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Upwork Miscellaneous Certifications

Data Sufficiency Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which one of the following operations does the operator # represent: addition, subtraction, multiplication or division?

(1)For all S, 10 # S = S # 10
(2)For all S, 10S # 3S = 30S2

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

2. How is Mary related to Jack?
1)Peter, the husband of Mary’s only sister Rosy is a doctor.

2)Jack is Peter’s sister-in-law’s husband.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

3. In the figure above, is PQ parallel to RS?
1)Angle PRS and angle QSR are equal.

2)PR = QS

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

4. In a fair, a lady bought a purse and a pair of sandals. Which item did she buy at a lower price?

1)The lady bought the purse at a 15% discount.
2)She bought the sandals at a 25% discount.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

5. Does Peter have more coins in his pocket than Sam?

1)Mary has more coins in her pocket than Sam.
2)Peter has less coins in his pocket than Mary.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

6. What is the value of A, if A and B are two distinct integers and their difference is 50?

1)A is an even integer.
2)A < B

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

7. Which employee got a bigger salary raise in absolute terms?

1)Jack got a 10% raise.
2)Mark got a 25% raise.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

8. If the average of the marks obtained by three students of a class is 75, are the minimum marks obtained less than 50?

1)The highest marks obtained are 90.
2)One student has scored more than 75 marks.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

9. If x and y are both positive integers, how much greater is x than y?

Statement (1): x + y = 20
Statement (2): x = y2

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement is sufficient by itself to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

10. What is the area of the circle?

1)The radius of the circle is 5.
2)The circumference of the circle is 5π.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

11. Students in a school speak only English or only French or both the languages. How many students speak only English?

1)1/5th of the students in the school speak both English and French.
2)200 students in the school speak only French.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

12. Is w an integer?

1)3w is an odd number.
2)2w is an even number.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

13. Suppose 7A + 8B = 11. What is the value of B?

1)A is prime.
2)B = -5A

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

14. Is P > 0?

Statement (1): P2 > 0
Statement (2): P3 > 0

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

15. Which company reported to be the largest exporter of cotton in the year 2002?

1)Company A reported that its cotton consumption in the year 2002 increased by 10%.
2)Company B reported that its cotton consumption in the year 2002 increased by 20%.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

16. If p and q do not equal 0, is p/q an integer?

1)p is prime.
2)q is even.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

17. In the figure above, what is the value of AC?

1)Angle CBA = 900
2)CB + BA = 14

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

18. What is the value of x?

1)x2=4
2)x<0

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

19. What is the duration of the solar eclipse?

1)A solar eclipse begins at 10:00 a.m. on Monday and ends at 10:00 a.m. on Sunday.
2)The solar eclipse is 6 days long.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

20. What was the percentage decrease of a company’s production between 1st December and 31st December 2008?

1)The production reduced by $2000 in value during December 2008.
2)The production reduced by 15% from 2nd December 2008 to 20th December 2008.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

21. What is the value of P?

1)P2 – 1 = 0
2)P = (10)0

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

22. What is the fifth term in the sequence S?

1)The seventh term of S is 5.
2)The sixth term of S is four times the fifth, and the seventh term is eight times the sixth.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

23. Three persons have a combined weight of 500 pounds. What is the weight of the heaviest person?

1)One person weighs 150 pounds.
2)One person weighs 250 pounds.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

24. What percentage of the items inspected in a unit are defective?

(1)The total production of items in the unit is 300.
(2)The ratio of the defective items to the non defective items is 12:35.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

25. How many marbles are kept in a container?

1)If 5 marbles are taken out from the container, the number of marbles remaining in the container will be less than 15.
2)If 8 more marbles are put into the container, the total number of marbles in the container will rise to more than 20.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

26. What is the value of P?

1. P + 20 = 100
2. P3 = 45

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

27. In the triangle ABD, BD is a straight line. What is the measure of angle CAB?

1)x = 800
2)y = 400

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

28. What is the value of 3×2 + 2x – 1?

1) x2 + 2x = 0
2) x = -2

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

29. How many cows in a herd of 50 cattle are black?

1)There are 12 oxen in the herd.
2)Forty two percent of the animals are black.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

30. What is the value of even integers?

(1)3 < a < 21
(2)3√a is also an even integer.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

31. If P is a positive number, what is 30% of P?

(1)50% of (50 / P) is less than 10.
(2)10% of (50 x P) is 225.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

32. Is xy > 0 ?

1)x/y < 0
2)x + y < 0

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

33. If P is a cube of an integer and is between 5 and 100, what is the value of P?

1)P is odd.
2)P is the square of an integer.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

34. What is the sum of A, B and C?

(1)A, B and C are odd numbers.
(2)The average of A, B and C is 5.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

35. Is A greater than 0?

1)A3 is less than 0.
2)10A = -10

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

36. How many people in a city go to the office by car?

1)The total population of the city is 125000.
2)The total number of people going to the office by bus and train is1/3rd of the total population.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

37. Is a > b?

1)a/3 > b/3
2)-a + c < -b + c

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

38. Is the product of A and B smaller than 100?

1)The sum of A and B is smaller than 100.
2)Both the numbers are smaller than 10.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

39. What is the area of the square ABCD?

1)AB=10 yards
2)Diagonal BD = √128

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

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Upwork Miscellaneous Certifications

Data Interpretation Test 2016

Published by:

1. The table above shows the number of stationery items used by different sections of a class over a period of time.

What is the ratio of pens used by the last three sections of the class to the pens used by the first three sections of the class?

Answers:

  1. 15:22
  2. 13:24
  3. 16:25
  4. 14:23

2. What is the difference between the market shares of BMW and Ferrari, if the total market share of cars is $200 million?

Answers:

  1. $76 million
  2. 20%
  3. $4 million
  4. 80%
  5. 82%

3. If the total market share of cars is $200 million, what is the contribution of Ford?

 

Answers:

  1. $50 million
  2. $48 million
  3. $49 million
  4. $51 million

4. What is the difference between the market shares of BMW and Ferrari?

Answers:

  1. $76 million
  2. 20%
  3. $4 million
  4. 80%
  5. 82%

5. If a Ford car is 20% costlier than a BMW car, then which of the two cars has the greater volume sale of the cars?

Answers:

  1. Ford
  2. BMW
  3. Volume sale of both the cars is equal.
  4. Cannot be determined.

6. The table above shows the production for three types of fruit over a four month period. Use this information to answer the following question.What is the percentage of mangoes produced in four months?

Answers:

  1. 31.11%
  2. 41.11%
  3. 51.11%
  4. 21.11%

7. The table above shows the production for three types of fruit over a four month period. Use this information to answer the following question.

What is the ratio of the production of oranges to mangoes produced in the four months?

Answers:

  1. 31:28
  2. 28:31
  3. 27:23
  4. 23:27
  5. 30:31

8. The table above shows the production of three types of fruit over a four month period. Use this information to answer the following question.

Which month shows the maximum increase in total production of all three fruits over the production of all the three fruits produced in the previous month?

Answers:

  1. January
  2. February
  3. March
  4. April

9. In an organization, there are three departments: Production, Accounts and Sales. The above graph shows numerical data of the number of absent workers for the months January till May, for the respective departments.

The total numbers of workers in the three departments (Production, Accounts and Sales) are 70, 20 and 50 respectively.

Which department has the highest absenteeism in the month of May?

Answers:

  1. Accounts
  2. Production
  3. Sales

10. The graph depicts the impact of giving three different grades of salary on the absenteeism of workers from three different departments in an organization.

What was the percentage increase in the absenteeism of workers in the production department from February to May?

Answers:

  1. 50%
  2. 33.33%
  3. 40%
  4. 45.33%
  5. 75%

11. The two pie charts depict the percentage of various types of schools constructed over a period of five years.
If 150 more schools of Type-A are constructed in year 2005, what will be the percentage of Type-A schools?

Answers:

  1. 33.33%
  2. 55.00%
  3. 40.00%
  4. 30.33%

12. The graph depicts the number of politicians in a country over the given years along with their ages.

What was the percentage increase in the number of politicians between 30-40 years of age from 2001 to 2003?

Answers:

  1. 23.3%
  2. 33.3%
  3. 35%
  4. 30%

13. The graph depicts the number of politicians in a country over the given years with respect to their ages.

What is the difference in the ratio of all candidates in the year from 2002 to 2003 collectively and year from 2000 to 2001 collectively?

Answers:

  1. 0.22
  2. 0.38
  3. 0.15
  4. 0.42

14. The graph depicts the marks scored by girls and boys in a class.

What is the percentage increase in the marks obtained by both boys and girls from July to August?

Answers:

  1. 50%
  2. 45%
  3. 30%
  4. 25%

15. The graph depicts the marks scored by girls and boys in a class.

Calculate the difference between the total marks obtained by boys and girls in October and the average marks obtained by boys in all the 6 months?

Answers:

  1. 20
  2. 30
  3. 40
  4. 50

16. The graph depicts the yearly production of rice in a country.

By what percentage did the production of rice increase in the last four years as compared to the production in the first four years?

Answers:

  1. 22%
  2. 33%
  3. 40%
  4. 50%

17. The graph depicts the yearly production of rice in a country.

Calculate the maximum increase in the production of rice (in tons) as compared to the previous year among all of the above given years?

Answers:

  1. 20 tons
  2. 25 tons
  3. 30 tons
  4. 35 tons

18. The graph depicts the yearly production of rice in a country.

What is the ratio of the combined production in the year 2000-2001 over the combined production in the year 1997-1998?

Answers:

  1. 11/12
  2. 13/14
  3. 17/22
  4. 19/23

19. The graph depicts the number of sales made by a bank in a particular week. Study the given information and answer the following question correctly.

During which day in the week was the increase in sales minimum over the previous day?
Answers:

  1. Tuesday
  2. Friday
  3. Sunday
  4. Monday
  5. Saturday

20. The graph depicts the number of sales made by a bank in a particular week. Study the given information and answer the following question correctly.

What is the ratio of the average sales achieved between Monday and Thursday to the average sales between Friday and Sunday?

Answers:

  1. 3:4
  2. 5:6
  3. 7:8
  4. 11:12

21. The table above shows the number of stationery items used by different sections of a class over a period of time.In which section was the increase in the use of pencils over the preceding section maximum?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. E

22. The table above shows the number of stationery items used by different sections of a class over a period of time.Which section among the following is the third highest user of erasers in terms of percentage, calculated individually for each section?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. E

23. During which of the following months does the loss of revenue by Unit-B trail the loss of revenue by Unit-A by 25%?

Answers:

  1. February
  2. March
  3. April

24. What is the average monthly loss of revenue suffered by Unit-A and Unit-B, taken together in the months during which the loss of revenue suffered by Unit-C was more than $1000 but less than $3000?

Answers:

  1. $5000
  2. $9000
  3. $4500
  4. $6000

25. What is the total number of defective samples of Type-P and Type-S during the year 2005?

Answers:

  1. 8
  2. 9
  3. 10
  4. 11
  5. 12

26. What is the ratio of the average number of items inspected of Item-P and Item-T in all the years given above?

Answers:

  1. 73:42
  2. 67:40
  3. 57:29
  4. 63:37
  5. 61:35

27. During the year 1990, what percentage of houses was constructed in City-B, out of the total houses constructed during that year?

Answers:

  1. 8%
  2. 10%
  3. 12%
  4. 15%
  5. 18%

28. What was the percentage increase in the construction of houses in all the cities from 1991 to 1993?

Answers:

  1. 25.42%
  2. 34.24%
  3. 30.55%
  4. 28.45%

29. What is the ratio of the production of Unit-5 on Thursday to the total production of all units on Sunday?

Answers:

  1. 20:85
  2. 20:91
  3. 21:87
  4. 21:95

30. On which day does unit two make 28% contribution to the total production on that day?

Answers:

  1. Thursday
  2. Saturday
  3. Monday
  4. Wednesday

31. What is the percentage increase in the sales target achieved in the year 2007 over that achieved in the year 2006?

Answers:

  1. 15.43%
  2. 22.75%
  3. 32.65%
  4. 42.75%

32. In which year was the total target achieved by the accounts department, the sales department and the production department minimum in terms of percentage?

Answers:

  1. 2004
  2. 2005
  3. 2006
  4. 2007

33. By how much is the percentage increase in the fare for carrying more than ten pounds of luggage in a taxi higher than that for carrying it in a bus?

Answers:

  1. 90%
  2. 120%
  3. 150%
  4. 175%

34. What is the ratio of the transport fares of an aero-plane to those of a taxi for carrying a cargo weighing 9 pounds?

Answers:

  1. 1:3
  2. 5:2
  3. 1:5
  4. 5:1

35. The diagram represents the speed of four vehicles at four different points hat is the ratio of speed of car at Point-C to the total speed of bus at all four points?

Answers:

  1. 6/19
  2. 5/18
  3. 7/19
  4. 4/17

36. In an organization, there are 100 male members but no female members. If 25 male members are replaced by 25 female members, what will be the ratio of the male members to the female members in the organization?

Answers:

  1. 3:1
  2. 3:2
  3. 4:1
  4. 2:1

1,413 total views, 5 views today

Upwork Miscellaneous Certifications

Civil Engineering Test 2016

Published by:

1. In a joint, the number of rivets required is calculated by using the formula ____________.

Answers:

  1. force / bearing strength of rivet
  2. force – bearing strength of rivet
  3. force / rivet value
  4. force – rivet value

2. The volume of a specimen of soil is 20 cubic centimeters and its weight is 50 grams. Calculate the volumetric shrinkage if the volume of dry specimen is 10 cubic centimeters.

Answers:

  1. 40%
  2. 70%
  3. 90%
  4. 100%

3. Which grade of brick can withstand below freezing temperatures in moist climate?

Answers:

  1. Grade SW
  2. Grade MW
  3. Grade NW

4. Which type of surveying method is used to ascertain the quantities of dredged material?

Answers:

  1. Topographic surveying method
  2. Transit surveying method
  3. Route surveying method
  4. Hydrographic surveying method

5. __________ is used/done to check the strength of the concrete by virtue of the sound it makes.

Answers:

  1. Le chatelier apparatus
  2. Compression test
  3. Shores test
  4. Vicat apparatus
  5. Sieve analysis

6. __________ is a line which joins subsidiary stations with the main line.

Answers:

  1. Base line
  2. Power line
  3. Tie line
  4. Auxiliary line

7. ____________ when water is added to the cement.

Answers:

  1. Heat is absorbed
  2. Heat is generated
  3. All impurities are washed out

8. __________ is the portion of a wall which is used to support an arch.

Answers:

  1. Lintel
  2. Jamb
  3. Abutment
  4. Foot back

9. The most effective method of curing of concrete is :

Answers:

  1. ponding method.
  2. covering the concrete with moist cloth.
  3. honey combining method.
  4. covering the concrete with moist sand.

10. Which type of joint is used to make wooden floors?

Answers:

  1. Lap joint
  2. Tongue & Groove joint
  3. Dovetail joint

11. ___________ is the branch of hydrology which deals with the moisture content in the soil.

Answers:

  1. Geohydrology
  2. Potamology
  3. Pedohydrology
  4. Limnology

12. The beams which support the stair steps are known as:

Answers:

  1. headers
  2. jointers
  3. girts
  4. stringers
  5. spandrels

13. Which of the following equipments are used for distance measurement.

Answers:

  1. Geodimeter
  2. Tellurometer
  3. Theodolite
  4. Planimeter

14. Which form of lime among the following hardens due to the absorption of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

Answers:

  1. Lump lime
  2. Quick lime
  3. Fat lime
  4. Hydraulic lime
  5. Hydrated lime

15. Which type of cement among the following is capable of withstanding high temperatures?

Answers:

  1. Refractory cement
  2. Super sulfated cement
  3. Expanding cement
  4. Rapid hardening cement

16. The _________ helps in reducing the shrinkage of concrete.

Answers:

  1. reduction in temperature
  2. sand content of the mixture
  3. water content of the mixture
  4. cement in the mixture

17. ___________ is the extension of the wall above the roof level.

Answers:

  1. Retaining wall
  2. Post wall
  3. Chock wall
  4. Parapet wall

18. The strap efficiency of a reservoir is a function of:

Answers:

  1. Reservoir capacity / total inflow
  2. Reservoir capacity – total inflow
  3. Reservoir capacity + total inflow
  4. Total inflow / reservoir capacity

19. In a constant head parameter test of 5 minutes duration, the quantity of water collected is 450 milliliters. Calculate the discharge per unit time.

Answers:

  1. 1 milliliter per second
  2. 2 milliliters per second
  3. 1.5 milliliters per second
  4. 2.5 milliliters per second

20. The slenderness ratio of a compression structural member is :

Answers:

  1. moment of inertia – actual length
  2. effective length – least radius of gyration
  3. effective length / least radius of gyration
  4. moment of inertia / actual length

21. The re-designing of an RC beam is usually done when its shear stress exceeds _________.

Answers:

  1. 10 kilograms per square centimeter
  2. 20 kilograms per square centimeter
  3. 30 kilograms per square centimeter
  4. 40 kilograms per square centimeter

1,382 total views, 2 views today

Upwork Miscellaneous Certifications

Business Writing Skills Certification 2016

Published by:

1. To keep emails sounding friendly, you should use contractions.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

2. What is a “dateline” in a press release?

Answers:

  1. A separate line that includes the date you wrote the press release
  2. A line at the beginning of the press release that includes the city you are based in and the date of the press release
  3. It’s another word for a caption on a picture you might include in the press release
  4. The city you are based in

3. How long should your memo be?

Answers:

  1. Ideally, no longer than 1 page
  2. 2-3 pages is standard
  3. Just one or two paragraphs
  4. As long as you need it to be

4. In business writing you should try to use gender neutral terms as often as possible.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

5. What should you always include when writing a business email?

Answers:

  1. Date
  2. Long list of recipients
  3. Salutation
  4. Signature

6. Ideally, how long should your resume be?

Answers:

  1. 2 pages
  2. 1 page
  3. As long as it needs to be
  4. Less than one page if possible

7. Never consider your resume to be _____.

Answers:

  1. A foot in the door
  2. Akin to a phone call
  3. A job application
  4. Complete

8. What piece of information should you always include in a resume, a thing which job seekers often forget?

Answers:

  1. A job objective
  2. Your email
  3. Your cell phone number
  4. The best time to reach you

9. When you write a press release, you should think like what?

Answers:

  1. A public relations person
  2. A journalist
  3. A CEO so you sound dignified and intelligent
  4. Yourself

10. You should always include a date by which you want a reply in a fundraising letter.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

11. What one thing is more important than all others when writing for business?

Answers:

  1. Proofreading your work
  2. Writing specifically to your reader
  3. Having perfect grammar and spelling
  4. Knowing how to “sell” through your words

12. Which of the following is the best use of active verbs?

Answers:

  1. We tried to get the best deal
  2. We will try to get the best deal
  3. We sure tried to get the best deal
  4. We should try to get the best deal

13. In what kind of business letter should you include a catchy headline?

Answers:

  1. Fundraising letter
  2. Complaint letter
  3. Sales letter
  4. “Seal a deal” letter

14. In the rough draft of your business report, you shouldn’t worry about what?

Answers:

  1. How strong your voice is throughout
  2. Spelling and grammar
  3. Your facts
  4. Who your audience might be

15. What does “PAR” stand for?

Answers:

  1. Problem-action-results
  2. Problem-activity-re-do
  3. Participation-achieves-results
  4. Problems-about-results

16. It’s perfectly OK to mix fonts and point sizes when writing a sales letter.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

17. A mailing list for email is almost always preferable to sending an email to each person individually.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

18. When is it appropriate to send lewd jokes or pictures in a business email?

Answers:

  1. Never
  2. When you know your office atmosphere encourages it
  3. When it’s sent to you from someone in the office, then it’s OK to forward it on
  4. Always, if your boss approves

19. It’s perfectly acceptable to have more than one resume, each targeted to different kinds of jobs you are looking for.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False
  3. 20. Which of the following is NOT a way in which a job objective is useful?

Answers:

  1. It helps human resources workers appropriately direct your resume.
  2. You tell your potential employer which job you are best suited for
  3. You get a chance to highlight your relevant experience and training
  4. You have a chance to present yourself as capable, confident and employable

21. What should be your “voice” in a business letter?

Answers:

  1. First person
  2. Third person
  3. There should not be a discernible voice
  4. Angry

22. What should you do if you are asked to include your opinion or interpretation in a business report?

Answers:

  1. Refuse
  2. Include it in a separate section right after the table of contents or executive summary
  3. Keep that part separate from the main body of the report
  4. Leave it out; your opinion doesn’t matter

23. If your memo is very long, you should include what?

Answers:

  1. A table of contents
  2. A summary at the bottom of the memo
  3. A second page
  4. An elevator summary at the top

24. A business memo should always start how?

Answers:

  1. The date
  2. With pertinent business right at the top
  3. A greeting or salutation
  4. With a little introductory paragraph

25. What are you appealing to while writing a fundraising letter?

Answers:

  1. Your recipient’s wallet
  2. Your recipient’s charitable spirit
  3. The bottom line
  4. The heart

26. What is a comma splice?

Answers:

  1. When you place a comma where a semicolon or period should be
  2. When you place a comma in the wrong place, between a verb and noun, for example
  3. When you use a semicolon where a comma should be
  4. When you don’t use a comma at all when one clearly should be used

27. What kind of letter does not follow a standard business letter format?

Answers:

  1. Fundraising letter
  2. Sales letter
  3. Complaint letter
  4. Any letter to a customer or client

28. Under no circumstances should you fire someone in email.
Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

29. In the block business letter format, all writing is flush left, even your return address information.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

30. What is the best approach while including an attachment with your email?

Answers:

  1. Keep it short, under 2 pages
  2. Inform the reader in the body of the email that you are including an attachment
  3. Make sure it’s in Word or other format everyone can read
  4. Send it in a separate email

31. Memos can save ____

Answers:

  1. Money
  2. Aggravation and unhappiness in an office
  3. Time spent going to meetings
  4. On postage

32. Where does a memo rank in formality?

Answers:

  1. Memos should always be formal and professional
  2. Memos are always the least formal of all business writing
  3. More formal than a business letter
  4. Less formal than a business letter but more formal than an email

33. In the first complaint letter you write (and you might end up writing more than one on the same topic), what should you keep out of it?

Answers:

  1. A suggestion as to how you want to be compensated for your loss, trouble, etc.
  2. Anger and frustration
  3. Supporting details.
  4. Any personal information

34. You should always sign your business memos.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

35. “He ran.” is considered a complete sentence.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

36. Which of these is an optional item to include in a business report?

Answers:

  1. Title page
  2. Table of contents
  3. Appendices
  4. References

37. Why should you always send your emails in text format?

Answers:

  1. It’s easier and faster for you
  2. It looks more professional
  3. Some people don’t like html formats
  4. Some email programs “read” html formatted emails differently

38. What should you avoid when sending emails to a group of people on a mailing list?

Answers:

  1. A very long email
  2. Discussion of personal issues
  3. Attachments
  4. Addressing anyone by name

39. What one action should you perform again and again when writing for business?

Answers:

  1. Good quality research
  2. Let others read your writing
  3. Proofread
  4. Say “thank you” many times

40. It’s never appropriate to use the body of an email as your cover letter.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

41. What is an elevator summary when referring to email?

Answers:

  1. A brief, one-line summary of the basic facts
  2. A small box you create in the text of the email to give the facts
  3. It’s a summary of the email – basically the amount of information you’d be able to give someone during a ride in an elevator
  4. A bulleted list that moves through the email

42. You should always keep your verbs in the _____ tense.

Answers:

  1. Same
  2. Present
  3. Past
  4. Determined

43. A run-on sentence is always incorrect.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

44. You should always try to read your writing out loud if you can.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

45. Which is the most popular format for business letters?

Answers:

  1. Block
  2. Indent
  3. Summary format
  4. Attached

1,082 total views, 5 views today

Upwork Microsoft Technologies

Visual Basic Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which of the following is the valid stepping option?

Answers:

  1. Step Around
  2. Step Beyond
  3. Step Over
  4. Step Behind
  5. Step forward
  6. Step Into
  7. Step Out

2. Which of the following procedure types will execute when you assign a value to a property of an object?

Answers:

  1. Property Get
  2. Property Assign
  3. Property Let
  4. Property Set
  5. Public Sub

3. Which line of code listed here can be used to create a string of fixed length:

Answers:

  1. Dim strFirstName as String
  2. strFirstName * 255
  3. strFirstName = 255
  4. Dim strFirstName as String(255)
  5. None of the above

4. Which event of an ActiveX control data provider runs every time a bound control extracts data through the provider?

Answers:

  1. GetDataMember
  2. GetDataField
  3. GetDataProperty
  4. GetDataRow
  5. GetData
  6. GetFields
  7. GetRows
  8. RetrieveData

5. Which property of the Err object returns the numeric value associated with the most recent runtime error?

Answers:

  1. Description
  2. No
  3. Number
  4. Source
  5. Errorcode
  6. Num
  7. Code

6. Which function or method will you use to get a count of the maximum index limit of an array?

Answers:

  1. UBound function
  2. LBound function
  3. Substr function
  4. Bound Control method
  5. Limit method
  6. UpperLimit method
  7. Upper method
  8. MaxArray function

7. Which is the only event of the timer control?

Answers:

Timer

  1. TimeElapsed
  2. TimeOver
  3. Reset
  4. TimeOut
  5. Restart
  6. Freeze
  7. Stop

8. What you must do before you make calls to an ActiveX DLL project in the same Project Group?

Answers:

  1. Compile the DLL
  2. Check the DLL off in your project’s Reference List
  3. Make sure the DLL is the Startup Project
  4. Ensure that a Standard Exe form is included and is made the Startup Form.

9. The _______ property changes the tab order at runtime:

Answers:

  1. Tab stop
  2. Tab key
  3. Tab order
  4. Tab index

10. Message Boxes can hold a maximum of _______ characters.

Answers:

  1. 256
  2. 512
  3. 1024
  4. 2046
  5. 4092
  6. 5000
  7. 10000
  8. No limit

11. Procedures declared in a _____ are local whereas procedures declared in a ______ are available to the whole application.

Answers:

  1. Form window, standard or code module
  2. Project window, view code window
  3. Class module, code module

12. To store pictures in an array, Visual Basic provides the _____ control.

Answers:

  1. PictureClip
  2. ImageList
  3. PictureBox
  4. Image Box
  5. Timer Control
  6. ListView
  7. Common Dialog
  8. DataGrid

13. Which of the following situations would not cause the Initialize event of an ActiveX control to occur?

Answers:

When a control is placed on a form at design time

  1. When a form designer containing a control is closed
  2. When a form is run
  3. When a compiled application containing a control executes
  4. When an application terminates and re-enters design-time for the host application

14. The settings for the Color properties in Visual Basic are indicated by:

Answers:

  1. Decimal Coding
  2. Octal Coding
  3. Hexadecimal Coding
  4. Binary Coding

15. You want to display the code and the description of an error. What would be the correct syntax?

Answers:

  1. Msgbox err.no & err.text
  2. Msgbox err.number & err.text
  3. Msgbox error.number & error.text
  4. Msgbox error.number & error.description
  5. Msgbox err.number & err.description
  6. Msgbox err.num & err.description
  7. Msgbox err.num & err.text
  8. None of the above

16. The Load & Activate events are associated with:

Answers:

  1. All controls
  2. Form
  3. Command button
  4. Image box
  5. TreeView control
  6. ListView control
  7. DataGrid
  8. ComboBox

17. How do you create a read only property in a form?

Answers:

  1. Create only a Property Set procedure
  2. Create only a Property Get procedure
  3. Create only a Property Let procedure
  4. Create both a Property Get and Property Let procedure
  5. Declare a public variable in the Declarations section of the form
  6. Declare a private variable in the Declarations section of the form
  7. Create both a Property Get and Property Set procedure

18. In Visual Basic, which method can you use to send key strokes to other Window applications?

Answers:

  1. AppActivate
  2. SendKeys
  3. Copying the contents from the ClipBoard & pasting
  4. Manually typing in the other application’s Window
  5. 19. Which of the following will provide the best aggregate performance for a query that is not executed repeatedly?

Answers:

  1. Direct execution
  2. Stored procedures
  3. Prepared statements
  4. Data Environment
  5. ADO Data Control

20. Which of the following is an event of the Shape control?

Answers:

  1. GotFocus
  2. LostFocus
  3. Validate
  4. KeyPress
  5. A shape control does not have events

21. Labels do not respond to _____ and ______ events.

Answers:

  1. Got_Focus , Lost_Focus
  2. Click , DblClick
  3. Dragdrop , OLECompleteDrag
  4. Change, Link Error

22. The ____ function returns the numeric value from a string expression:

Answers:

  1. Val
  2. CStr
  3. Round
  4. Int
  5. Num

23. Which of the following tools can be used to change the value of a variable or property during break mode of an application?

Answers:

  1. Watch window
  2. Immediate window
  3. Callstack
  4. Locals window
  5. Debug object

24. What data type is the HelpContextID?

Answers:

  1. String
  2. Integer
  3. Single
  4. Double
  5. Long
  6. Char
  7. Float

25. The Kill command in Visual Basic is used for:

Answers:

  1. Stopping the current process
  2. Deleting files
  3. Terminating the application
  4. Stopping the current thread
  5. Debugging the application
  6. Error handling
  7. None of the above

26. A prepared statement is:

Answers:

  1. Query text cached on the client
  2. Query text cached on the server
  3. Compiled query cached on the client
  4. Compiled query cached on the server
  5. A stored procedure
  6. None of the above

27. Which of the following statements should you write to cause the component to fire an event?

Answers:

  1. RaiseEvent
  2. DeclareEvent
  3. FireEvent
  4. DoEvents
  5. ExecuteEvents
  6. Execute
  7. TriggerEvent

28. Which of the following locking types will lock a recordset only during an Update process and not immediately when the data modifications are requested?

Answers:

  1. Pessimistic
  2. Update
  3. Optimistic
  4. Batch optimistic
  5. Read only
  6. Delayed locking

29. What is the extension of the Visual Basic project file that stores the design of a user control.

Answers:

  1. .ctx
  2. .ctl
  3. .ctr
  4. .ocx
  5. .vbp
  6. .dll
  7. .ucl
  8. .utl

30. You are creating a client application that calls ActiveX DLLs. Which of the following properties of the Err object provides the name of a component that sends an error back to the client application?

Answers:

  1. Number
  2. Description
  3. CompName
  4. Component
  5. Source
  6. Text
  7. Desc
  8. None of the above

31. Consider the following program code:

(i) Dim FileName as String
Open FileName For Input As #FreeFile

(ii) Dim FileName as String
FileNum = FreeFile
Open FileName For Input As #FileNum

Answers:

  1. Both (i) and (ii) are correct
  2. Only (i) is correct
  3. Only (ii) is correct
  4. (i) contains a logical error
  5. (ii) contains an error
  6. Both (i) and (ii) contain errors

32. Variables that allow sharing of values across event procedures are called:

Answers:

  1. Form level variable
  2. Object variable
  3. Module level variable

33. Which property of the form changes the form’s title?

Answers:

  1. Name
  2. Heading
  3. Title
  4. Caption
  5. Logo

34. The event Lost_Focus of one object results in _____ of the other object:

Answers:

  1. Got_Focus
  2. Lost_Focus
  3. Mouse_click
  4. Refresh
  5. Validate
  6. Load
  7. Activate
  8. Initialize

35. How do you make a control gray and inaccessible in VB?

Answers:

  1. Set enabled to false
  2. Set disabled to true
  3. Color the control gray
  4. Hide the control
  5. Set the locked property to true

36. To destroy an object and free the memory space occupied by it, the keyword used is:

Answers:

  1. Delete
  2. Kill
  3. Nothing
  4. New
  5. Calloc
  6. Abandon
  7. Conserve
  8. Free

37. Which of the following methods is used to inform an ActiveX control’s container that one of its properties has been modified?

Answers:

  1. PropertyChanged
  2. CanPropertyChange
  3. ModifyProperty
  4. PropertyModify
  5. PropertyChange
  6. PropertyModified
  7. PropertyChanges
  8. ChangeProperty
  9. 38. Which of the following is the only valid Resume statement in an error handler?

Answers:

  1. Resume prior
  2. Resume previous
  3. Resume later
  4. Resume next
  5. Resume before
  6. Resume to
  7. Resume statement
  8. Resume application

39. If the CancelError Property of the CommonDialog Box is set to true then which of the following statement is true:

Answers:

  1. A runtime error can result if the user clicks the cancel button
  2. A compile time error occurs
  3. The program executes without any error
  4. You need to carry out conditional compilation
  5. None of the above

40. In order to enable the DBGridControl or the MSFlexGrid Control to display the contents of a table or query, you need to set only the ______ property:

Answers:

  1. DataSource
  2. Connection
  3. RecordSource
  4. TableType
  5. RecordType
  6. DataType

41. One can convert a Visual Basic Application into ActiveX Document using:

Answers:

  1. Visual Database Manager
  2. Application Wizard
  3. ActiveX Document Migration Wizard
  4. Package and Deployment Wizard

42. Which event of a text box would you use for validating the data entered by the user?

Answers:

  1. Validate
  2. Validation
  3. Check
  4. Audit
  5. GotFocus
  6. Checkdata
  7. ValidateDate

43. Which events enable you to determine which key was pressed by the user?

Answers:

  1. Click and KeyPress
  2. Click, KeyUp and KeyDown
  3. KeyUp and KeyDown
  4. KeyPress, KeyUp and KeyDown
  5. Click, KeyPress, KeyUp and KeyDown

44. Which event occurs only once in the entire life cycle of an ActiveX control?

Answers:

  1. Initialize
  2. Resize
  3. Terminate
  4. WriteProperties
  5. InitProperties
  6. Activate
  7. None of the above

45. Only Controls with a ________ property such as Picturebox, Toolbox, Statusbar etc. can be placed on an MDI form:

Answers:

  1. Showtips
  2. Negotiate
  3. Align
  4. BorderStyle = 0
  5. Visible
  6. Locked
  7. Enabled
  8. Tag

46. The _______ function enables a VB application to make use of the idle time and to respond periodically to events.

Answers:

  1. GetTime()
  2. TrapEvents()
  3. GetDate()
  4. DoEvents
  5. Kill
  6. Idle
  7. Events
  8. Call

47. How many root nodes can a TreeView control have?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5
  6. 10
  7. Upto 50
  8. No limit

48. In order to overlap the controls (say a command button) during design time, we use the ‘Send To Back’ or ‘Bring To Front’ option from the Edit menu. To change it dynamically (i.e. during program execution) we need to change:

Answers:

  1. Background color property
  2. Caption property
  3. ZOrder property
  4. AutoRedraw property
  5. SendtoBack property
  6. BringtoFront property
  7. Hide property
  8. Show property

49. What is the default value for the scalemode property of the form?

Answers:

  1. Twip
  2. Point
  3. Pixel
  4. Character
  5. Centimeter
  6. Inches
  7. Millimeters

50. Which of the following ADO recordset types provides the greatest degree of concurrency?

Answers:

  1. Static
  2. Forward-only
  3. Dynamic
  4. Keyset
  5. Read only
  6. Keyset and Dynamic

51. Which collection of an ActiveX.. control enumerates all of the properties that can be bound to a data source?

Answers:

  1. DataFields
  2. DataMembers
  3. DataBindings
  4. DataProperties
  5. DataBase
  6. DataColumns

52. Which object is used for error handling?

Answers:

  1. Error
  2. Err
  3. OnError
  4. App
  5. Application
  6. AppErr
  7. Exception

53. The _______ property enables Visual Basic to draw complete images in memory before displaying them on the Screen.

Answers:

  1. AutoRedraw = True
  2. AutoRedraw = False
  3. Refresh
  4. PaintPicture

54. Which event should be used to resize an ActiveX control as the user modifies the size of the control implementation on a form?

Answers:

  1. Resize
  2. Paint
  3. Repaint
  4. Initialize
  5. Change
  6. ReDimension
  7. Dimension
  8. Any of the above

55. Which event is fired when a text box loses focus?

Answers:

  1. LostFocus
  2. FocusLost
  3. RemoveFocus
  4. FocusAway
  5. NoFocus
  6. Leavefocus
  7. Validate

56. Which of the following approaches to data modifications is the least efficient?

Answers:

  1. Updating through a cursor using a recordset
  2. A stored procedure
  3. An update statement prepared and executed
  4. An update statement executed directly
  5. Updating through a data control

57. How can you keep the user from exiting a form by clicking the Close button?

Answers:

  1. Place code in the Terminate event
  2. Place code in the Unload event
  3. Place code in the QueryUnload event
  4. This can only be done by using the Windows API
  5. Place code in the Load event
  6. Place code in the Deactivate event
  7. None of the above

58. In order to provide a transparent background to the Form, you must change the _________ property to _______.

Answers:

  1. BackStyle, Opaque
  2. BackColor, White
  3. BackStyle, Transparent
  4. BackColor, Parent Window’s Color
  5. ZOrder, 0
  6. BackColor, Transparent

59. What do CurrentX and CurrentY return?

Answers:

  1. Current X and Y co-ordinates of mousepointer
  2. Current X and Y co-ordinates of cursor
  3. A String of X & Y
  4. Current x and y co-ordinates of the control

60. Which property of the ProgressBar determines how much of the bar is filled?

Answers:

  1. Min
  2. Max
  3. Value
  4. CurrentVal
  5. FillValue
  6. Fill
  7. BarComplete

61. The _______ method loads the form named ‘Form1’ in to memory and also displays it.

Answers:

  1. Load Form1
  2. Form1.Show
  3. Form1.Visible = True
  4. Unload Form1
  5. Form1.activate

62. Which of the following cannot be included in the Open method of the recordset?

Answers:

  1. Cursor Type
  2. User Name
  3. Active Connection
  4. CursorLocation
  5. LockType
  6. Source

63. The caption and the name properties of the command button:

Answers:

  1. Are one and the same
  2. Can be different at times
  3. Are actually not properties

64. Which of the following statements forces inline error handling?

Answers:

  1. On Error GoTo linelabel
  2. On Error GoTo Inline
  3. On Error Stop
  4. On Error Resume Next
  5. On Error GoTo 0
  6. On Error Resume
  7. None of the above

65. Which of the following debug tools would you use to locate your current position in a series of embedded procedure calls?

Answers:

  1. Locals window
  2. Immediate window
  3. Watch window
  4. Callstack
  5. Debug object

66. Which of the following can be shown to the user using the Common Dialog control in VB?

Answers:

  1. Common messages passed to Windows
  2. Open dialog box
  3. Windows explorer
  4. Input box
  5. Message box
  6. Error messages
  7. Help
  8. None of the above

67. Consider the following subprogram:

Sub ChangeText(ByVal X as String,Y as String)
Y = X
End Sub
If you are calling it using the following code:

Call ChangeText(Form1.Caption,Y$)

Answers:

  1. The Caption of Form1 will change to the value contained in Y$
  2. The Caption of Form1 will not change
  3. The Caption changes at random intervals after the function call
  4. The code is incorrect

68. Visual Basic fires the _______ event everytime a part of the form is newly exposed.

Answers:

  1. Load
  2. Activate
  3. Paint
  4. Show
  5. Initialize

69. What does the forms collection contain?

Answers:

  1. A list of all forms in a project
  2. A list of all hidden forms
  3. A list of all currently loaded forms
  4. A list of all visible forms
  5. All the child forms of an MDI application.

70. You try to initialize a new Object variable with the following line but receive an error. What could be the possible cause?

Set MyVar = New Classname

Answers:

  1. You do not need to use the Set command here
  2. You do not have the permission to access the class
  3. MyVar has not been declared
  4. You do not need to use the New keyword here
  5. None of the above

71. What is the sequence of events when a form is unloaded?

Answers:

  1. QueryUnload, Unload and Terminate
  2. QueryUnload, Terminate and Unload
  3. QueryUnload and Unload
  4. Unload only
  5. Terminate, QueryUnload and Unload
  6. Terminate, Unload and QueryUnload
  7. Unload, QueryUnload and Terminate
  8. Unload, Terminate and QueryUnload

72. In order to change the mouse pointer shape from glass to watch-glass, the property to be used is:

Answers:

  1. MousePointer
  2. Picture
  3. Menu
  4. PointerStyle
  5. Pointer
  6. Cursor
  7. CursorStyle
  8. CursorShape

73. The _______ method resets the contents of bound controls to their original values when the user clicks on the cancel button.

Answers:

  1. UpdateControls
  2. PaintPicture
  3. Refresh
  4. Resize
  5. Resync
  6. Restore
  7. Cancel
  8. Update

74. Which of the following are not properties of Command Button:

Answers:

  1. Caption
  2. Visible
  3. Multi-Line
  4. Font
  5. Name
  6. Bold
  7. Tag
  8. Enabled

75. Which form event would you use to activate a pop-up menu when the user clicks the right mouse button?

Answers:

  1. Click
  2. MouseMove
  3. DragOver
  4. DragDrop
  5. MouseUp
  6. Mouse-popup
  7. PopupMenu
  8. ShowMenu

76. What does the controls collection contain?

Answers:

  1. A list of all controls on a form
  2. A list of all the controls used by your program
  3. A list of all text boxes on a form
  4. A list of all visible controls
  5. The names of all control arrays on the form

77. The interval property of the Timer control specifies the time in:

Answers:

  1. Milliseconds
  2. Seconds
  3. Minutes
  4. Hours
  5. Either milliseconds or seconds

78. Which of the following compiled elements does not run in process?

Answers:

  1. ActiveX EXE
  2. ActiveX DLL
  3. ActiveX Control
  4. MTS Component
  5. Standard DLL
  6. Standard Exe

79. Which method will you use to remove a form from the Screen but retain it in memory?

Answers:

  1. Show method
  2. Unload method
  3. Hide method
  4. CLS method
  5. Deactivate method

80. Global Procedures and Global Variables are declared in:

Answers:

  1. Form Modules
  2. Standard (Code) Modules
  3. Class Modules
  4. Resource files
  5. ActiveX Controls
  6. Data Environment

81. What is the sequence in which the following events are triggered when a form is loaded?

Answers:

  1. Initialize, Load, Resize and Paint
  2. Initialize, Load, Paint and Resize
  3. Load, Initialize, Resize and Paint
  4. Load, Initialize, Paint and Resize
  5. Initialize, Resize, Paint and Load
  6. Load, Paint,Initialize and Resize
  7. Initialize, Paint, Load and Resize
  8. Paint, Resize, Initialize and Load

82. An ADO dynamic property is:

Answers:

  1. A property that changes value at runtime
  2. A value defined by the user
  3. A value defined by the operating system
  4. A property that dynamically resizes as needed to accommodate database parameters
  5. A property implemented by the OLE DB service provider

83. Which event is triggered when the user moves to another open form?

Answers:

  1. Unload
  2. QueryUnload
  3. Deactivate
  4. Terminate
  5. Load
  6. Initialize
  7. Repaint
  8. Resize

84. Which event procedure is called only if AutoRedraw property is set to false:

Answers:

  1. Form_GotFocus
  2. Form_Paint
  3. Form_Activate

85. If one needs to use an ampersand(&) in a Label but does not want it to be an Access Key, the _______ property of the label must be set to False.

Answers:

  1. Caption
  2. ClipControls
  3. UseMnemonic
  4. LinkMode
  5. Locked
  6. Label
  7. ZOrder
  8. Visible

86. In order to access a file in Non-textual format, you have to open file in:

Answers:

  1. Ascii Format
  2. Binary Format
  3. Input Mode
  4. Output mode
  5. Append mode
  6. Read Mode

87. Which three methods does the collection object support?

Answers:

  1. Let, Get, Set
  2. Load, Unload, Count
  3. Add, Remove, Item
  4. Add, Delete, Index
  5. Add, Remove, Sort
  6. Add, Remove, Count
  7. Add, Delete, Count
  8. Add, Set, Count

88. The vbCritical symbol displays:

Answers:

  1. A warning query icon
  2. A critical message icon
  3. A warning message icon
  4. An exclamation icon
  5. None of the above

89. To save a file in a RichTextBox Control and a picture in a Picture Box Control, you will use the _________ and __________ statements, respectively:

Answers:

  1. RichText1.SaveFile, Picture1.SavePicture
  2. RichText1.LoadFile, Picture1.LoadPicture
  3. RichText1.SavePicture, Picture1.SaveFile
  4. RichText1.LoadPicture, Picture1.SaveFile

90. The ______ property is used to show Tool Tips or Help Balloons when the mouse rests on the object:

Answers:

  1. ToolTipText
  2. Tag
  3. Dragmode
  4. ShowTips
  5. Help
  6. Tip
  7. ShowHelp
  8. Tab

91. To deactivate the Form UnLoad event, you make the following change in the function definiton:

Private Sub Query_Unload(Cancel as Integer,UnloadMode as Integer)

To prevent the Form from closing, you will set the:

Answers:

  1. Cancel parameter to a non-zero value
  2. Cancel parameter to 0
  3. UnloadMode parameter to a non-zero value
  4. UnloadMode parameter to a zero value
  5. UnloadMode parameter to 1
  6. Cancel parameter to 1

92. Which line of the following code contains an error?

1 public Sub Command1_Click()
2 Dim str As String
2 str = “Hello World”
3 i = val (str)
4 length = strlen(str)
5 Msgbox “No Of Characters in ” & str & ” = ” & CSstr(length)
6 End Sub

Answers:

  1. Error on line 1
  2. Error on line 2
  3. Error on line 3
  4. Error on line 4
  5. Error on line 5
  6. Error on line 6
  7. No Error

93. Visual Basic displays information depending upon the current value of two properties of the form, called as:

Answers:

  1. CurrentX and CurrentY
  2. ScaleLeft and ScaleTop
  3. ScaleHeight and ScaleTop
  4. x and y
  5. TopX and TopY
  6. LeftX and LeftY

94. After a Dynaset type recordset has been created and opened, further searching is possible using the:

Answers:

  1. LookUp method
  2. Seek method
  3. Locate method
  4. FindNext method
  5. Search method

95. What is the purpose of the Class Builder add-in in Visual Basic:

Answers:

  1. To add classes to the current project
  2. To change the current project to a class based project
  3. To create new classes and define their properties, methods & events
  4. To draw out how the application model will look

96. Which events allow you to determine if a Control or Shift key was pressed by the user?

Answers:

  1. Click and KeyPress
  2. Click, KeyUp and KeyDown
  3. KeyUp and KeyDown
  4. KeyPress, KeyUp and KeyDown
  5. Click, KeyPress, KeyUp and KeyDown
  6. KeyPress and KeyUp

97. You can create menus by the ________ and _________.

Answers:

  1. Menu Editor, Application Wizard
  2. Menu Editor, Win32 API
  3. Win32 API, Application Wizard
  4. Class Builder, New Application Wizard

98. The ______ function can be used to run any .com, .exe, .bat or .pif file from a Visual Basic program.

Answers:

  1. Shell
  2. Substr
  3. SetAttr
  4. CStr
  5. Exec
  6. Perform
  7. Do
  8. None of the above

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Upwork Mac Applications

Medical Billing Certification 2016

Published by:

1. What are modifiers?

Answers:

  1. They are used to add more information about a ICD-9 CM code
  2. They help in establishing “medical necessity”
  3. They are used to add more information about a CPT code
  4. They are an indicator to show that a procedure is linked to more than one diagnosis

2. Electronic Medical Claims (EMC) help to ___________.

Answers:

  1. get the carrier more quickly than the paper claims
  2. pay more quickly than the paper claims
  3. notify more quickly in case the claim is rejected
  4. All of the above

3. The ‘Group’ in the ‘Group Health Insurance Card’ refers to the _________.

Answers:

  1. employer
  2. the name of the insured
  3. the name of the insurance company
  4. third party administrator

4. CPT Codes are updated ________.

Answers:

  1. once every 2 years
  2. annually
  3. whenever changes are necessary
  4. None of the above

5. What does the UB-04 form include?

Answers:

  1. National Provider Identifier
  2. Taxonomy
  3. Guarantor Information
  4. Additional Codes

6. What is contained in the release of information (ROI) form?

Answers:

  1. Name and signature of the patient
  2. The details of the information being transmitted
  3. The name of the medical biller
  4. None of the above

7. What is not a part of the diagnosis information?

Answers:

  1. Macro Code
  2. Description
  3. Insurance Information
  4. Gender Specific Indication
  5. ICD9

8. Which of the following are required to organize your office as a medical biller?

Answers:

  1. Computer
  2. CMS- 1500 forms
  3. Printed/ online coding resources
  4. Patient statement forms
  5. All of the above

9. Which of the following is not a part of Patient Condition Information?

Answers:

  1. Name and UPIN of the physician that was referred
  2. Patient date of birth
  3. Diagnosis information
  4. Insured ID Number

10. What is a benefit?

Answers:

  1. It is the function that a product performs
  2. It is what a feature does for a product
  3. It is the additional profits earned by a company
  4. It is the discount that a customer gets on a product

11. Which of the following aspects does administrative safeguards focus on?

Answers:

  1. Administrative functions that ought to be applied to meet security standards
  2. Methods that should be applied to meet physical standards
  3. Administrative functions that prevent access to technical data
  4. All of the above

12. It is necessary to attach a document called _________ when submitting a secondary claim.

Answers:

  1. Benefits of Explanation
  2. Certificate of Medical Necessity
  3. Explanation of Medical Necessity
  4. Explanation of Benefits

13. If the patient deductible is $600, and the deductible met is $400, the coverage is 60/40 and the physician’s charge is $95, how much should the patient pay?

Answers:

  1. $200
  2. $95
  3. $360
  4. $240

14. Which of the following is not a feature of Managed Care Plans?

Answers:

  1. Charging a nominal fee from the members
  2. Eradicating unwanted services
  3. Charging a standard fee for healthcare provider and hospital services
  4. Itemizing each service and charging to the patient’s account

15. Why was the accountability component added to HIPAA?

Answers:

  1. To increase health care costs so that health care professionals earn more profits
  2. To prevent health care fraud and abuse
  3. To deny coverage to an individual who moves from one plan to another
  4. To ensure that individuals get renewed coverage if he moves from one plan to another

16. Why were security standards created in HIPAA?

Answers:

  1. To provide easy accessibility to electronically transmitted health information to all users
  2. To provide a platform to safeguard only the electronic equipment and processes holding the health information
  3. To prevent unauthorized access of electronically stored and transmitted health information
  4. To safeguard electronically stored health information

17. What is a deductible?

Answers:

  1. A specified amount of annual out-of-pocket expense for covered medical services that the insured must incur and pay each policy year
  2. The percentage that the policy will pay for a covered procedure
  3. The percentage that the policy will pay for diagnostic, lab and x-ray procedures
  4. The amount of out-of-pocket expenses that the insured/patient will have to incur in order for the policy to begin to pay at 100%

18. What are the main benefits of electronic claims?

Answers:

  1. They provide a quicker means of reimbursement
  2. They facilitate quicker submission of claims
  3. They involve more paper work
  4. They lessen the interaction with the consulting physician

19. What is a covered entity?

Answers:

  1. Any private organization or a government agency
  2. The organizations which maintain and upgrade ICD-9-CM codes
  3. The healthcare providers which are linked to PPOs
  4. The healthcare bodies covered by HIPAA

20. Which date format is used on the CMS 1500 Form?

Answers:

  1. mm/dd/ccyy
  2. mm/dd/yy
  3. yy/mm/dd
  4. The date is not required

21. Which of the following is the first phase of the insurance claim life cycle?

Answers:

  1. Entering the data about claim information
  2. Entering patient demographics in the claim form
  3. Collecting claim data
  4. Stating the name of the guarantor in the claim form

22. Which of these is not a kind of third-party reimbursement?

Answers:

  1. Fee-for-service
  2. Capitation
  3. Episode of Care
  4. Managed care plans

23. What is an accident rider?

Answers:

  1. A 100% coverage that is not subject to co-payment or deductible in the event that the patient seeks emergency treatment
  2. The amount of out-of-pocket expenses that the insured/patient will have to incur in order for the policy to begin to pay at 100%
  3. The remaining deductible amount not yet incurred by the insured party or family
  4. A specified amount of annual out-of-pocket expense for covered medical services that the insured must incur and pay each policy year

24. What does the bottom of the CMS 1500 Form report?

Answers:

  1. Provider
  2. Procedure
  3. Diagnostic and Charge Information
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the above

25. Which of the following information is needed to complete the CMS 1500 form?

Answers:

  1. Patient Information
  2. Insurance/Payment Information
  3. Guarantor Information
  4. Diagnostic Information (ICD-9 Codes)
  5. All of the above

26. Identify the order of events after a claim reaches the insurance carrier:1.Application of leftover deductible
2.Examining the procedures performed and the ‘medical necessity’ on these procedures
3.Application of ‘allowable payments options’ for every procedure performed
4.Review of the claim for proper formatting and information

Answers:

  1. 4231
  2. 4213
  3. 3421
  4. 3214

27. What is the length of the standard CPT codes?

Answers:

  1. 7
  2. 4
  3. 5
  4. 2

28. What is the need for insurance verification?

Answers:

  1. To determine the accuracy of the patient information and the insurance card
  2. To determine how the insurance will consider and/or pay for the services rendered
  3. To charge the patient for their portion appropriately
  4. To make the patient’s information public

29. What is not one of the eligibility criteria for Medicare?

Answers:

  1. You should be 65 or more than 65 years of age
  2. You should have retired on Social Security, Railroad Retirement, or federal government retirement programs
  3. It is meant for individuals who have been legally disabled for more than 2 years or who are suffering from end-stage renal disease
  4. You should be a resident of the United States

30. Which of the following does the acronym HIPAA stand for?

Answers:

  1. Health Insurance Program and Accountability Act of 1996
  2. Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996
  3. Health Insurance Portability, Accountability, and Administrative Act of 1995
  4. Health Insurance Portability and Administrative Act of 1995

31. How is the patient identified in case of Champva?

Answers:

  1. VA File #
  2. Sponsor’s SSN
  3. SSN
  4. Medicare #

32. What is needed to file Worker’s Compensation and Auto Insurance Claims?

Answers:

  1. Patient Relationship to Insured
  2. Patient’s Name
  3. Patient Address & Telephone Number
  4. Claim Number

33. Which are the disclosures exempted from minimum necessary?

Answers:

  1. Permissive Disclosures
  2. Disclosure of Protected Health Information
  3. Disclosure of de-identified information
  4. None of the above

34. Which of these is not one of the co-operating parties which maintains and upgrades ICD-9-CM codes?

Answers:

  1. World Health Organization(WHO)
  2. American Hospital Association (AHA)
  3. HCFA
  4. National Center for Health Statistics

35. The component ‘National Identifier Standards’ fall under which of the following components of HIPAA?

Answers:

  1. Program
  2. Administrative Simplification
  3. Accountability
  4. Portability

36. In which of the following methods will you bill your clients for giving your services as a medical biller?

Answers:

  1. By using a set fee
  2. By billing on a percentage of the claims submitted
  3. By percentage of collections
  4. All of the above

37. What do the CPT codes refer to?

Answers:

  1. The disease that the patient is suffering from
  2. The diagnoses performed on the patient
  3. The procedures performed by a physician or a practitioner
  4. The names of the medicines prescribed by the practitioner

38. Which is a more efficient and less time consuming method to submit your claims?

Answers:

  1. Through direct submissions
  2. Through HIPAA
  3. Through clearing houses
  4. All of the above

39. Fill up the blank:

National Provider Identifier is a _____ digit number.

Answers:

  1. 8
  2. 9
  3. 10
  4. 4

40. What is the way to determine the primary and secondary policy if a child is covered under both parent’s policies?

Answers:

  1. Application of the “birthday rule”
  2. Application of the “insurance rule”
  3. The policy of both the mother and the father would be considered primary
  4. The policy of both the mother and the father would be considered secondary

41. What is a write off?

Answers:

  1. It is a percentage of the charge or the dollar amount that the patient will pay to the provider for every encounter/visit
  2. It is the difference between the actual fee and the permitted fee
  3. It is the denial of a claim
  4. It is the ongoing fee paid to the insurance company by the insured

42. Which of the following correctly defines the Encounter Document?

Answers:

  1. It is a form consisting of patient demographics, patient condition and guarantor information
  2. It is a form listing the present diagnosis and the past medical condition of the patient
  3. It is a form listing the insurance coverage information of a patient
  4. It is a form listing the services performed on a patient in a date of service

43. Which of these is not a type of insurance coverage?

Answers:

  1. Medicare
  2. Group Health/Medical Insurance
  3. Workers Compensation
  4. Campus
  5. Medical

44. What things should you emphasize on while selecting an attorney when starting your own medical billing business?

Answers:

  1. You should look at his years of experience
  2. He should be able to develop a Compliance Plan in accordance with HIPAA protocols
  3. You should look at the attorney’s ability to speak legal jargon with you
  4. You should look at his knowledge base about the entire legal system of your country

45. If the patient deductible is $700, and the deductible met is $685, the coverage is 80/20 and the physician’s charge is $75, how much should the patient pay?

Answers:

  1. $26
  2. $15
  3. $27
  4. $60

46. Which of the following is not necessarily a function performed by a medical biller?

Answers:

  1. Performing insurance benefits verification and referral tasks
  2. Abstracting and coding of services rendered from a patient’s medical records
  3. Submitting claims on Electronic Data Interchange (EDI)
  4. Mailing patient’s billing statements

47. What is the role of a clearing house while submitting claims electronically?

Answers:

  1. A clearing house acts as an intermediary between the billing center and the insurance carrier
  2. A clearing house allows the billing center to correct the errors in the rejected claim only once
  3. A clearing house posts the final payments to the referring physician’s clinic
  4. A clearing house performs an initial computerized review of the claim submitted and sends the claim to the insurance carrier

48. Which body is responsible for implementing the Privacy Rules

Answers:

  1. The Office of Civil Rights
  2. The American Medical Association
  3. World Health Organization
  4. All of the above

49. Which of these does not cover preventive care services?

Answers:

  1. POS
  2. PPOs
  3. HMOs
  4. None of the above

50. Why was HIPAA enacted into a law?

Answers:

  1. To implement portability requirements for individual and group health insurance plans
  2. To decrease administrative cost and burdens of the legal industry
  3. To ensure that individuals moving from one health plan to another does not get covered under the conditions of the already existing plan
  4. None of the above

51. Who among the following can also be a guarantor?

Answers:

  1. The patient
  2. The physician
  3. The insurance company
  4. The medical biller

52. Which of the following is not a coding convention?

Answers:

  1. Punctuation
  2. Articles
  3. Connecting Words
  4. Abbreviations

53. _____is an agreement made between the insurance company and the insured to send payments directly to the physician.

Answers:

  1. Assignment of Benefits
  2. Coordination of Benefits
  3. Preauthorization
  4. Pre-Existing Conditions

54. What is the full form of AIDA?

Answers:

  1. Attention, Interest, Desire And Action
  2. Action, Interest, Desire And Advertising
  3. Action, Interest, Desire And Attention
  4. None of the above

55. Which of these is not a suitable marketing strategy for medical billing business?

Answers:

  1. Door-to-door marketing
  2. Cold Calling
  3. Mailing List
  4. Business Networking

56. State whether true or false:

HIPAA provides protections for both Group Health Plans and Individual Coverage.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

57. Which of the following components of HIPAA have been put into effect?

Answers:

  1. Portability and Administrative Simplification
  2. Portability and Accountability
  3. Accountability and Program
  4. Administrative Simplification and Program

58. State whether true or false:

Ideal practice management software should have good reporting and multi-tasking capabilities.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

59. In which box are the CPT codes entered on the CMS-1500 Form?

Answers:

  1. Box 24A
  2. Box 24D
  3. Box 24B
  4. Box 24C

60. Which of the following is the code for anesthesia (type of service code)?

Answers:

  1. X*
  2. 99
  3. 07
  4. 15

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