. P
  4. S

28. Suppose there is a group of 5 people P, Q, R, S, and T. Information about these 5 persons is as following:
Among them 1 is cricketer, 1 is Hockey player, and 1 is football player.

P and S are unmarried women in the group and do not take part in any game.

None of the women plays Hockey or Cricket.

There is a married couple in the group. T is the husband.

Q is the brother of R and is neither a hockey player nor a football player.

Who is the Cricketer in the group?

Answers:

  1. P
  2. Q
  3. R
  4. S

29. In a class, there are 8 students: P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W.

P is taller than Q, but shorter than R.
Q is shorter than S, but taller than T.
U is shorter than P, but taller than Q.
V is taller than S, but shorter than U.
W is shorter than Q.

Which one of the following would be true?

Answers:

  1. U is taller than S.
  2. W is taller than S.
  3. W is the shortest of all.
  4. T is taller than W.

30. A team of four students has to be selected from A, B, C, D, E, F and G, according to the following:

B will not be with F.
A and C must be together.
E will not be with A.
G and D must be together.
F will not be with G.

A team can consist of:

Answers:

  1. ABCE
  2. BDEG
  3. BDFA
  4. DEAG

31. A train stops at six different stations on its route. After the train leaves the sixth station, it returns to the first station and repeats the cycle. The stations are located in six cities and are named A, B, C, D, E and F. E is the third station. B is the sixth. Station D comes before station F. Station C comes before station A. If C is the fourth station, which station among the following should come immediately before Station C?

Answers:

  1. D
  2. E
  3. C
  4. A
  5. B

32. In the following series how many such odd numbers are there which are divisible by 3 or 5 and immediately followed by odd number?

29,25,26,21,3,25,35,18,20,22,50,9,52,54,55,56,48,26,45

Answers:

  1. 5
  2. 4
  3. 8
  4. 3

33. There are three people, A, B and C. They are to share a cake equally. They cut the cake into “n” equal pieces. After each one of them finishes eating 4 pieces of the cake, the total number of the remaining pieces of the cake is equal to that to which each person was entitled. Find the value of “n”.

Answers:

  1. 24
  2. 18
  3. 28
  4. 36

34. Suppose there is a group of 5 people P, Q, R, S, and T. Information about these 5 persons is as following:
Among them 1 is cricketer, 1 is Hockey player, and 1 is football player.

P and S are unmarried women in the group and do not take part in any game.

None of the women plays Hockey or Cricket.

There is a married couple in the group. T is the husband.

Q is the brother of R and is neither a hockey player nor a football player.

Who is the Football player in the group?

Answers:

  1. P
  2. Q
  3. R
  4. S

35. Six people, P, Q, R, S, T and V, run a marathon.

Q does not win.
Two runners separate T and S.
P is running behind S and T.
Q is running ahead of T and there is one runner in between the two of them.
V is running ahead of S.

How many runners separate P and V?

Answers:

  1. 5
  2. 4
  3. 3
  4. 2
  5. 1

36. For his highly confidential project, Professor Mark Philip is trying to make a team comprising four doctors – two males and two females.

Peter, Jack, Martin and Steve are male doctors.
Mary, Rosy and Stephanie are female doctors.
Peter and Jack do not work together.
Rosy and Peter refuse to work together.
Martin and Stephanie cannot work together.

If Jack is made a member of the team, who among the following must be the other three members of the team?

Answers:

  1. Mary, Rosy and Peter
  2. Mary, Stephanie and Martin
  3. Mary, Stephanie and Peter
  4. Mary, Rosy and Steve

37. How many 7s are there in the following series which are immediately preceded by 9 but not followed by 7?

749769774329727793279

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 8
  3. 5
  4. 3

38. In a game, Peter places seven marbles adjacently in a row.

Two marbles are red in color.
Two blue colored marbles are adjacent to the same red marble.
There is one pink colored marble.
There are two white colored marbles but they are not placed adjacent to each other.
One of the red colored marbles is place at one end of the row.

If the pink colored marble is placed at the other end of the row, where is the second red colored marble?

Answers:

  1. In the second place.
  2. In the third place.
  3. In the fourth place.
  4. In the seventh place.

39. Jack said to Martha “YOUR ONLY BROTHER’S SON IS MY WIFE’S BROTHER”. How is Martha related to Jack’s wife?

Answers:

  1. Mother
  2. Aunt
  3. Sister
  4. Can’t say

40. 5 students, A, B, C, D and E took a competitive exam. When their result was declared, A wrote the following on a piece of paper:

B has scored more than 2 marks.
C has scored more marks in the exam than A and B has scored together.
Marks scored by A are the same as the total marks scored by D and E together.
A has scored more marks than B.
No two people have scored the same marks.

If D scored more marks than B, who scored the lowest marks?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. Data Insufficient

41. Suppose there is a group of 5 people P, Q, R, S, and T. Information about these 5 persons is as following:
Among them 1 is cricketer, 1 is Hockey player, and 1 is football player.

P and S are unmarried women in the group and do not take part in any game.

None of the women plays Hockey or Cricket.

There is a married couple in the group. T is the husband.

Q is the brother of R and is neither a hockey player nor a football player.

Who is the Hockey player in the group?

Answers:

  1. Q
  2. R
  3. S
  4. T

42. A survey recently conducted revealed that the consumption of alcohol is injurious to health. The survey found that, on an average, men drank 75% of the total alcohol and women 25% during the last five years.

Which question out of the following will be the most appropriate in evaluating the given statement?

Answers:

  1. Why is the time of the survey 5 years and not more or less?
  2. Did any of the men die after consuming alcohol?
  3. When the survey was conducted, did women drink more alcohol than men?
  4. What has been the ratio of the males consuming alcohol to the females doing so during the last five years?

43. A, B, C and D are four people.

1)A is the son of B.
2)B is the daughter of C.
3)C is the mother of D.

Which among the following is true?

Answers:

  1. B and D are brothers.
  2. D is the father of A.
  3. A and D are brothers.
  4. B is the sister of D

44. Students of a college who are excused from attending the public speaking class are better orators than those who take the course. Thus we can improve public speaking skills of students by cancelling the public speaking course.

The flaw in the reasoning used in the above argument is that the writer:

Answers:

  1. gives no evidence for his conclusion.
  2. is expressing a subjective view.
  3. assumes all public speaking courses to be alike.
  4. confuses cause and effect.

45. Graffitiing and speechmaking on public property should be banned. Anarchists and fundamentalists have no right to use public property to disseminate their nasty views.

The above argument assumes that:

Answers:

  1. anarchists and fundamentalists always use public property to disseminate their ideas.
  2. legal restrictions may apply to a select group.
  3. those who indulge in graffitiing and speechmaking on public property are anarchists and fundamentalists.
  4. law should not extend protection to those who create disorder.

46. Two persons, A and B, are having a conversation.

A says to his sister B, “I have as many sisters as brothers.”
B tells her brother, “I have twice as many brothers as sisters.”

How many brothers and sisters are there?

Answers:

  1. 2 brothers and 5 sisters
  2. 4 brothers and 3 sisters
  3. 3 brothers and 3 sisters
  4. 3 brothers and 4 sisters

47. There are three security guards, A, B and C appointed to guard a jewellery shop under the following conditions:

No security guard is called to work for three consecutive days.

A has his off on Tuesday, Thursday and Sunday.
B has his off on Monday, Wednesday and Saturday.
C has his off on Tuesday, Thursday and Sunday.

On which day of the week do all of them work together?

Answers:

  1. Sunday
  2. Saturday
  3. Friday
  4. Tuesday

48. Count the number of rectangles in the diagram given below.

Answers:

  1. 14
  2. 19
  3. 23
  4. 25
  5. 18

49. Bob walks 8km towards North and turns to his right and walks 4km more. He then turns to his right and walks 5km and turns again to his right and walks another 4 km. Here he meets Smith coming from the opposite direction. They both stop here.

In which direction Bob was going after his first turn?

Answers:

  1. EAST
  2. WEST
  3. NORTH
  4. SOUTH

50. This question is based on the following series: aABLJ1238YZM957QRF

If second half of the series is reversed, which character will be at 4th position from right?

Answers:

  1. L
  2. 7
  3. 9
  4. 1

51. A file needs to be forwarded from India (GMT +05:30). It has to go through 4 other branches located at different locations with their respective Time Zone. The file takes 5 minutes to get processed and reach at the next location. At what time the file should be dispatched from India so that it reaches every branch in their last 5 working minutes (Office Timing 10:00 AM to 4:00 PM) according to the respective time zone.

Branch Locations and their respective time zones:
Location A Time Zone (+11:10 GMT)
Location B Time Zone (+11:05 GMT)
Location C Time Zone (+11:00 GMT)
Location D Time Zone (+10:55 GMT)

Answers:

  1. 10 :10 AM
  2. 11: 25 AM
  3. 10:05 AM
  4. 11:05 AM

52. It is widely accepted that sports players are unconcerned about the environmental hazards. But this opinion is not true. A study recently conducted indicated that 75 percent of the 5000 players interviewed revealed a high level of interest in environmental hazards. If this conclusion is true, which among the following would not favor it?

Answers:

  1. There was no proof whether the interviewed players had any previous experience in dealing with environmental hazards.
  2. Players who are interested in dealing with environmental hazards were more likely to give the interview.
  3. The players were interviewed without regard to their experience.
  4. Since the time the players were interviewed, many developments have been taking place in dealing with environmental hazards.
  5. A government organization concerned with environmental hazards conducted the study.

53. Tom is at Las Vegas Airport (GMT +2:00). There are four flights scheduled at the same time (12:00 AM) to the below given locations. Their GMT is as follows and each location is at 30 minutes flight duration.

Location A GMT +09:00

Location B GMT+07:00

Location C GMT -09:00

Location D GMT -07:00

If the breakfast timings are 7:00-9:00 in every location as per their GMT, which is the most likely place, where Tom should board the flight to get breakfast?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

54. Four men Rory, Stephen, Tony and Ulrich are married to Rachel, Sarah, Teri and Ursa. The couples live in Rhode Island, South Dakota, Texas and Utah.

The first letters of the names of men and their wives, and the states in which they live does not match.
Sarah is not married to Rory.
Stephen does not live in Rhode Island or Utah and is not Rachel’s husband.
Ulrich and Teri do not live in South Dakota.

Who is Rory married to?

Answers:

  1. Rachel
  2. Sarah
  3. Teri
  4. Ursa

55. Suppose there is a family of 6 members namely C1, C2, C3, C4, C5, and C6. The relation among the family members is such that there are 2 fathers, 1 mother, and 3 brothers. No person in the family is having a relation of grandmother to the other family members. The additional information is given as follows:
C3 is the sister of C6.

C2 is the brother of C5’s husband.

C4 is the father of C1 and grandfather of C6.

Who is C5’s husband?

Answers:

  1. C2
  2. C3
  3. C1
  4. C4

56. Four men: Rory, Stephen, Tony and Ulrich are married to four women: Rachel, Sarah, Teri and Ursa. Each of the four couples lives in one of the following four states: Rhode Island, South Dakota, Texas and Utah.

Read the following information carefully and answer the given question:
1- The first letters of the names of men, their wives and the states in which they live are not the same.
2- Sarah is not married to Rory.
3- Stephen does not live in Rhode Island or Utah and is not Rachel’s husband.
4- Ulrich and Teri do not live in South Dakota.

Who is Rory’s wife?

Answers:

  1. Rachel
  2. Sarah
  3. Teri
  4. Ursa

57. Damon ran 80m towards the west, then turned towards his left and walked 10m. Then, he again turned left and went another 10m. After that, he once again turned left and went another 10m. How far is he from the starting point?

Answers:

  1. 80m
  2. 70m
  3. 20m
  4. 10m

58. A marketing executive in a company in India commences work in his office from 9 AM (+5:30 GMT) onwards. He needs to place a conference call to his colleagues based in different countries, and are, therefore, separated by time-zones. These colleagues reside in the following places:

Kuwait (+03:00 GMT)
Finland (+02:00 GMT)
Russia (+04:00 GMT)
Japan (+09:00 GMT)

Which of the given options is the correct time-slot according to the Indian Standard Time in which he can place a conference call to his colleagues before their respective lunch breaks, i.e., before 1 PM according to their country’s standard times?

Answers:

  1. 9:00 AM to 9:30 AM
  2. 9:30AM to 10:00 AM
  3. 10:00 AM to 10:30 AM
  4. 10:30 AM to 11:00 AM

59. It is given that:

1. Fin is the brother of Austin.
2. Cane is the daughter of Austin.
3. Karol is the sister of Fin.
4. Goofy is the brother of Cane.

Based on the above information, who is the uncle of Goofy?

Answers:

  1. Karol
  2. Cane
  3. Fin
  4. Austin

60. Suppose there is a group of 5 people P, Q, R, S, and T. Information about these 5 persons is as follows:
Among them one is cricketer, one is Hockey player, and one is football player.

P and S are unmarried women in the group and do not take part in any game.

None of the women plays Hockey or Cricket.

There is a married couple in the group. T is the husband.

Q is the brother of R and is neither a hockey player nor a football player.

Based on the given information, who is the Cricketer in the group?

Answers:

  1. P
  2. Q
  3. R
  4. T

61. Bob walks 8km towards North and turns to his right and walks 4km more. He then turns to his right and walks 5km and turns again to his right and walks another 4 km. Here he meets Smith coming from the opposite direction. They both stop here.

If the starting point from where Bob started is marked as A and finishing point is marked as B, then what is the distance between A and B?

Answers:

  1. 8km
  2. 4km
  3. 3km
  4. 9km

62. Two siblings: A and B, are having a conversation.
Read the following information and answer the given question:

A says to his sister, B: “I have as many sisters as brothers.”
B tells her brother, A: “I have twice as many brothers as sisters.”

How many brothers and sisters are there?

Answers:

  1. 2 brothers and 5 sisters
  2. 4 brothers and 3 sisters
  3. 3 brothers and 3 sisters
  4. 3 brothers and 4 sisters

63. Five people, P, Q, R, S and T are appearing in an interview. The order in which they will be called for the interview is fixed. P will be called before R, Q will be called before S and T before P. Which among the following could be the correct sequence in which they would attend the interview?

Answers:

  1. P, R, Q, S, T
  2. P, R, S, T, Q
  3. Q, R, P, T, S
  4. Q, S, T, P, R

64. In a city, there are 6 hotels named: A, B, C, D, E and F.

Hotel D is 25km to the north of hotel F, which is 35km to the northeast of hotel B.
Hotel A is 15km west of Hotel E and 25km to the southwest of Hotel C.
Three hotels are in a straight line in the following order: B, A and E.
Hotels B and E are 30km apart from each other.

Which hotel is the farthest to the southwest of Hotel D?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D

65. There are three people, A, B and C. They are to share a cake equally. They cut the cake into “n” equal pieces. After each one of them finishes eating 4 pieces of the cake, the total number of the remaining pieces of the cake is equal to that to which each person was entitled initially. Find the value of “n”.

Answers:

  1. 24
  2. 18
  3. 28
  4. 36

66. What is the total number of triangles in the given diagram?

Answers:

  1. 28
  2. 29
  3. 30
  4. 31

67. There are six floors in a building from the first floor to the top floor. No two people can live on the same floor.
Read the following information and answer the given question:

P lives two floors below M.
S lives on the floor above N.
Two floors are vacant.

If P lives on the second floor, which of the following would be true?

Answers:

  1. S lives on the third floor.
  2. M lives on the fifth floor.
  3. N lives on the floor above M.

68. Read the following information and answer the given question:

A certain code-word uses the digits 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5. The digits are written from left to right and the following conditions are to be adhered to:

1)The code-word must be four-digits long.
2)Repetition of digits is allowed but there should be atleast two different digits in the code-word.
3)1 cannot be the first number in the code-word.
4)If 2 occurs, it should occur more than once.
5)3 cannot be the last number in the code-word, nor can it be next to the last digit.
6)If 1 occurs, 4 must also occur.
7)If 2 does not occur, 5 too cannot occur.

Which of the following can be the code-word?

Answers:

  1. 1224
  2. 2532
  3. 3225
  4. 4315
  5. 5413

69. A, B, C and D were sitting around a dinner table and discussing their professions.
A said, “I am sitting opposite the tester.”
B said, “I am on the right of the programmer.”
The debugger said, “I am on the left of the manager.”
D said, “I am sitting opposite C.”

Find the professions of A and B on the basis of the above-given information.

Answers:

  1. Manager and Programmer.
  2. Programmer and Tester.
  3. Manager and Tester.
  4. Manager and Debugger.

70. There are six members in a family: C1, C2, C3, C4, C5 and C6. The relation among the family members is such that there are 2 fathers, 1 mother, 1 daughter and 3 brothers. No person in the family is a grandmother to the other family members. Additional information is given as follows:

C3 is the sister of C6.

C2 is the brother of C5’s husband.

C4 is the father of C1 and grandfather of C6.

Who is the mother in the family?

Answers:

  1. C3
  2. C2
  3. C1
  4. C5

71. Count the number of triangles in the given diagram.

Answers:

  1. 22
  2. 25
  3. 21
  4. 27

72. There are six members in a family: C1, C2, C3, C4, C5 and C6. The relation among the family members is such that there are 2 fathers, 1 mother, 1 daughter and 3 brothers. No person in the family is a grandmother to the other family members. The additional information is given as follows:

C3 is the sister of C6.

C2 is the brother of C5’s husband.

C4 is the father of C1 and grandfather of C6.

Who is C5’s husband?

Answers:

  1. C2
  2. C3
  3. C1
  4. C4

73. Suppose there is a group of 5 people P, Q, R, S, and T. Information about these 5 persons is as follows:
Among them one is cricketer, one is Hockey player, and one is football player.

P and S are unmarried women in the group and do not take part in any game.

None of the women plays Hockey or Cricket.

There is a married couple in the group. T is the husband.

Q is the brother of R and is neither a hockey player nor a football player.

Based on the given information, who is the Football player in the group?

Answers:

  1. P
  2. Q
  3. R
  4. S

74. A train stops at six different stations on its route. After leaving from the sixth station, it returns to the first station and repeats the cycle. The stations are located in six cities and are named A, B, C, D, E and F. E is the third station and B is the sixth. Station D comes immediately before Station F and Station C comes immediately before Station A. If A is the fifth station, which station among the following should come immediately before Station E?

Answers:

  1. D
  2. F
  3. C
  4. A
  5. B

75. There are five friends: A, B, C, D and E who pursue five different professions: singer, lawyer, doctor, sportsman and chef, not necessarily in the same order. One day, they meet and discuss their respective earnings.

E is earning as much as the singer.
C is earning less than the lawyer.
A is earning less than the doctor.
B is earning more than the chef.
C is earning more than the doctor.
The doctor is earning more than the sportsman.
E is earning more than B.

Based on the above information, what is A’s profession?

Answers:

  1. Singer
  2. Lawyer
  3. Chef
  4. Cannot be determined

76. This question is based on the following series:

aABLJ1238YZM957QRF

Complete the given sequence on the basis of above series.
aL2, AJ3, Y9Q, B1?

Answers:

  1. Z
  2. 3
  3. Y
  4. 8

77. This question is based on the following sequence:

aABLJ1238YZM957QRF

If second half of the sequence is reversed, which character will be at the 4th position from right?

Answers:

  1. L
  2. 7
  3. 9
  4. 1

78. In a class, there are eight students: P, Q, R, S, T, U, V, W.

P is taller than Q, but shorter than R.
Q is shorter than S, but taller than T.
U is shorter than P, but taller than Q.
V is taller than S, but shorter than U.
W is shorter than Q.

Based on the above information, which one of the following is true?

Answers:

  1. U is taller than S.
  2. W is taller than S.
  3. W is the shortest of all.
  4. T is taller than W.

79. Carefully read the given information and answer the following question:

A teacher categorizes the students of a class in five groups: P, Q, R, S and T. She comes up with the following conclusions:

All Ps are Qs.
All Qs Are Rs.
Some Ss are Ps.
All Ss are Qs.
No Ts are Rs.

Which of the following is true?

Answers:

  1. All Rs are Ps.
  2. Some Ts are Qs.
  3. All Ps are Ss.
  4. No Qs are Ts.
  5. Some Ts are Ps.

80. 5 students, A, B, C, D and E took a competitive exam. When their result was declared, the teacher wrote the following information on a piece of paper:

B has scored more than 2 marks.
C has scored more marks in the exam than A and B has scored together.
Marks scored by A are the same as the total marks scored by D and E together.
A has scored more marks than B.
No two people have scored the same marks.

If D scored more marks than B, who scored the lowest marks?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. Data Insufficient

81. Peter places seven marbles in a row according to the following information.

Two marbles are red in color.
Two blue-colored marbles are adjacent to the same red-colored marble.
There is one pink-colored marble.
There are two white-colored marbles but they are not placed adjacent to each other.
One of the red-colored marbles is placed at one end of the row.

If the pink-colored marble is placed at the other end of the row, then the marble of which color will be placed in the center of the row?

Answers:

  1. White
  2. Blue
  3. Red
  4. Either Red or Blue

82. There are six members in a family: C1, C2, C3, C4, C5 and C6. The relation among the family members is such that there are 2 fathers, 1 mother, 1 daughter and 3 brothers. No person in the family is a grandmother to the other family members. Additional information is given as follows:

C3 is the sister of C6.

C2 is the brother of C5’s husband.

C4 is the father of C1 and grandfather of C6.

How many male members are there in the family?

Answers:

  1. 5
  2. 4
  3. 3
  4. 2

83. Two of Veronica’s friends: Shaun and Michael, have their birthday today. Veronica wants to wish them during their free-incoming-calls time-slots, which is 11AM – 1PM according to their respective time-zones. At what time intervals Veronica should make the calls – first to Shaun and then to Michael – so that she is able to talk to them in their free-incoming-calls time-slots. The time-zone of the three are as follows:

Veronica’s time-zone: +11:00 GMT
Shaun’s time-zone: +6:00 GMT
Michael’s time-zone: +09:30 GMT

Answers:

  1. 04:00 PM to 06:00 PM and 12:30 PM to 02:30 PM
  2. 06:00PM to 08:00 PM and 02:30 PM to 04:30 PM
  3. 08:00PM to 10:00 PM and 04:30 PM to 06:30 PM
  4. 02:00 PM to 04:00 PM and 06:30 PM to 08:30 PM

84. This question is based on the following series:

aABLJ1238YZM957QRF

Which letter is at the 5th position from the left of the 9th letter from the right in the given series?

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. L
  3. 9
  4. None of these

85. Count the number of rectangles in the diagram given above.

Answers:

  1. 10
  2. 19
  3. 8
  4. 12
  5. 18

3,256 total views, 14 views today

Upwork Finance and Accounting

PC Graphics Test 2016

Published by:

1 Which of the following is/are basic phases of creating 3-D computer graphics?

Answers:

  1. 3-D modeling
  2. 3-D rendering
  3. Transmogrification
  4. Computer animation

2 Which of the following are common shading models?

Answers:

  1. Cortez
  2. flat
  3. Gouraud
  4. Phong

3 Which of the following statements about pixels are true? (Answer all that apply)

Answers:

  1. A pixel has a dimension
  2. A pixel is a point
  3. Pixels are visible
  4. A pixel can have coordinates

4 Which of the following colors belong to the most common three-color additive color model used in video displays or otherwise used to describe the physical concepts involved?

Answers:

  1. Red
  2. Magenta
  3. Yellow
  4. Green

5 Which of the following is/are typical steps in a graphical pipeline that converts three-dimensional objects for two-dimensional display or printing?

Answers:

  1. Hidden line/hidden surface removal (HLHSR)
  2. Rasterization
  3. Viewport mapping and clipping
  4. Writing to the framebuffer

6 Which of the following colors belong to the standard four-color subtractive color model used in color printing or otherwise used to describe the printing process?

Answers:

  1. Red
  2. Magenta
  3. Yellow
  4. Green

7 Which of the following file formats are popular vector-graphics formats?

Answers:

  1. EPS
  2. XLS
  3. SVG
  4. PDF

8 _________ adds appropriately colored pixels to an image to make it seem as though more colors were present in the original

Answers:

  1. Imposition
  2. Logo
  3. Dithering
  4. Over print

9 What does the term “stroke weight” denote?

Answers:

  1. A term that illustration software uses to specify the thickness of a line when drawing a path
  2. A process where the software adds new pixels to an image based on the color values of the surrounding pixels
  3. A term for the descriptive information embedded inside an image or other type of file
  4. A measurement of the output quality of an image, usually in terms of samples, pixels, dots, or lines per inch

10 The effect that occurs when an object nearer to the viewport in 3-D space blocks (masks) another, more distant object from view is called:

Answers:

  1. Depth
  2. Cueing
  3. Occlusion
  4. Filtering

11 What is meant by the term projection?

Answers:

  1. The process of mapping three dimensional images to two dimensions for display
  2. An interpolation technique used to remove texture distortion, stair casing, or jagged edges at the edges of an object
  3. The part of the graphics engine that draws 3-D primitives, usually triangles or other simple polygons
  4. Wrapping a texture image onto an object to create a realistic representation of the object in 3D space

12 What is meant by the term rigging?

Answers:

  1. A combination of colors that appear to have a stronger impact and highly visible look
  2. The area of the graphics memory used to store the Z or depth information about rendered objects
  3. The process of linking a 3-D object, such as modeling a character, to its bone structure (skeletal animation)
  4. The process of applying a texture to the surface of 3-D models to simulate walls, sky, etc

13 A technique for achieving higher quality in lower-quality images is called __________ It takes advantage of an optical illusion to simulate 24-bit quality with 8-bit or 16-bit images:

Answers:

  1. Dithering
  2. 3-D pipeline
  3. Interpolation
  4. Surface removal

14 Which of the following raster graphics editors used to process digital graphics and photographs is/are open source, instead of being proprietary?

Answers:

  1. Photshop
  2. Paint Shop Pro (PSP)
  3. GIMP
  4. Photoshop Elements

15 Which one of the following graphics standard specifications is the main competitor to Microsoft’s Direct3D (the 3D graphics API within DirectX)?

Answers:

  1. OpenGL
  2. PHIGS
  3. X 11
  4. IRIS GL

16 Which one of the following is a data structure used to organize objects within a space, which can be used in hidden-surface removal and in ray tracing?

Answers:

  1. Patch mesh
  2. Circular buffer
  3. Binary space partitioning (BSP) tree
  4. Hash table

17 What does the term “constraint” imply?

Answers:

  1. A graphics processing technique that simulates transparency or translucency for objects in a 3D scene to create visual effects like smoke, glass, or water
  2. The section of the graphics memory that stores the stencil data
  3. A rule or condition that must be followed regarding how the individual objects within an graphic can or cannot move, such as a wrist having to be attached to both a hand and an end of the lower arm
  4. Memory that is dedicated to the graphics processor and used to store rendered pixels before they are displayed on the monitor

18 What is meant by the term fog?

Answers:

  1. The mixing of an image with a fixed color that thickens as the image’s pixels get further away from the viewpoint
  2. A special type of channel used in graphics software for saving selections
  3. a technique of blending bitmap-based images and text to reduce the stair-stepping or jagged appearance
  4. The relationship of an image’s width to height or its proportions

19 What does the term “jaggies” imply?

Answers:

  1. Image that continues from one page of a publication across the gutter or spine to the facing page
  2. The stair-step effect seen along curves and edges in text or bit-mapped graphics
  3. In halftone screens, a measurement of resolution or detail
  4. A photographic proof made from assembled (stripped) negatives

20 The first procedure in the OpenGL pipeline is to transform a 3-D point that is defined in the object coordinate system into the world coordinate system This step has three possible transformations: rotation, scaling, and translation Which one of those below is typically the correct order for executing these three transformations?

Answers:

  1. First rotation, then translation, and then scaling
  2. First scaling, then rotation, and then translation
  3. First translation, then scaling, and then rotation
  4. First scaling, then translation, and then rotation

21 In computer animation, the entire frame is redrawn for each frame What of the following would reduce flicker between frames?

Answers:

  1. Surface removal
  2. Phong shading
  3. Double buffering
  4. Interpolation

22 Bitmapped graphics are also known as:

Answers:

  1. Vector graphics
  2. Raster graphics
  3. Line work
  4. Ray tracing

23 Select from the following choices the one that most closely completes the Shannon sampling theorem: “The ideal samples of a continuous function contain all the information in the original function if and only if the continuous function is sampled at a frequency ________________ the highest frequency in the function”

Answers:

  1. Equal to
  2. Greater than twice
  3. Greater than one-half
  4. Less than one-half

24 In computer graphics, when a line or object is moved where one end or point stays fixed in position is termed as:

Answers:

  1. Perfect banding
  2. Rubber banding
  3. Print banding
  4. Saddle banding

25 Which of the following best describes the term “vertex-vertex polygon mesh?”

Answers:

  1. A process by which color information is interpolated across the face of the polygon to determine the colors at each pixel
  2. A method of using two buffers, one for display and the other for rendering
  3. The simplest mathematical representation of a mesh, but which is not widely used due to the lack of explicit face and edge information
  4. A method of increasing the quality of a texture map by applying different-resolution texture maps for different objects in the same image, depending on their size and depth

26 Which of the following polygon meshes is most commonly used in mesh modelling because its input data are more readily acceptable to modern hardware?

Answers:

  1. Vertex-vertex mesh
  2. Winged-edge mesh
  3. Vertex-face mesh
  4. Quad-edge mesh

27 Which of the following rotation techniques gives the best results?

Answers:

  1. Euler angles
  2. Axis-angle
  3. 3 by 3 matrix
  4. Quaternions

28 What is meant by the term gradient?

Answers:

  1. A binary representation in which a bit or set of bits corresponds to some part of an object such as an image or font
  2. In computer graphics, a curve that is generated using a mathematical formula which assures continuity with other b-splines
  3. A color (or grayscale) fill that gradually blends from one color to another, perhaps from light to dark, for example
  4. In computer graphics, a technique for simulating rough textures by creating irregularities in shading

29 The serial execution of the processes applied to geometric primitives (text, lines, polygons, curves, and surfaces) in a graphics package to produce two-dimensional output is called its:

Answers:

  1. Execution LIFO stack
  2. Graphical modeling
  3. Transmogrification
  4. Rendering pipeline

30 What does the term “spline” imply?

Answers:

  1. In computer-aided design, a smooth curve that runs through a series of given points
  2. The smallest rectangular region of a picture or a frame buffer for which you can specify unique properties such as color and transparency
  3. Simulating a condition or activity by performing a set of equations on a set of data
  4. An interface that allows for the transfer of a digital video signal from a computer to a display, which increases the image quality and performance over a comparable analog system

31 Another term for the video output device for storing the graphic image as it is being formed and later used for displaying the image is:

Answers:

  1. FIFO stack
  2. Frame buffer
  3. Flash drive
  4. L3 cache

32 A modeling technique based upon a formal grammar whereby complex shapes are recursively generated from relatively simpleprocedures is termed as:

Answers:

  1. Flush right
  2. Graftal
  3. Crossover
  4. Coated stock

33 The process of using an image described in a vector-graphics format and converting it into a bitmapped image as output on a display or printer, or as storage in a bitmapped file is known as

Answers:

  1. Pixelation
  2. Rasterization
  3. Transmogrification
  4. Animation

34 Which one of the color parameters measures how far away the color is from gray?

Answers:

  1. Hue
  2. Saturation
  3. Brightness
  4. Gamut

35 An image rendering process that builds images based upon the propagation of light rays and the effects of absorption, reflection, and refraction associated with the objects being scanned is termed as:

Answers:

  1. Ray tracing
  2. Grommets
  3. Spread
  4. Mask

36 Images based upon geometric elements, such as points, curves, and surfaces, that follow mathematical equations are called:

Answers:

  1. Marques
  2. Vectors
  3. Knock-outs
  4. Halftones

37 Which of the following techniques reduces the appearance of jagged edges of lines and edges in raster graphics?

Answers:

  1. Warnock space subdivision
  2. Depth sort
  3. Gouraud shading
  4. Anti-aliasing

38 What does the term “depth sort” imply?

Answers:

  1. To convert an image or signal into digital code by scanning, tracing on a graphics tablet, or using an analog to digital conversion device
  2. An algorithm for creating a hidden-line drawing of polygon data sets by drawing the polygons from the most distant to the closest, in order
  3. The simulation of a continuous-tone image (shaded drawing, photograph) with dots
  4. In computer graphics, a particular shade or tint of a given color

39 What does the term “bezier” imply?

Answers:

  1. A measurement of printer resolution that defines how many dots of ink are placed on the page when the image is printed
  2. The term that describes one way that illustration software may create curves and shapes by using control points and control handles
  3. Special points placed around an active object that are used to manipulate the object when clicked and dragged with the mouse or other pointing device
  4. A graph that depicts the tonal range of an image

40 In computer graphics, a technique in which irregularities in shading are created for simulating rough textures is called:

Answers:

  1. Cosine mapping
  2. Bump mapping
  3. Bleed mapping
  4. Image mapping

41 When considering illumination from light sources, which of the following types of light sources has the same intensity in all directions:

Answers:

  1. Point source
  2. Spot light
  3. Parallel light
  4. Specular

42 Which of the following is the most commonly used lighting model?

Answers:

  1. Xerxes
  2. Z-buffering
  3. Texture mapping
  4. Phong

43 What does the term “flythrough” imply?

Answers:

  1. A series of mathematical operations that act on output primitives and geometric attributes to convert them from modeling coordinates to device coordinates
  2. A memory buffer used to hold one line of video
  3. Displayed representation of a scene or an object that appears to have three axes of reference: height, width, and depth (x, y, and z)
  4. A type of animation in which the camera moves around a scene, rather than objects moving in front of a stationary camera

44 The number of bits per pixel typically used for the color depth to be described as being a truecolor format is:

Answers:

  1. 4
  2. 16
  3. 24
  4. 36

45 In a 3-D graphics environment, the process of subdividing a surface into a mesh of smaller shapes that are easy to analyze is known as:

Answers:

  1. Anti-aliasing
  2. Tessellation
  3. Blending
  4. Texture mapping

46 Which of the following types of reflection transmits light in all direction with the same energy?

Answers:

  1. Specular
  2. Diffuse
  3. Gloss
  4. Retro reflection

47 The process whereby a specific key color (often blue or green) within an image is made transparent when that image is mixed with another image is known as:

Answers:

  1. Graphic keying
  2. Chroma keying
  3. Shade keying
  4. Scissors keying

48 Which of the following vector graphics editors used to process digital graphics is/are open source, instead of being proprietary?

Answers:

  1. Illustrator
  2. Visio
  3. Flash
  4. Inkscape

49 The rendering of three-dimensional computer graphics often employs one or more approaches to model a complex four-dimensional mathematical function that defines the physical behavior of light at an opaque surface This fundamental radiometric concept is known as the:

Answers:

  1. Kummer’s function
  2. Reisz function
  3. Bidirectional reflectance distribution function (BRDF)
  4. Mittag-Leffler function

50 Which of the following graphic formats allow for animation?

Answers:

  1. GIF
  2. JPEG
  3. TIFF
  4. PNG

51 A process in 2-D computer graphics whereby a closed vector path is used to mask (block) parts of an image is known as:

Answers:

  1. Double path
  2. Palletized path
  3. Keying path
  4. Clipping path

52 What is meant by the term auto trace?

Answers:

  1. A part of off-screen memory that holds the distance from the viewpoint for each pixel, the Z-value
  2. A programmed function in illustration software that converts raster graphics into vector graphics whereby paths are created along the edges of a scanned image
  3. A process of removing hidden surfaces by sorting polygons in back-to-front order prior to rendering
  4. Areas in an image with a blocky or blotchy appearance

53 Which one of the following formats would provide the least amount of pixelation when its dimensions are scaled (magnified) in size?

Answers:

  1. JPEG
  2. TIFF
  3. PNG
    EPS

54 What is meant by the term crop?

Answers:

  1. In proportional spacing, the tightening of space between letters to create a visually appealing flow to the text
  2. The analysis of a picture using techniques that can identify shades, colors, and relationships that cannot be perceived by the human eye
  3. Changing or improving graphics images, either interactively using a paint program or by using software routines that alter contrast, smooth lines, or filter out unwanted data
  4. Trimming or masking of photos, graphics, drawings, or illustrations

55 What is meant by the term stroke?

Answers:

  1. A reddish brown monochrome tint that gives the picture a warm, antique feeling
  2. A term that illustration software uses to describe the width of a line in a path
  3. A photograph whose edges fade out gradually
  4. Copying a block of pixels from one place to another

56 Which of the following graphical formats is/are always low-resolution (8-bit) bitmap graphics?

Answers:

  1. JPEG
  2. GIF
  3. TIFF
  4. SVG

57 The vector-graphics package that was developed by Microsoft is:

Answers:

  1. Draw
  2. Inkscape
  3. Illustrator
  4. Visio

1,431 total views, 2 views today

Upwork Graphics Designing

Knowledge of Vectorworks 2010 Skills Test 2016

Published by:

1. What is the filename extension of files saved in Vectorworks Fundamentals?

Answers:

  1. .vwx
  2. .mcc
  3. .mcd
  4. .mcl

2. What instructs Vectorworks to automatically create certain classes (from a predefined list) while creating certain objects?

Answers:

  1. Grids
  2. Auto-Classing
  3. Document Preferences
  4. Classes

3. What options are present in the Design Layers tab of the organizational dialog box?

Answers:

  1. Spatial attributes
  2. Visibility attributes
  3. Stacking order attribute
  4. All of the Above

4. What is the result when we change the class property of an object to Geometry Ref and setting the same to invisible?

Answers:

  1. It specifies the start point of the vertex.
  2. It hides some of the construction lines.
  3. It preserves the construction geometry.
  4. It draws a multi-segment polyline.

5. When we import any external document on to a design layer, will it contain the same classes and settings as the original document?

Answers:

  1. Yes
  2. No

6. Except Vectorworks Renderworks, You will only be able to apply solid colors to 3D objects?

Answers:

  1. Yes
  2. No

7. What is Parasolid with regards to Vectorworks Architect?

Answers:

  1. 3D modeling automation
  2. 3D modeling capability
  3. Architectural 3D modeling
  4. 3D modeling kernel

8. Sheet layer viewports are individual 2D live camera view objects that reside on sheet layers, but display 2D and 3D drawing objects on design layers.

Answers:

  1. Yes
  2. No

9. What is the most appropriate way to get the patterns of ovals in the given picture?

Answers:

  1. Copy and Paste
  2. Mirror Objects
  3. Duplicate Array
  4. None of the Above

10. What is used as spatial containers for creating drawing objects and/or to control object stacking order?

Answers:

  1. Sheet Layers
  2. Design Layers
  3. Spatial attributes
  4. Stacking order attribute

11. Is it possible to import .3ds files with Vectorworks along with additional symbol libraries?

Answers:

  1. Yes
  2. No

12. Edit Skyline option creates a skyline_______________.

Answers:

  1. with Window 3D Symbol
  2. without Window 3D Symbol
  3. with Hollow Cutout
  4. with Dashed Outline

13. What are Hybrids?

Answers:

  1. Objects that behave both as 2D and 3D.
  2. Objects that behave as 2D.
  3. Objects that behave as 3D.
  4. Objects that behave neither as 2D nor as 3D.

14. What do Shell Solid Tool and Extract tool do?

Answers:

  1. Smooth the edges and trim the shapes.
  2. Hollow the box and extract the curves from solids.
  3. Move the position along particular axis and insert the light source.
  4. Create the surface from one end to second and convert the solids to curves.

15. Dormer and Skylight are the part of roof element option.

Answers:

  1. Yes
  2. No

16. How can you check the length and angle of any selected line?

Answers:

  1. By clicking on Polar Coordinates Button
  2. By clicking on Cartesian Coordinates Button
  3. Pressing Circular Constraint Indicator Tab
  4. Both a and b

17. What all formats are compatible with Vectorworks?

Answers:

  1. DWG
  2. IGES
  3. EPS
  4. All of the Above

18. The Organization dialog box provides single-point viewing, creation, and modification control of drawing structure elements in Vectorworks Fundamentals.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

19. What happens if the checkbox against Create Slab Layers in the Model Setup dialog box is checked?

Answers:

  1. It creates some unnecessary layers.
  2. It results into graphical representation of creating layers with right height.
  3. It generates some information for design layer and sheet layer.
  4. It does not affect anything.

20. What are the minimum criteria required to call any product a BIM Product?

Answers:

  1. Parametrically-defined interacting building objects
  2. Simultaneous 2D/3D/parametric viewing & editing
  3. Integrated reporting of non-graphical data
  4. All of the Above

21. What is being used to record the drawing sets when released, who released them and to whom they went?

Answers:

  1. Notes Management
  2. Context-Sensitive Help
  3. Issue Manager
  4. All of the Above

22. Where can you find the Stipple tool?

Answers:

  1. In the Dims/Notes palette.
  2. In the Attribute palette.
  3. In the Constraints palette.
  4. In the Color palette.

23. What is the role of Clustering options?

Answers:

  1. To create plants in pairs.
  2. To create planting points and layouts.
  3. To create planting beds.
  4. To replace the plant with the existing one.

24. What is name of the given Palette?

Answers:

  1. Navigation Palette
  2. Color Palette library
  3. Constraints Palette
  4. Object Info Palette

25. What are the names of the tools in the given images respectively?

a.Standard Insertion Mode
b.2D Symbol Insertion
c.Align Actual Insertion Point Mode
d.Wall Insertion Mode?

Answers:

  1. a,b,c,d
  2. c,d,b,a
  3. d,c,a,b
  4. b,d,c,a

26. Sheet Layers are not used as a 2D-only page layout environment for printing.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

27. What is AutoPlot?

Answers:

  1. It is a Custom Tool
  2. It is set of macro commands
  3. It is a mailing list link
  4. None of Above

28. Viewports can be ________________ to any shape and have the ability to be _______________ separately, which makes creating detailed or enlarged plan views a very simple and straight-forward process.

Answers:

  1. projected; scaled
  2. adapted; rendered
  3. modified; rendered
  4. cropped; annotated

29. Classes are primarily used to control display properties and __________________.

Answers:

  1. spatial attributes.
  2. display order.
  3. visibility of drawing objects.
  4. None of the above.

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