UPWORK TEST » November 4, 2015

Daily Archives: November 4, 2015

Upwork Networking

CISCO Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which command/s will you use to configure static routing on a router?

Answers:

  1. Router(config)# ip route static
  2. Router(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.0.1
  3. Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.0.1
  4. Router(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 E1
  5. Router(config)# ip route 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 127.0.0.1

2. Which information is exchanged by Cisco devices on which CDP is running?

Answers:

  1. Routing Tables
  2. Platform
  3. Traffic Data
  4. Capabilities List
  5. Username & Password

3. Which of the following ranges are reserved as private addresses?

Answers:

  1. 192.168.0.0 – 192.255.255.255
  2. 172.16.0.0 – 172.255.255.255
  3. 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255
  4. 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255

4. Which of the following are examples of the Data Link Layer?

Answers:

  1. Token Ring
  2. IP
  3. Ethernet
  4. MAC
  5. IPX

5. Which two factors are used by default for calculation of metric by EIGRP?

Answers:

  1. Bandwidth
  2. Hop Count
  3. Reliability
  4. Load
  5. Delay

6. Which of the following are frame relay LMI types?

Answers:

  1. DLCI
  2. Cisco
  3. IEEE 802.1Q
  4. Q933A

7. Which two authentication methods can be used with PPP links?

Answers:

  1. CHAP
  2. Verisign
  3. PAP
  4. MD5

8. Which of the following devices can be connected using a Rollover cable?

Answers:

  1. Router Ethernet Port to Router Ethernet Port
  2. Switch Console Port to PC COM Port
  3. Switch Ethernet Port to Switch Ethernet Port
  4. Router Ethernet Port to Switch Ethernet Port
  5. Router Console Port to PC COM Port

9. Which of the following Protocols work on Application Layer of OSI model?

Answers:

  1. HTTP
  2. FTP
  3. IP
  4. UDP

10. Which of the following techniques are used by transport layer?

Answers:

  1. Flow Control
  2. Route Update Packets
  3. Sequencing
  4. Acknowledgements
  5. Network Address

11. Which of the following frame-tagging methods can be used for creating a trunk link between Cisco and Non Cisco switches?

Answers:

  1. ISL
  2. VTP
  3. IEEE 802.1Q
  4. IETF

12. What is the network ID of IP address 172.16.40.0/20?

Answers:

  1. 172.16.16.0
  2. 172.16.36.0
  3. 172.16.32.0
  4. 172.16.0.0

13. At which layer of OSI Model does a router work?

Answers:

  1. Presentation Layer
  2. Transport Layer
  3. Network Layer
  4. Datalink Layer
  5. Application Layer
  6. Physical Layer
  7. Session Layer

14. What is the maximum speed supported by a standard ISDN BRI?

Answers:

  1. 64 kbps
  2. 128 kbps
  3. 256 kbps
  4. 1.544 mbps

15. Which of the following addresses is reserved for loopback tests?

Answers:

  1. 10.0.0.1
  2. 172.16.0.1
  3. 192.168.0.1
  4. 127.0.0.1

16. Which command will apply access-list 150 on interface e0 in outbound direction?

Answers:

  1. router(config-if)# ip access-list 150 out
  2. router(config-if)# ip access-class 150 out
  3. router(config-if)# ip out access-group 150
  4. router(config-if)# ip access-group 150 out

17. You executed the following command on your router:

Router(config)# router ospf 15
Which command will you execute next to complete OSPF configuration on your router?

Answers:

  1. Router(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 area 5
  2. Router(config)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 5
  3. Router(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 5
  4. Router(config# ip route ospf 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 area 5

18. What will happen if you declare an interface as passive interface in IGRP routing protocol?

Answers:

  1. The router will stop sending and receiving any dynamic updates
  2. The router will stop sending any dynamic updates but can still receive updates
  3. The interface will stop receiving any dynamic updates
  4. The interface will stop sending any dynamic updates but can still receive updates

19. Which of the following are stored in RAM?

Answers:

  1. Startup-config
  2. Running-config
  3. Routing Table
  4. All of the above

20. What will be the command for standard access control list to deny a single source address 10.15.12.2?

Answers:

  1. access-list 50 deny 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0
  2. access-list 50 deny 10.15.12.2 0.255.255.255
  3. access-list 50 deny host 10.15.12.2
  4. access-list 50 deny 10.15.12.2 255.255.255.255

21. What is the main purpose of creating VLANs?

Answers:

  1. They create single collision domain
  2. They provide fast speed to the LANs
  3. They break up the broadcast domain
  4. None of the above

22. How many bits of a MAC address are used by OUI portion?

Answers:

  1. 32 bits
  2. 48 bits
  3. 24 bits
  4. 16 bits

23. At which layer of OSI model does a hub work?

Answers:

  1. Network Layer
  2. Application Layer
  3. Physical Layer
  4. Data Link Layer

24. Which command is used to configure the configuration-register of a router?

Answers:

  1. Router(config)# config-register 0x2102
  2. Router# config-register 0x2102
  3. Router(config-line)# config-register 0x2102
  4. Router(config-router)# config-register 0x2102

25. What is the speed of a T1 line?

Answers:

  1. 128 kbps
  2. 144 kbps
  3. 2.048 Mbps
  4. 1.544 Mbps

26. In which of the following networks, are DR and BDR elected in OSPF?

Answers:

  1. Broadcast multi-access
  2. Point-to-point
  3. Nonbroadcast multi-access
  4. Point-to-multipoint

27. Which command will you execute to use 16 subnets of a class C network with subnet mask of 255.255.255.240?

Answers:

  1. Router(config)#ip all-subnets
  2. Router(config)#ip subnet 16
  3. Router(config)#ip classless
  4. Router(config)#ip subnet-zero

28. In which of the following memories is Mini-IOS or bootloader of a router stored?

Answers:

  1. RAM
  2. ROM
  3. NVRAM
  4. Flash Memory

29. Which encapsulation method will you choose if you want to connect a Cisco router and a non Cisco router with a serial connection?

Answers:

  1. HDLC
  2. PPP
  3. LAPD
  4. LAPB

30. Which key combination is used to interrupt the boot sequence of a router?

Answers:

  1. Esc + Ctrl
  2. Ctrl + Z
  3. Ctrl + Break
  4. Alt + Ctrl + Del

31. What is the command to show Frame relay map table?

Answers:

  1. Router(config)# show frame-relay map
  2. Router# show frame-relay
  3. Router(config-router)# show frame-relay table
  4. Router# show frame-relay map

32. If a router has been configured for static routing, IGRP, OSPF, EIGRP and RIP with their default values, which routing will the router use to send data?

Answers:

  1. RIP
  2. OSPF
  3. IGRP
  4. EIGRP
  5. Static Routing

33. How many Broadcast Domains are there if two switches are connected to each other using a trunk link?

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 1
  3. 4
  4. None

34. Which of the following commands show Cisco IOS image file name?

Answers:

  1. show startup
  2. show running
  3. show version
  4. show history

35. What is the subnetwork to which IP address 10.70.50.255/18 belongs?

Answers:

  1. 10.70.10.0
  2. 10.70.50.0
  3. 10.70.32.0
  4. 10.70.0.0
  5. 10.0.0.0

36. Which subnet mask will you use to fulfill the requirements of all the departments if you are using a class C network?

Answers:

  1. 255.255.255.0
  2. 255.255.255.252
  3. 255.255.255.224
  4. 255.255.255.192
  5. 255.255.255.128

37. State whether True or False:

You have two routers connected with point-to-point links using different encapsulation methods. They will be able to communicate with each other.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

38. Which of the following statements are true for inter VLAN communication?

Answers:

  1. A router that supports inter VLAN communication is required
  2. The router must support the same encapsulation method as supported by the switch
  3. If the router has only one Ethernet interface, sub-interfaces must be configured
  4. All of the above

39. Routing protocols use a method to advertise many networks as one network to other routers. What is that method called?

Answers:

  1. Supernetting
  2. Summarization
  3. Subnetting
  4. None of the above

40. Which command is used to disable domain lookup?

Answers:

  1. no ip domain-lookup
  2. disable domain-lookup
  3. no domain-lookup
  4. None of the above

41. If you have a subnet mask of /26 for a class C network, how many subnets and host per subnet will you get?

Answers:

  1. 4 networks and 62 hosts
  2. 16 networks and 16 hosts
  3. 2 networks and 128 hosts
  4. 62 networks and 2 hosts
  5. 6 networks and 30 hosts

42. What is the binary value of hex 9F?

Answers:

  1. 10011111
  2. 10111000
  3. 11110001
  4. 10001111

43. Which of the following must be configured on a switch to segment Broadcast Domain?

Answers:

  1. VTP
  2. PVC
  3. VLAN
  4. FTP
  5. TFTP

44. What is the OUI portion of MAC address B4-3F-95-5F-1D-09 in binary?

Answers:

  1. 10110100-00111111-10010101
  2. 11100110-11001001-01110011
  3. 11000011-10000111-11110001
  4. 00111100-10010001-10111001

45. What should be the value of configuration register in a router to boot IOS image stored in ROM?

Answers:

  1. 0x2102
  2. 0x2101
  3. 0x2142
  4. 0x101

46. What is the maximum number of hosts allowed on subnet 172.16.50.75/22?

Answers:

  1. 510
  2. 1022
  3. 4094
  4. 8190

47. Which is the default mode of operation in a VTP domain for all catalyst switches?

Answers:

  1. Client
  2. Server
  3. Transparent
  4. None of the above

48. Which command will you execute to see whether the cable attached with your router’s Serial 0 is DCE or DTE?

Answers:

  1. show controllers serial 0
  2. show interface serial 0
  3. show ip interface serial 0
  4. show interface brief serial 0

49. Which of the following statements is true regarding VLAN 1?

Answers:

  1. It is a default VLAN
  2. You cannot delete VLAN 1
  3. You cannot rename VLAN 1
  4. All of the above

50. If interface Ethernet 0 is showing that it is administratively down, what will you do to turn it on?

Answers:

  1. Change the cable connected with Ethernet 0
  2. Restart the router
  3. Execute ‘no shutdown’ command
  4. Execute ‘clock rate ‘ command

51. Which protocol is used to find the MAC address of a device whose IP address is known?

Answers:

  1. ARP
  2. SMTP
  3. IARP
  4. RARP

52. What is the full form of CSMA/CD?

Answers:

  1. Code Sense, Multiple Access with Collision Detection
  2. Carrier Sense, Multiple Access with Code Division
  3. Collision Sense, Multiple Access with Carrier Detection
  4. Carrier Sense, Multiple Access with Collision Detection

53. On which layer of the OSI model do TCP & UDP work?

Answers:

  1. Transport Layer
  2. Session Layer
  3. Presentation Layer
  4. Network Layer

54. What is the command to configure PPP encapsulation on serial 0?

Answers:

  1. Router(config)# configure encapsulation ppp
  2. Router(config)# encapsulation ppp
  3. Router(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
  4. Router# encapsulation ppp serial 0

55. Which of the following commands will prevent telnet access from all users on subnet 172.16.16.0 with subnet mask 255.255.240.0 to any destination?

Answers:

  1. access-list 115 deny tcp 172.16.16.0 255.255.240.0 any eq 23
  2. access-list 115 deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.16.255 any eq 23
  3. access-list 115 deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255 any eq 21
  4. access-list 115 deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255 any eq 23

56. What is the binary value of hex BF?

Answers:

  1. 10100000
  2. 10111111
  3. 11111000
  4. 00111011

57. Which type of NAT uses different ports to map multiple IP addresses to a single global IP address?

Answers:

  1. Dynamic NAT
  2. NAT with overloading
  3. Static NAT
  4. All of the above

58. You are not able to create a new VLAN and cannot delete or change existing VLANs on a switch. What could be the problem?

Answers:

  1. Trunk link is not configured properly
  2. The switch is in VTP Transparent mode
  3. The switch is in VTP Client mode
  4. None of the above

59. You made some changes in your router’s configuration and executed the following command:

Router# copy run start

When you restarted your router it went into the Setup mode. What is the problem?

Answers:

  1. The command ‘copy run start’ is incorrect
  2. The NVRAM is corrupt
  3. The value of configuration register is set to 0x2142
  4. Nothing is wrong, you have to configure the router every time it restarts

60. What is the default number of commands that a router can show if you execute ‘show history’ command?

Answers:

  1. 15
  2. 10
  3. 20
  4. 256

61. In which of the following modes does a switch not participate in VTP domain, but still forwards VTP advertisements by trunk links?

Answers:

  1. Server
  2. Domain
  3. Client
  4. Transparent

62. Which of the following services can be used to set up a database of MAC addresses that can be used for dynamic addressing of VLANs?

Answers:

  1. Static VLAN
  2. VMPS
  3. STP
  4. VTP

63. What is the speed of ISDN PRI service with 30B +1D channel?

Answers:

  1. 2.048 Mbps
  2. 1.544 Mbps
  3. 144 Kbps
  4. 128 Kbps

64. Which of the following cables is not prone to electrical interferences?

Answers:

  1. Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)
  2. Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)
  3. Fiber Optic
  4. Copper wire
  5. Coaxial

65. Which two statements are true about CHAP authentication method?

Answers:

  1. It is more secure than PAP
  2. It is supported by HDLC
  3. It is less secure than PAP
  4. It sends authentication messages periodically during the connection

66. How many access control lists can be applied on an interface?

Answers:

  1. One access control list in each direction for each protocol
  2. Two access control lists in each direction
  3. Unlimited
  4. Access control list cannot be applied on an interface

67. Which of the following is a Multicast Address?

Answers:

  1. 127.0.0.1
  2. 192.168.1.255
  3. 10.0.0.0
  4. 224.10.1.7

68. Which command is used to view the list of all active connections made to the console and VTY ports of your router?

Answers:

  1. show session
  2. show connections
  3. show lines
  4. show users

69. Which of the following subnet masks should you use on Router A and Router B serial links so that there is minimum wastage of IP addresses?

Answers:

  1. 255.255.255.255
  2. 255.255.0.0
  3. 255.255.255.0
  4. 255.255.255.252
  5. 255.255.255.254

70. What is the full form of ISDN?

Answers:

  1. International Subscriber Digital Network
  2. International Services Digital Network
  3. Internet Services Digital Network
  4. Integrated Services Digital Network

71. Which layer of OSI model encapsulates packets into frames?

Answers:

  1. Transport Layer
  2. Data Link Layer
  3. Network Layer
  4. Physical Layer

72. What is the binary value of 157?

Answers:

  1. 11000111
  2. 10111001
  3. 11100011
  4. 10011101

73. Which of the following provides routing protocol support for IPX, Appletalk and IP networks simultaneously?

Answers:

  1. RIP v2
  2. OSPF
  3. IGRP
  4. EIGRP

74. Which of the following commands will you use to enable RIP version 2 on your router?

Answers:

  1. Router(config)# version 2
  2. Router(config-router)# version 2
  3. Router(config-if)# version 2
  4. Router# rip version 2

75. Which statement is true about RID (Router ID) in OSPF?

Answers:

  1. It is always the highest IP address of active interfaces
  2. It is the highest IP address of all configured loopback interfaces
  3. It is locally significant
  4. It is only used for election of DR

76. What is the Administrative Distance (AD) of OSPF?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 120
  3. 110
  4. 90

77. Which of the following devices is used to connect a non ISDN device with an ISDN network?

Answers:

  1. NT1
  2. TE2
  3. TA
  4. TE1

78. Which protocol uses port number 23?

Answers:

  1. FTP
  2. SMTP
  3. Telnet
  4. HTTP

79. What do you understand from the following commands:

access-list 110 deny tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 110 permit ip any any

Answers:

  1. This access-list denies any Telnet traffic from network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0
  2. This access-list allows any IP traffic from any source to any destination
  3. This access-list denies any FTP traffic from network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0
  4. This access-list denies any FTP traffic to network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0

80. What is the command for copying a router’s IOS to a TFTP server?

Answers:

  1. copy ios tftp
  2. copy start tftp
  3. copy flash tftp
  4. copy flash-config tftp

81. Which of the following things are stored in RAM?

Answers:

  1. ARP Cache
  2. Running configuration
  3. Routing tables
  4. All of the above

82. What is the default value of flush timers in IGRP?

Answers:

  1. 630 seconds
  2. 90 seconds
  3. 270 seconds
  4. None of the above

83. What is the hop count limit for OSPF?

Answers:

  1. 15
  2. 255
  3. 256
  4. None

84. What is the maximum number of subnets (usable) that you can create in a class B network?

Answers:

  1. 16384
  2. 32768
  3. 65536
  4. Infinite

85. Which one of the following addresses can be used as a host address for the subnet 192.168.50.16/28?

Answers:

  1. 192.168.50.32
  2. 192.168.50.16
  3. 192.168.50.64
  4. 192.168.50.30

86. Which of the following switching methods forward the frame after reading the destination MAC address only?

Answers:

  1. Fast forward
  2. Cut-through
  3. Fragment free
  4. Store and forward

87. Which command is used to encrypt all the passwords of a router?

Answers:

  1. enable password-encryption
  2. service password-encryption
  3. encrypt passwords
  4. enable encrypt-password

88. Different routing protocols use different methods to calculate the distance to a network. What is that method called?

Answers:

  1. Administrative Distance
  2. Metric
  3. Routing Table
  4. None of the above

89. Which of the following switches support both ISL and 802.1Q encapsulation methods?

Answers:

  1. 1900
  2. 2950
  3. 3550
  4. All of the above

90. Which command will you use to configure IP address on an interface?

Answers:

  1. Router(config-if)# ip 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
  2. Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
  3. Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1/24
  4. Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
  5. Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 subnet 255.255.255.0

91. Which of the following routing protocols are Cisco proprietary?

Answers:

  1. IGRP
  2. EIGRP
  3. OSPF
  4. RIP

92. What is the maximum number of paths supported by IGRP for load balancing?

Answers:

  1. Four
  2. Six
  3. Twelve
  4. Infinite

93. What is the decimal equivalent of binary 11001110?

Answers:

  1. 207
  2. 250
  3. 206
  4. 192

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Upwork Networking

Cisco Networking Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which of the following routing protocols support VLSM?

Answers:

  1. RIP v1
  2. RIP v2
  3. IGRP
  4. EIGRP
  5. OSPF

2. Which of the following devices can be connected using a Rollover cable?

Answers:

  1. Router Ethernet Port to Router Ethernet Port
  2. Switch Console Port to PC COM Port
  3. Switch Ethernet Port to Switch Ethernet Port
  4. Router Ethernet Port to Switch Ethernet Port
  5. Router Console Port to PC COM Port

3. Which of the following ranges are reserved as private addresses?

Answers:

  1. 192.168.0.0 – 192.255.255.255
  2. 172.16.0.0 – 172.255.255.255
  3. 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255
  4. 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255

4. Which two factors are used by default for calculation of metric by EIGRP?

Answers:

  1. Bandwidth
  2. Hop Count
  3. Reliability
  4. Load
  5. Delay

5. Which of the following routing protocols are not classless routing protocols?

Answers:

  1. EIGRP
  2. OSPF
  3. IGRP
  4. RIP v1

6. Which of the following Protocols work on Application Layerr of OSI model?

Answers:

  1. HTTP
  2. FTP
  3. IP
  4. UDP

7. Which two statements are true about CHAP authentication method?

Answers:

  1. It is more secure than PAP
  2. It is supported by HDLC
  3. It is less secure than PAP
  4. It sends authentication messages periodically during the connection

8. Which of the following routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols?

Answers:

  1. OSPF
  2. RIP
  3. EIGRP
  4. IGRP

9. Which command is used to encrypt all the passwords of a router?

Answers:

  1. enable password-encryption
  2. service password-encryption
  3. encrypt passwords
  4. enable encrypt-password

10. Which subnet mask will you use to fulfill the requirements of all the departments if you are using a class C network?

Answers:

  1. 255.255.255.0
  2. 255.255.255.252
  3. 255.255.255.224
  4. 255.255.255.192
  5. 255.255.255.128

11. Which of the following addresses is reserved for loopback tests?

Answers:

  1. 10.0.0.1
  2. 172.16.0.1
  3. 192.168.0.1
  4. 127.0.0.1

12. Which is the command to view all available commands in the mode you are working in?

Answers:

  1. show all
  2. ?
  3. help
  4. help commands

13. Which command is used to view IP routing table?

Answers:

  1. show ip table
  2. show route
  3. show ip route
  4. show routing table

14. Which command is used to disable domain lookup?

Answers:

  1. no ip domain-lookup
  2. disable domain-lookup
  3. no domain-lookup
  4. None of the above

15. Which of the following routing protocols are Cisco proprietary?

Answers:

  1. IGRP
  2. EIGRP
  3. OSPF
  4. RIP

16. Which command is used to configure the configuration-register of a router?

Answers:

  1. Router(config)# config-register 0x2102
  2. Router# config-register 0x2102
  3. Router(config-line)# config-register 0x2102
  4. Router(config-router)# config-register 0x2102

17. Which of the following commands will prevent telnet access from all users on subnet 172.16.16.0 with subnet mask 255.255.240.0 to any destination?

Answers:

  1. access-list 115 deny tcp 172.16.16.0 255.255.240.0 any eq 23
  2. access-list 115 deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.16.255 any eq 23
  3. access-list 115 deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255 any eq 21
  4. access-list 115 deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255 any eq 23

18. What is the default value of flush timers in IGRP?

Answers:

  1. 630 seconds
  2. 90 seconds
  3. 270 seconds
  4. None of the above

19. If UDP receives datagrams that are not in sequence, what will it do?

Answers:

  1. It will drop datagrams that are not in sequence
  2. It will arrange them in sequence using sequence numbers
  3. It will request source host to resend datagrams
  4. None of the above

20. Which of the following commands will allow a single source address 172.16.0.5 to telnet a single destination address 192.168.10.2?

Answers:

  1. access-list 150 permit tcp host 172.16.0.5 host 192.168.10.2 eq 23
  2. access-list 150 deny tcp host 172.16.0.5 host 192.168.10.2 eq 23
  3. access-list 150 permit tcp any any
  4. access-list 150 permit ip any any eq 23

21. Which command will disable CDP on a router?

Answers:

  1. no cdp run
  2. disable cdp
  3. no cdp enable
  4. no cdp route

22. What is the default number of commands that a router can show if you execute ‘show history’ command?

Answers:

  1. 15
  2. 10
  3. 20
  4. 256

23. Which is the default mode of operation in a VTP domain for all catalyst switches?

Answers:

  1. Client
  2. Server
  3. Transparent
  4. None of the above

24. Which command will you use to enable default routing on a router?

Answers:

  1. outer(config)# ip route 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 172.16.0.1
  2. outer(config)# ip route default 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.0.1
  3. outer(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.0.1
  4. outer# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.0.1

25. How many Broadcast Domains are there if two switches are connected to each other using a trunk link?

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 1
  3. 4
  4. None

26. How many bits of a MAC address are used by OUI portion?

Answers:

  1. 32 bits
  2. 48 bits
  3. 24 bits
  4. 16 bits

27. Which area must be present to connect two different areas in an OSPF network?

Answers:

  1. Area 0
  2. Area 51
  3. Area 1
  4. Area 16

28. What is the maximum number of valid IP addresses in a class B network?

Answers:

  1. 65536
  2. 65534
  3. 256
  4. 254

29. You made some changes in your router’s configuration and executed the following command:

Router# copy run start

When you restarted your router it went into the Setup mode. What is the problem?

Answers:

  1. The command ‘copy run start’ is incorrect
  2. The NVRAM is corrupt
  3. The value of configuration register is set to 0x2142
  4. Nothing is wrong, you have to configure the router every time it restarts

30. Routing protocols use a method to advertise many networks as one network to other routers. What is that method called?

Answers:

  1. Supernetting
  2. Summarization
  3. Subnetting
  4. None of the above

31. What is the speed of a T1 line?

Answers:

  1. 128 kbps
  2. 144 kbps
  3. 2.048 Mbps
  4. 1.544 Mbps

32. What is the hop count limit for OSPF?

Answers:

  1. 15
  2. 255
  3. 256
  4. None

33. What is the main purpose of creating VLANs?

Answers:

  1. They create single collision domain
  2. They provide fast speed to the LANs
  3. They break up the broadcast domain
  4. None of the above

34. What is the maximum speed supported by a standard ISDN BRI?

Answers:

  1. 64 kbps
  2. 128 kbps
  3. 256 kbps
  4. 1.544 mbps

35. What will be the command for standard access control list to deny a single source address 10.15.12.2?

Answers:

  1. access-list 50 deny 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0
  2. access-list 50 deny 10.15.12.2 0.255.255.255
  3. access-list 50 deny host 10.15.12.2
  4. access-list 50 deny 10.15.12.2 255.255.255.255

36. In which of the following networks, are DR and BDR elected in OSPF?

Answers:

  1. Broadcast multi-access
  2. Point-to-point
  3. Nonbroadcast multi-access
  4. Point-to-multipoint

37. Which of the following devices can be connected using a straight cable?

Answers:

  1. Hub & Switch
  2. Router & PC
  3. PC & PC
  4. Router & Switch

38. If a router has been configured for static routing, IGRP, OSPF, EIGRP and RIP with their default values, which routing will the router use to send data?

Answers:

  1. RIP
  2. OSPF
  3. IGRP
  4. EIGRP
  5. Static Routing

39. What is the command to configure PPP encapsulation on serial 0?

Answers:

  1. Router(config)# configure encapsulation ppp
  2. Router(config)# encapsulation ppp
  3. Router(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
  4. Router# encapsulation ppp serial 0

40. On which layer of the OSI model do TCP & UDP work?

Answers:

  1. Transport Layer
  2. Session Layer
  3. Presentation Layer
  4. Network Layer

41. What should be the value of configuration register in a router to boot IOS image stored in ROM?

Answers:

  1. 0x2102
  2. 0x2101
  3. 0x2142
  4. 0x101

42. Refer to the diagram.

Host A is not able to communicate with Host B. However, Router A can communicate with Host B. What could bethe problem?

Answers:

  1. Host A’s IP address is incorrect
  2. Router A’s Ethernet 0 IP address is incorrect
  3. Host B’s IP address is incorrect
  4. No routing is configured among the routers

43. Which layer of OSI model encapsulates packets into frames?

Answers:

  1. Transport Layer
  2. Data Link Layer
  3. Network Layer
  4. Physical Layer

44. Which of the following are examples of the Data Link Layerr?

Answers:

  1. Token Ring
  2. IP
  3. Ethernet
  4. MAC
  5. IPX

45. If you set bandwidth of 64 kbps on an interface, what will be it’s cost in OSPF?

Answers:

  1. 256
  2. 1563
  3. 1024
  4. 2096

46. What is the command to configure q933a as frame relay LMI type?

Answers:

  1. Router(config)# frame-relay lmi-type q933a
  2. Router# lmi-type q933a
  3. Router(config-if)# frame-relay lmi-type q933a
  4. Router(config-if)# lmi-type q933a

47. What is the full form of CSMA/CD?

Answers:

  1. Code Sense, Multiple Access with Collision Detection
  2. Carrier Sense, Multiple Access with Code Division
  3. Collision Sense, Multiple Access with Carrier Detection
  4. Carrier Sense, Multiple Access with Collision Detection

48. Which of the following are frame relay LMI types?

Answers:

  1. DLCI
  2. Cisco
  3. IEEE 802.1Q
  4. Q933A

49. If interface Ethernet 0 is showing that it is administratively down, what will you do to turn it on?

Answers:

  1. Change the cable connected with Ethernet 0
  2. Restart the route
  3. Execute ‘no shutdown’ command
  4. Execute ‘clock rate ‘ command

50. In which of the following modes does a switch not participate in VTP domain, but still forwards VTP advertisements by trunk links?

Answers:

  1. Server
  2. Domain
  3. Client
  4. Transparent

51. Different routing protocols use different methods to calculate the distance to a network. What is that method called?

Answers:

  1. Administrative Distance
  2. Metric
  3. Routing Table
  4. None of the above

52. What is the maximum number of subnets (usable) that you can create in a class B network?

Answers:

  1. 16384
  2. 32768
  3. 65536
  4. Infinite

53. What is the speed of ISDN PRI service with 30B +1D channel?

Answers:

  1. 2.048 Mbps
  2. 1.544 Mbps
  3. 144 Kbps
  4. 128 Kbps

54. What is the binary value of hex 9F?

Answers:

  1. 10011111
  2. 10111000
  3. 11110001
  4. 10001111

55. Which of the following switches support both ISL and 802.1Q encapsulation methods?

Answers:

  1. 1900
  2. 2950
  3. 3550
  4. All of the above

56. Which command will you use to view sending and receiving of RIP update packets that normally run in the background ?

Answers:

  1. Router(config-router)# debug ip rip
  2. Router# debug rip packets
  3. Router# debug ip rip
  4. Router(config)# show rip packets

57. What is the default value of bridge priority on Cisco switches?

Answers:

  1. 65536
  2. 16384
  3. 32768
  4. 256

58. Which command will you execute to see whether the cable attached with your router’s Serial 0 is DCE or DTE?

Answers:

  1. show controllers serial 0
  2. show interface serial 0
  3. show ip interface serial 0
  4. show interface brief serial 0

59. Which of the following commands will you use to enable RIP version 2 on your router?

Answers:

  1. Router(config)# version 2
  2. Router(config-router)# version 2
  3. Router(config-if)# version 2
  4. Router# rip version 2

60. Which of the following statements is true regarding VLAN 1?

Answers:

  1. It is a default VLAN
  2. You cannot delete VLAN 1
  3. You cannot rename VLAN 1
  4. All of the above

61. At which layer of OSI Model does a router work?

Answers:

  1. Presentation Layer
  2. Transport Layer
  3. Network Layer
  4. Datalink Layer
  5. Application Layer
  6. Physical Layer
  7. Session Layer

62. Which information is exchanged by Cisco devices on which CDP is running?

Answers:

  1. Routing Tables
  2. Platform
  3. Traffic Data
  4. Capabilities List
  5. Username & Password

63. Which of the following switching methods forward the frame after reading the destination MAC address only?

Answers:

  1. Fast forward
  2. Cut-through
  3. Fragment free
  4. Store and forward

64. You executed the following command on your router:

Router(config)# router ospf 15

Which command will you execute next to complete OSPF configuration on your router?

Answers:

  1. Router(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 area 5
  2. Router(config)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 5
  3. Router(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 5
  4. Router(config# ip route ospf 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 area 5

65. Which of the following devices is used to connect a non ISDN device with an ISDN network?

Answers:

  1. NT1
  2. TE2
  3. TA
  4. TE1

66. Which of the following services can be used to set up a database of MAC addresses that can be used for dynamic addressing of VLANs?

Answers:

  1. Static VLAN
  2. VMPS
  3. STP
  4. VTP

67. Which command will you use to configure IP address on an interface?

Answers:

  1. Router(config-if)# ip 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
  2. Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
  3. Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1/24
  4. Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
  5. Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 subnet 255.255.255.0

68. Which of the following provides routing protocol support for IPX, Appletalk and IP networks simultaneously?

Answers:

  1. RIP v2
  2. OSPF
  3. IGRP
  4. EIGRP

69. What is the subnetwork to which IP address 10.70.50.255/18 belongs?

Answers:

  1. 10.70.10.0
  2. 10.70.50.0
  3. 10.70.32.0
  4. 10.70.0.0
  5. 10.0.0.0

70. What is the maximum number of paths supported by IGRP for load balancing?

Answers:

  1. Fou
  2. Six
  3. Twelve
  4. Infinite

71. What is the Administrative Distance (AD) of OSPF?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 120
  3. 110
  4. 90

72. What will happen if you declare an interface as passive interface in IGRP routing protocol?

Answers:

  1. The router will stop sending and receiving any dynamic updates
  2. The router will stop sending any dynamic updates but can still receive updates
  3. The interface will stop receiving any dynamic updates
  4. The interface will stop sending any dynamic updates but can still receive updates

73. What is the binary value of 157?

Answers:

  1. 11000111
  2. 10111001
  3. 11100011
  4. 10011101

74. What is the OUI portion of MAC address B4-3F-95-5F-1D-09 in binary?

Answers:

  1. 10110100-00111111-10010101
  2. 11100110-11001001-01110011
  3. 11000011-10000111-11110001
  4. 00111100-10010001-10111001

75. Which one of the following addresses can be used as a host address for the subnet 192.168.50.16/28?

Answers:

  1. 192.168.50.32
  2. 192.168.50.16
  3. 192.168.50.64
  4. 192.168.50.30

76. Which of the following subnet masks should you use on Router A and Router B serial links so that there is minimum wastage of IP addresses?

Answers:

  1. 255.255.255.255
  2. 255.255.0.0
  3. 255.255.255.0
  4. 255.255.255.252
  5. 255.255.255.254

77. Which of the following are stored in RAM?

Answers:

  1. Startup-config
  2. Running-config
  3. Routing Table
  4. All of the above

78. Which of the following commands show Cisco IOS image file name?

Answers:

  1. show startup
  2. show running
  3. show version
  4. show history

79. Which of the following statements are true for inter VLAN communication?

Answers:

  1. A router that supports inter VLAN communication is required
  2. The router must support the same encapsulation method as supported by the switch
  3. If the router has only one Ethernet interface, sub-interfaces must be configured
  4. All of the above

80. Which type of NAT uses different ports to map multiple IP addresses to a single global IP address?

Answers:

  1. Dynamic NAT
  2. NAT with overloading
  3. Static NAT
  4. All of the above

81. What do you understand from the following commands:

access-list 110 deny tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 110 permit ip any any

Answers:

  1. This access-list denies any Telnet traffic from network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0
  2. This access-list allows any IP traffic from any source to any destination
  3. This access-list denies any FTP traffic from network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0
  4. This access-list denies any FTP traffic to network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0

82. State whether True or False:

You can only create that number of VLANs which are equivalent to the number of ports on a switch.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

83. Which of the following VLANs is recommended by Cisco to be used as an administrative VLAN?

Answers:

  1. VLAN 0
  2. VLAN 1
  3. VLAN 1024
  4. VLAN 16

84. How many bearer(B) and data(D) channel/s are there in a standard ISDN BRI service?

Answers:

  1. 2B + 1D Channel
  2. 23B + 1D Channel
  3. 24B + 2D Channels
  4. 16B + 1D Channel

85. What is the command to show Frame relay map table?

Answers:

  1. Router(config)# show frame-relay map
  2. Router# show frame-relay
  3. Router(config-router)# show frame-relay table
  4. Router# show frame-relay map

86. State whether True or False:

You have two routers connected with point-to-point links using different encapsulation methods. They will be able to communicate with each other.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

87. Which of the following things are stored in RAM?

Answers:

  1. ARP Cache
  2. Running configuration
  3. Routing tables
  4. All of the above

88. Which statement is true about RID (Router ID) in OSPF?

Answers:

  1. It is always the highest IP address of active interfaces
  2. It is the highest IP address of all configured loopback interfaces
  3. It is locally significant
  4. It is only used for election of DR

89. Which encapsulation method will you choose if you want to connect a Cisco router and a non Cisco router with a serial connection?

Answers:

  1. HDLC
  2. PPP
  3. LAPD
  4. LAPB

90. Which key combination is used to interrupt the boot sequence of a router?

Answers:

  1. Esc + Ctrl
  2. Ctrl + Z
  3. Ctrl + Break
  4. Alt + Ctrl + Del

91. Which command is used to view the list of all active connections made to the console and VTY ports of your router?

Answers:

  1. show session
  2. show connections
  3. show lines
  4. show users

92. Which protocol uses port number 23?

Answers:

  1. FTP
  2. SMTP
  3. Telnet
  4. HTTP

93. What is the decimal equivalent of binary 11001110?

Answers:

  1. 207
  2. 250
  3. 206
  4. 192

94. Which of the following cables is not prone to electrical interferences?

Answers:

  1. Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)
  2. Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)
  3. Fiber Optic
  4. Copper wire
  5. Coaxial

95. How many access control lists can be applied on an interface?

Answers:

  1. One access control list in each direction for each protocol
  2. Two access control lists in each direction
  3. Unlimited
  4. Access control list cannot be applied on an interface

96. What is the command for copying a router’s IOS to a TFTP server?

Answers:

  1. copy ios tftp
  2. copy start tftp
  3. copy flash tftp
  4. copy flash-config tftp

97. You are not able to create a new VLAN and cannot delete or change existing VLANs on a switch. What could be the problem?

Answers:

  1. Trunk link is not configured properly
  2. The switch is in VTP Transparent mode
  3. The switch is in VTP Client mode
  4. None of the above

98. What is the network ID of IP address 172.16.40.0/20?

Answers:

  1. 172.16.16.0
  2. 172.16.36.0
  3. 172.16.32.0
  4. 172.16.0.0

99. What is the full form of ISDN?

Answers:

  1. International Subscriber Digital Network
  2. International Services Digital Network
  3. Internet Services Digital Network
  4. Integrated Services Digital Network

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Upwork Networking

Apache Server Test (2.0 Family) 2016

Published by:

1. Which of the following levels are available in the SSLVerifyClient directive?

Answers:

  1. none
  2. optional
  3. require
  4. optional_no_ca

2. Which are the two types of user authentication options available in the AuthType directive?

Answers:

  1. Basic
  2. MD5
  3. Digest
  4. Encrypt

3. Which protocols are available in the SSLProtocol directive?

Answers:

  1. SSLv2
  2. SSLv3
  3. TLSv1
  4. None of the above

4. Which of the following commands will you use to check the configuration files before starting the Apache server?

Answers:

  1. apachectl -t
  2. apachectl configtest
  3. apachectl -testconfig
  4. None of the above

5. Which of the following commands will you use to apply the changes made in the httpd.conf file without restarting the Apache server (installed through an rpm package) on a RedHat Linux system?

Answers:

  1. service apache apply
  2. service httpd apply
  3. service httpd reload
  4. service apache reload

6. Which of the following directives can we use for redirecting the log information to be received by a program on its standard input?

Answers:

  1. BufferedLog
  2. CustomLog
  3. LogFormat
  4. CookieLog

7. Which of the following directives sets how deeply mod_ssl should verify before deciding that the clients do not have a valid certificate?

Answers:

  1. SSLRequireSSL
  2. SSLVerifyClient
  3. SSLClientDepth
  4. SSLVerifyDepth

8. Which of the following configurations will prevent the proxy server from being used to access the google.com website?

Answers:

  1. <Proxy http://google.com/*> Order deny, allow Deny from all </Proxy>
  2. <Proxy http://google.com/*> Order allow, deny Allow from all </Proxy>
  3. <Proxy http://google.com/*> Order allow, deny Deny from all </Proxy>
  4. None of the above

9. On which of the following platforms can Apache be installed?

Answers:

  1. RedHat Enterprise Linux
  2. Solaris
  3. Windows
  4. Mac OS X
  5. SCO
  6. HPUX
  7. All of the above

10. Which of the following commands will you use on a RedHat Linux system to install the Apache-2.0.4-i386.rpm package?

Answers:

  1. rpm –q apache-2.0.4-i386.rpm
  2. rpm –e apache-2.0.4-i386.rpm
  3. rpm –ivh apache-2.0.4-i386.rpm
  4. None of the above

11. Which of the following commands will you use to run the Apache in the debug mode?

Answers:

  1. httpd -d
  2. httpd -D
  3. httpd -X
  4. httpd debug

12. Which of the following commands will you use to stop an Apache service via command line on a Windows NT based machine?

Answers:

  1. httpd.exe –k stop
  2. httpd.exe –k exit
  3. httpd.exe –k shutdown
  4. httpd.exe –s halt

13. State whether true or false:

The BufferedLogs directive causes the mod_log_config to store several log entries in memory and write them together to the disk, rather than writing them after each request.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

14. Which of the following log format strings denotes ‘Remote Host’?

Answers:

  1. %R
  2. %U
  3. %H
  4. %h

15. Which of the following directives will you use to include only all .conf files present in the ‘/usr/local/apache2/conf’ directory where ‘/usr/local/apache2’ is your ServerRoot directory?

Answers:

  1. Include /usr/local/apache2/conf/*.*
  2. Include /usr/local/apache2/conf/*.conf
  3. Include /conf/*.conf
  4. Include conf/*.conf

16. Which of the following directives tells the Apache to parse files for the SSI directives if they have the execute bit set?

Answers:

  1. Options +Includes
  2. XBitHack on
  3. SSI on
  4. ExecuteBit on

17. What is the default value of backlog in the ListenBackLog directive?

Answers:

  1. 255
  2. 256
  3. 511
  4. 512

18. Which of the following is true regarding the DSO list in the config file in Apache v1.3.X?

Answers:

  1. The DSO list must be in correct order
  2. The DSO list can be in any order
  3. The DSO list is not supported in Apache v1.3.X
  4. None of the above

19. Which of the following commands will you use to start the Apache server (installed through an rpm package) on a RedHat Linux system?

Answers:

  1. start apache service
  2. start httpd service
  3. service apache start
  4. service httpd start

20. Which of the following commands will you use to run the Apache as a service on a Windows NT based machine?

Answers:

  1. httpd.exe –n install
  2. httpd.exe –k install
  3. httpd.exe –s install
  4. httpd.exe –i install

21. In a Windows operating system, if the Apache is installed from a precompiled executable, what will be the extension of the module files?

Answers:

  1. .dll
  2. .so
  3. .mod
  4. None of the above

22. State whether true or false:

IPv6 addresses must be surrounded in square brackets in the Listen directive e.g.
Listen [2001:db8::a00:20ff:fea7:ccea]:80

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

23. Which of the following options are available for the LogLevel directive in the Apache?

Answers:

  1. alert
  2. debug
  3. info
  4. error
  5. All of the above

24. What is the default Apache access for <Directory />?

Answers:

  1. Allow from All
  2. Deny from All
  3. None of the above

25. How will you uninstall the ‘myapache’ service (the name that you gave to the Apache service earlier) on a Windows NT based machine?

Answers:

  1. httpd.exe –u uninstall –k “myapache”
  2. httpd.exe –k uninstall –u “myapache”
  3. httpd.exe –n uninstall –k “myapache”
  4. httpd.exe –k uninstall –n “myapache”

26. Which of the following will you use if you want users on your network (172.16.0.0) to have unrestricted access to a portion of your website but users outside your network to provide a password to access the same portion of your website?

Answers:

  1. Require valid-user Order allow,deny Allow from 172.16 Satisfy All
  2. Require valid-user Order allow,deny Allow from 172.16 Satisfy Any
  3. Require valid-user Order allow,deny Allow from All Satisfy Any
  4. Require valid-user Order allow,deny Deny from All Satisfy All

27. Which of the following modules allows the creation of web space for every user by using the public_html directory created in every user’s home directory?

Answers:

  1. mod_user
  2. mod_public
  3. mod_userdir
  4. mod_vhost

28. In a Windows operating system, which of the following commands will you use to shutdown the Apache gracefully?

Answers:

  1. httpd.exe –g shutdown
  2. httpd.exe –k kill
  3. httpd.exe –k shutdown
  4. None of the above

29. Which of the following commands will you use to remove the Apache -2.0.4-i386.rpm package from a RedHat Linux system?

Answers:

  1. rpm –q apache-2.0.4-i386.rpm
  2. rpm –e apache-2.0.4-i386.rpm
  3. rpm –ivh apache-2.0.4-i386.rpm
  4. None of the above

30. What does the depth of 1 mean in the SSLVerifyDepth directive?

Answers:

  1. Only self signed client certificates are accepted.
  2. The client certificate can be signed by the client himself/herself or has to be signed by a CA who is personally known to the server.
  3. The client certificate has to be signed by a CA who is personally known to the server.
  4. None of the above

31. In which of the following sections can we use the AllowOverride directive?

Answers:

  1. <Location> section
  2. <Directory> section
  3. <Files> section
  4. <DirectoryMatch> section
  5. Any of the above

32. Which of the following directives can we not use in the <Files> and the <FilesMatch> sections?

Answers:

  1. The Options directive
  2. The AllowOverride directive
  3. Neither of the above

33. How will you enable the ServerTokens directive only on one of the Virtual Hosts present on your Apache server?

Answers:

  1. ServerTokens All
  2. ServerTokens Full
  3. ServerTokens Vhost
  4. ServerTokens directive cannot be enabled only on one of the Virtual Hosts.

34. Which utility comes with the Apache for creating and updating user authentication files?

Answers:

  1. htaccess
  2. htpasswd
  3. passwd
  4. None of the above

35. Which of the following directives sets the contact address that the server includes in any error messages it returns to the client?

Answers:

  1. ServerContact
  2. ServerAddress
  3. ServerHost
  4. ServerAdmin

36. Which of the following directives is used to set the maximum length of the queue of pending connections?

Answers:

  1. MaxClients
  2. ListenBackLog
  3. MaxConnections
  4. None of the above

37. Which of the following is the correct method to set a DocumentRoot directive for ‘/usr/web’ folder in the Apache?

Answers:

  1. DocumentRoot /usr/web/
  2. DocumentRoot = /usr/web/
  3. DocumentRoot “/usr/web/”
  4. DocumentRoot /usr/web

38. Which user can use port numbers less than 1024 in unix/linux if they want to use other than the default port number 80?

Answers:

  1. root
  2. apache
  3. normal user
  4. All of the above

39. Which of the following is the default option for the LogLevel directive in the Apache config file?

Answers:

  1. alert
  2. debug
  3. info
  4. error
  5. None of the above

40. What is the default filename in the AccessFileName directive in the Apache config file?

Answers:

  1. .acl
  2. .htaccess
  3. .htpasswd
  4. All of the above

41. Which of the following commands will you use to compile and install the Apache Server on Unix or Unix-like systems?

Answers:

  1. ./configure
  2. make
  3. make install
  4. None of the above

42. Which command is used to check the version of the Apache server installed (using an rpm package) on a RedHat Linux system?

Answers:

  1. apache -v
  2. http -v
  3. httpd -v
  4. None of the above

43. If no port number is specified in the ServerName directive, which port number will the server use?

Answers:

  1. Port 80
  2. Port 8080
  3. It will use the Random port.
  4. It will use a port from the incoming request.

44. Which of the following directives allows the configuration of a trailing footer line under server generated documents like FTP directory listing etc.?

Answers:

  1. ServerSignature
  2. ServerTokens
  3. ServerFooter
  4. ServerDirectoryFooter

45. Which of the following directives sets the authorization realm for a directory for HTTP authentication?

Answers:

  1. AuthType
  2. AuthName
  3. AuthUserFile
  4. AuthRealm

46. State whether true or false:

<Location> sections are processed after <Directory> sections and .htaccess files are read after <Files> sections.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

47. Which of the following commands will you use to check whether any Apache rpm package is installed on your RedHat Linux system or not?

Answers:

  1. rpm –q apache
  2. rpm –e apache
  3. rpm –ivh apache
  4. None of the above

48. What is the default https port number?

Answers:

  1. 8080
  2. 8000
  3. 443
  4. 563

49. Which of the following is true regarding the ‘apachectl –k restart’ command?

Answers:

  1. It will kill all the parent and the children processes immediately and then restart them.
  2. It will kill all the children processes immediately but not the parent process and then restart new children processes.
  3. It will wait for the children processes to exit after their current requests and then restart both the parent and the children processes.
  4. It will read the config file again.

807 total views, 2 views today

Upwork Networking

Antispam and Antivirus Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which of the following actions can be taken while filtering SMTP spam traffic?

Answers:

  1. Delete the spam mail
  2. Redirect it to the spam mail box
  3. Return it to the sender.
  4. Tag the spam mail

2. Which of the following files are mostly infected?

Answers:

  1. .DOT
  2. .EXE
  3. .COM
  4. .TXT

3. What is the function of MTA(Mail Transfer Agent)?

Answers:

  1. It helps in reading the emails
  2. It receives and delivers the messages
  3. It resolves the names
  4. It detects emails carrying virus

4. What is DHA?

Answers:

  1. Directory Harvest Attack
  2. DNS Harvest Attack
  3. Direct Harvest Attack
  4. Dictionary Harvest Attack

5. How many keys are required if two parties communicate using Symmetric Cryptography?

Answers:

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. Four

6. What is S/MIME?

Answers:

  1. Secure Multipurpose Intranet Mail Extensions
  2. Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions
  3. Secure Multipurpose Internet Message Extensions
  4. Secure Multipurpose Intranet Message Extensions

7. Which of the following antispam measures are taken to reduce spam?

Answers:

  1. Legislative measures
  2. Organizational measures
  3. Behavioral measures
  4. Technological measures.
  5. All of the above

8. Which of the following are famous worm attacks?

Answers:

  1. MyDoom Worm
  2. Bagle Worm
  3. Netsky Worm
  4. Sasser Worm
  5. All of the above

9. Which of the following techniques are used by spammers to find valid/existent email addresses?

Answers:

  1. SMTP spoofing
  2. SMTP poisioning
  3. DNS poisioning
  4. Directory Harvest Attack

10. Daniel has deployed an antispam solution in his network. Positive detection of non-spam SMTP is called:

Answers:

  1. Negative detection
  2. False positive detection
  3. False negative detection
  4. Untrue detection

11. Which of the following techniques helps in cases of address forgery?

Answers:

  1. SMTP extensions
  2. Cryptographic authentication
  3. Path authentication
  4. Hybrid authentication

12. Which of the following types of virus lives in the boot sector?

Answers:

  1. Sector virus
  2. Parasitic virus
  3. Bootstrap sector
  4. Bootable virus

13. Which of the following is the Symmetric Algorithm used in cryptography?

Answers:

  1. MD4
  2. El Gamal
  3. IDEA
  4. RSA

14. Suppose you got a mail from someone saying that you have won a $1 billion and asking you to give him/her $4000 to claim your prize. Under which category does this type of spam mail lie?

Answers:

  1. Phishing and Fraud
  2. Spoofing mails
  3. Hoaxes
  4. Chain mails

15. What is botnet?

Answers:

  1. A software that runs automatically and autonomously.
  2. A software used for antispam
  3. A software used to manage MTA
  4. A software used to manage MDA

16. Which of the following goals cannot be achieved with the help of Symmetric Cryptography?

Answers:

  1. Nonrepudiation
  2. Confidentiality
  3. Integrity
  4. Availability.

17. To which of the following components does the MUA(Mail User Agent) forward the mail while sending it to another host in the e-mail flow?

Answers:

  1. Mail User Agent
  2. Firewall
  3. Router
  4. Mail Transfer Agent

18. What is the maximum key length of AES?

Answers:

  1. 56
  2. 156
  3. Variable
  4. 256

19. Which of the following are disadvantages of the Symmetric Key Cryptography?

Answers:

  1. Nonrepudiation.
  2. Scalability.
  3. Key distribution.
  4. Security.

20. Which of the following are antivirus measures?

Answers:

  1. Backup all the softwares and data.
  2. Disable the use of external media like floppies etc
  3. Install antivirus.
  4. If the antivirus does not recognize suspicious items, consult an antivirus professional.
  5. Update antivirus regularly
  6. All of the above

21. Which of the following are the ways through which virus spreads?

Answers:

  1. Floppy Disk
  2. CD
  3. Email attachments
  4. Network connection
  5. All of the above

22. Which of the following are categories of spam mails?

Answers:

  1. Phishing and Fraud
  2. Spoofing mails
  3. Hoaxes
  4. Chain mails
  5. All of the above

23. Daniel has deployed an antispam solution in his network. If a spam SMTP is accepted, it is called:

Answers:

  1. Negative detection
  2. False positive
  3. False negative
  4. Untrue detection

24. Ques:Which of the following are preventive antivirus measures?

Answers:

  1. Do not open attachments from suspicious sources.
  2. Delete chain and junk mails.
  3. Exercise caution while downloading from the internet
  4. Backup your files.
  5. All of the above

25. Which of the following ports is used by IMAP?

Answers:

  1. 139
  2. 137
  3. 143
  4. 142
  5. 25

26. What are zombies?

Answers:

  1. Antispam solutions.
  2. Remotely controlled hosts.
  3. Antivirus solutions
  4. Hackers

27. How many keys are required if two parties communicate using Asymmetric Cryptography?

Answers:

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. Four

28. Which of the following programs establishes modem connection with pay-per-visit resources?

Answers:

  1. Trojans
  2. Automatic dialers
  3. Worms
  4. Antivirus

29. Suppose you got a mail from the HSBC bank asking you to give your online bank account details. Under which of the spam mail categories does this mail?

Answers:

  1. Phishing and fraud.
  2. Chain Mails.
  3. Hoaxes.
  4. Brand spoofing.

30. What is Phishing?

Answers:

  1. Fraudulently acquiring sensitive information.
  2. An encryption technique
  3. An anti-spam technique
  4. A password building technique

31. Which of the following are direct harms caused by spam?

Answers:

  1. Loss of productivity
  2. Increased staff costs
  3. Increased infrastructure costs
  4. Increased downloading costs
  5. All of the above

32. Which of the following is the Hashing Algorithm?

Answers:

  1. AES
  2. 3-DES
  3. DES
  4. MD5

33. Which key is used to decrypt the message in PKI?

Answers:

  1. Public Key.
  2. Private Key.
  3. Pre-shared Secret Key.
  4. Hybrid Key.

34. What is Joe Job?

Answers:

  1. A virus
  2. An antivirus
  3. A spam attack
  4. An antispam

35. Which of the following are Email Security Protocols?

Answers:

  1. S/MIME
  2. PEM
  3. STE
  4. PME

36. Which of the following symmetric algorithms have variable key length?

Answers:

  1. AES
  2. Triple DES
  3. IDEA
  4. Rivest Cipher 4

37. What is Mail Exchanger(MX) Record?

Answers:

  1. Router route.
  2. Record in router.
  3. Record in DNS specifying the internet email route.
  4. Record in DHCP specifying the email route.

38. Which of the following measures should be taken to tackle spam mails?

Answers:

  1. Blocking and accepting on the basis of MTA IP address.
  2. Limiting the number of outgoing e-mails per account
  3. Authentication mechanisms
  4. Spam filtering.
  5. All of the above

39. Which of the following are different categories of viruses?

Answers:

  1. Parasitic
  2. Bootstrap sector
  3. Companion
  4. Link
  5. All of the above

40. What is the function of the Reverse DNS Look up Technique in identifying spam mails?

Answers:

  1. To check the sender’s email server attempting for spoofing
  2. To check the receiver’s email server attempting for spoofing
  3. To check the DNS server validity

41. What is IMAP?

Answers:

  1. Internet Messaging Application
  2. Interanet Messaging Application
  3. Interanet Message Access Protocol
  4. Internet Message Access Protocol

42. Which of the following are threats to Email Security?

Answers:

  1. Viruses
  2. Trojans
  3. Spams
  4. Phishing
  5. All of the above

43. Which of the following symmetric encryption algorithms is/are supported by S/MIME?

Answers:

  1. RSA
  2. DES
  3. 3DES
  4. SHA-1

44. Which of the following are the disadvantages of verification?

Answers:

  1. More complications
  2. Increased internet traffic
  3. Problems in sending valid bulk mails
  4. Insecurity against social engineering.
  5. All of the above

45. How many antivirus programs should be installed on a single system?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5

46. Which of the following are indirect harms caused by spam?

Answers:

  1. Malicious payload
  2. Fraud
  3. Loss of reputation
  4. Increased communication costs
  5. All of the above

47. Which of the following are the benefits reaped from spam by those associated with antispam measures?

Answers:

  1. Antispam software sales
  2. Antivirus software sales
  3. Increased revenue from advertising
  4. Bandwidth sales
  5. All of the above

48. What does “RBL” stands for in Email Security?

Answers:

  1. Realtime Blacking List
  2. Realtime Blocking List
  3. Realtime Blockhole List
  4. Realtime Blackhole List

49. Dave is fetching mails from a server lying at a remote location. Which protocol is he using to fetch the mails?

Answers:

  1. SMTP
  2. HTTP
  3. SSL
  4. S/MIME
  5. POP3

50. Which of the following programs is used by a user to send and receive emails?

Answers:

  1. Mail Transfer Agent
  2. Mail Delivery Agent
  3. Mail User Agent
  4. Mail Reading Agent

51. Which of the following are different types of spam filtering methods?

Answers:

  1. Blacklisting
  2. Rule based filtering
  3. Signature based filtering
  4. Bayesian filtering
  5. All of the above

52. Which of the following is used in a Directory Harvest Attack?

Answers:

  1. Worms
  2. Brute Force
  3. Trojans
  4. Viruses

53. Which of the following resembles the Joe Job attack?

Answers:

  1. A virus outbreak on the mail server
  2. Finding valid/existent email addresses
  3. Crashing of the mail server
  4. A spam attack that uses spoofed sender data and tarnishes the apparent sender’s reputation

54. Which of the following is an asymmetric algorithm?

Answers:

  1. MD5
  2. El Gamal
  3. IDEA
  4. SHA-1

55. Which of the following is used to entangle spammers?

Answers:

  1. MDA
  2. Spam mails
  3. Trojans
  4. Honey pots

56. Which of the following protocols is used on the sender side when an electronic mail is sent from one host to another?

Answers:

  1. SMTP
  2. POP3
  3. HTTP
  4. SSL
  5. TLS

57. Which of the following techniques are used to identify spam mails?

Answers:

  1. Blacklists/Whitelists
  2. Integrity Check
  3. Heuristics
  4. Content Filtering
  5. Reverse DNS lookup
  6. All of the above

58. Which of the following actions can be taken while filtering POP3 spam traffic?

Answers:

  1. Delete the spam mail
  2. Redirect it to the spam mail box
  3. Return it to the sender.
  4. Tag the spam mail

59. Which of the following is used to control zombies?

Answers:

  1. Viruses
  2. Worms
  3. Trojan horses
  4. Spam mails

699 total views, 1 views today

Upwork Networking

Active Directory Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which of the following commands are useful for troubleshooting Active Directory replication failure due to incorrect DNS configuration?

Answers:

  1. ipconfig/registerdns
  2. dcdiag /test:registerdns /dnsdomain
  3. dcdiag /test:connectivity
  4. ntdsutil

2. You are the network administrator, and your network consists of various branch offices located at different locations which are:
Location 1
Location 2
Location 3
Location 4
You want to allow secure dynamic updates in DNS in Location 1, 2 and 3. But Location 4 should not be able to edit DNS. Which of the following statements will fit in this scenario?

Answers:

  1. assign Location 1, 2 and 3 ‘Active Directory Integrated Zone’
  2. assign Location 4 as secondary Zone
  3. assign location 4 as primary zone
  4. assign Location 1,2,3 as primary zone

3. You are the network administrator responsible for handling and troubleshooting the DNS server configured in Windows Server 2003. You figure out later on that the DNS server is consuming high CPU usage. Which of the following checks will you do to restrict DNS usage?

Answers:

  1. Check if any virus scanning software is enabled
  2. Check if ipconfig/flushdns command is run
  3. Check if sms server is installed
  4. Check if active directory is installed��

4. Which of the following are ways of viewing RSoP reports?

Answers:

  1. gpresult /z >policy.txt from command prompt
  2. .html file from Advanced Security Information-Policy wizard
  3. Performance monitor
  4. dcdiag.log file

5. As the network administrator of a Windows 2003 network, when you were monitoring your network securities, you discovered that most of the users have been using the same password ever since their accounts were created. You want to secure your password policies so that users must change their passwords periodically. What will be your course of action?

Answers:

  1. Enforce password history
  2. Minimum password age
  3. Maximum password age
  4. None of the above

6. Which are the other aspects that an administrator must consider for the network to run effectively after running metadata clean-up to delete the remains of a removed domain controller in Windows Server 2003?

Answers:

  1. Relocate FSMO roles
  2. DHCP clients configuration will dynamically be updated for failed DNS server
  3. All application servers must point to the new live Global Catalog if removed DC is a Global catalog
  4. DNS forwarders configuration need not to be updated for failed DNS server

7. You work as a Network Administrator for your company running on Windows 2000 Active Directory based network. One day you discover that the partition having Active Directory database is out of space. How will you move Active Directory database and log files to a new volume on a different disk?

Answers:

  1. Restart the Active Directory in Safe mode
  2. Run ntdsutil to move database to a new location
  3. Restart the Active Directory in Directory Services Restore Mode
  4. Run csvde utility to restore database to a new location

8. Which of the following commands can be used to promote the DC (Domain Controller) from a backup of the system state data of an existing DC (Domain Controller)?

Answers:

  1. dcpromo /restore
  2. dcpromo /promo
  3. dcpromo /system
  4. dcpromo /adv

9. Which of the following components are contained in the sysvol folder?

Answers:

  1. Active directory log files
  2. NETLOGON
  3. Windows NT 4.0 system policies
  4. System state data back-up

10. DNS SRV resource records map the name of a service to the name of a server offering that service.Which of the following SRV entry helps clients to find a Windows Server 2003 dom PDC FSMO role holder in a mixed-mode environment.

Answers:

  1. _ldap._tcp..domains._msdcs.
  2. _ldap._tcp.
  3. _ldap._tcp.._sites.
  4. _ldap._tcp.pdc._ms-dcs.

11. You are the network administrator for your company. One user account named Mike often needs to be moved between sales and marketing group. But the changes are not taking effect. Which of the following FSMO role may be responsible for that?

Answers:

  1. RID Role
  2. Infrastructure role
  3. PDC emulator role
  4. Domain naming role

12. Your Company has different OUs named sales, production and finance. All are child objects under Departments OU. You created a new GPO used to assign software required for all departments. Sales and production users can see the shortcut in start menu and can successfully install the software but finance users report that this shortcut is not appearing in their start menu. What will you do?

Answers:

  1. Publish the software instead of assign
  2. Remove Block-Policy Inheritance from finance OU
  3. Grant all finance users to Domain Admins group
  4. Package is corrupt so rebuild it

13. Once DNS Advanced option is enabled from DNS console View tab in Windows Server 2003, which of the following things can be done ?

Answers:

  1. Cached data can be deleted record by record
  2. Zone transfer can be done forcibly
  3. SOA serial number can be incremented
  4. nslookup command can be run directly

14. Which of the following things can be done once the DNS Advanced option is enabled from DNS console View tab in Windows Server 2003?

Answers:

  1. Open network monitor
  2. Enable Advanced in View tab of DNS console
  3. Use performance monitor to view DNS cache
  4. Use Event Viewer from DNS console

15. You are the administrator of your company.Your network is running on Windows Server 2003 domain controller and Windows XP as a clients.You have configured Software Deployment to distribute softwares to users. You have published softwares but by using Group Policies. Softwares appear in Add/remove Programs in control Panel but when users try to install them, they get an error message “The feature you are trying to install cannot be found in the setup directory” and the setup fails. Identify the cause.

Answers:

  1. The software was not assigned
  2. Users were not the members of the administrative group
  3. Proper permissions to users on folders containing software image were not granted
  4. The server was not restarted

16. You are the network administrator of a company. Your company’s network has Windows 2003 Server and Windows 2000 Professional computers. You use a security policy to configure a server named Delta1. Now you have to deploy the security configuration on server Delta1 to the computers on your company’s network. How will you accomplish this task by using minimum efforts?

Answers:

  1. Create a new GPO linked to the domain. Include all the settings used in the server (Delta1) in this GPO
  2. Use the Security Configuration and Analysis snap-in to export all the security settings from server Delta1 to a template file. Then, import the template file into the GPO for applying to multiple computers
  3. Use the Security Configuration and Analysis snap-in to export all the security settings from server Delta1 to a template file. Then, apply the template to each computer by using the Security Configuration and Analysis snap-in
  4. All of the above

17. You want to transfer the FSMO role. When you tried to transfer it, the transfer was unsuccessful. What will you do now?

Answers:

  1. Seize the role
  2. Delete the role
  3. Copy the role
  4. None of the above

18. You are the network administrator of a company running on Windows Server 2003 environment.The network consists of a single forest that contains two domains named Domain-A and Domain-B.You are responsible for handling Domain-A having one Active-Directory Integrated zone server .Your company policies state that name resolution traffic from Domain-B should be locally resolved by Domain-A. What should you do ?

Answers:

  1. Create a primary zone for Domain-B
  2. Configure Domain-B as a forwarder
  3. Create a secondary zone for Domain-B on Domain-A
  4. Configure Domain-B as the DNS client of Domain-A

19. You are the administrator of an OU named WebServers, created in Windows Server 2003 domain. The IPSec policies are defined at Domain level and No Override is not selected. All websites are configured to allow only anonymous users. A new GPO is applied at WebServers OU restricting local Administrators group to login locally. Users report that they are unable to access any of the Web Sites on the servers. What will you do for allowing users access to the websites from the servers in WebServers OU without affecting overall security?

Answers:

  1. Add all users to the Domain Admins group
  2. Create a GPO that allows local Administrators and Guests to login locally and link GPO to WebServers OU
  3. Create a GPO that allows local Administrators and Guest to login locally and link GPO to Domain level
  4. Set Basic Authentication in each Web Server

20. You are the network administrator of a company called Expertrating. Your company’s network has a single Active Directory forest with a single domain named expertrating.com. Windows Server 2003 is running on all the servers and all the clients are Windows XP Professional computers. Your company has a test lab that contains a separate forest. You created a GPO (Group Policy Object) for testing and tested it successfully in that lab. Now, you want to implement this GPO on the network for all the computers and users in the domain. How will you accomplish this task by using minimum efforts?

Answers:

  1. Take a backup of the GPO created in the test lab by using the Group Policy Management Console and import it into the Domain
  2. Create a new GPO linked to the domain. Include all the settings used in the old GPO (which was used for testing) in this GPO
  3. Copy all the files in the SYSVOL folder from the test lab to the domain
  4. None of the above

21. A network consists of one Windows Server 2003 running as Domain Controller and 100 Windows XP Clients. The network administrator has created many OUs in domain and delegated control of OU to relevant administrators. His domain is configured with one OU, named sales, having one child, OU marketing. Two different administrators are appointed to be responsible for their respective OUs. But the marketing OU administrator complains that their OU is inheriting the Group Policies of its parent domain, even when they have blocked the inheritence. What may be the reason for that?

Answers:

  1. ‘No Override’ is enabled on sales OU
  2. ‘Block Policy Inheritance’ is enabled on domain
  3. Group policies are not refreshed
  4. ntdsutil is run to overcome the situation

22. You use Software deployment in Windows Server 2003 to distribute company’s softwares on your Windows XP clients. The software image is clean and successfully published to clients. Clients have installed softwares in their desktops. But, when they run the setup from desktop shortcut, it gives an error message. Which of the following may be the reason for this error?

Answers:

  1. Software image is corrupted
  2. Users have read only permission in the folder containing software image
  3. The server gets restarted
  4. Users with roaming profile are logging in two computers simultaneously

23. You are the network administrator for your company running Domain Controller on Windows Server 2003. The domain has a Windows 2000 server named production. The production server is not a domain controller. You are allowed to logon locally for making the configuration. You want to run a script that will change the current environment variables setting when users log in.What would be the appropriate course of action?

Answers:

  1. Create a logon script and apply it on default domain group policies
  2. Create a logon script and apply it on local group policies
  3. Create a start-up script and apply it on the Default Domain Controller Group Policies
  4. Copy the script to NetLogon share of the production server

24. Which of the following FSMO roles mostly affects the network users functionality immediately?

Answers:

  1. PDC Emulator role
  2. Infrastructure role
  3. Domain name master
  4. RID master role

25. Your company has three domains located at different locations:

perl.com
geneva.perl.com
portland.perl.com

All three domains are in the Native Mode. Your geneva.perl.com branch is going to shut down and you want to migrate all users in that domain to perl.com. How will you move the users?

Answers:

  1. movetree /start /s dc1.geneva.perl.com /d dc2.perl.com /sdn cn=users,dc=geneva,dc=perl,dc=com /ddn cn=users,dc=perl,dc=com
  2. Move the users from Active Directory Users and Computers
  3. Move computer object from Active Directory Users and Computers to perl.com
  4. movetree /continue /s dc1.geneva.perl.com /d dc2.perl.com /sdn cn=users,dc=geneva,dc=perl,dc=com /ddn cn=users,d=perl,dc=com

26. The network of ABC TOYS company consists of Windows Server 2003 and 5000 Windows XP Clients. Sometimes, users report missing data from the server. The network administrator wants to find the user deleting the files. He created a GPO and assigned it on the ABC Toys domain. Which actions should he audit?

Answers:

  1. Process tracking
  2. Account login events
  3. Object access
  4. Privileged access

27. Your company’s network has a single Active Directory domain. All servers run Windows Server 2003. You want to make an application available for all the users to install. You want to configure GPO for this. How will you complete this task?

Answers:

  1. Copy the application package on all the user computers one by one
  2. Publish the application with file extension activation
  3. Provide application CDs to users for manual installation
  4. All of the above

28. You are the network administrator of Windows 2003 domain. The domain has one OU named Sales.You are using Windows Installer to publish sales relevant software to user’s workstations. Currently, only members of Sales OU can run the software.But you want all users in the domain to be able to use the software from Start menu. What should you do ?

Answers:

  1. Assign the Windows Installer GPO from OU instead of publishing
  2. Remove current GPO from Sales OU, create a new GPO that will upgrade the installed package and apply newly created GPO to sales OU
  3. Remove the GPO from Sales OU,assign the GPO to domain and set the permissions to assign the package to all users
  4. Create a new GPO and assign the package to all users in the domain. Grant the membership of Domain Admins to all the users

29. The administrator for company ABC Toys configured RIS server in Windows Server 2003 for installing operating system Image to newly branded computers. But when he started the computers for obtaining addresses from RIS, they all are unable to connect to DHCP server. Later on, he discovered all branded computers were using network adapters that were not PXE compliant. How will he connect these computers to RIS server?

Answers:

  1. By creating RIS Bootable floppies from rbfg.exe
  2. By creating RIS bootable floppies from ASR
  3. By using riprep for installing image to client computers
  4. By instaling DHCP relay Agent

30. You are the administrator of a Windows 2003 domain. The domain has 100 users working on Windows XP. You want to allow all users to change their desktop setting if they try to work on any Windows XP computer. But their altered desktops should not be saved once they log off. What should you do in this scenario?

Answers:

  1. Edit GPO to set the customized desktop
  2. Change the ntuser.dat file to ntuser.man in profiles directory
  3. Schedule a batch to run at some interval to delete the user’s home directory on each client computer
  4. Configure a roaming profile for each user in the network

31. Your company’s network has a single active directory domain. The domain has an OU named Delta, which further has two child OUs named Bravo and Charlie respectively. You want to disable Windows Update Service on all the computers in the domain with the exception of computers in Charlie OU. Which of the following steps will you follow to complete this task with minimum efforts?

Answers:

  1. Create a new GPO linked to the Domain and disable Windows Update in User Configuration section of the GPO.Enable Block Policy inheritance setting on Charlie and Bravo OU
  2. Create a new GPO linked to the Domain and disable Windows Update in User Configuration section of the GPO.Enable Block Policy inheritance setting on Bravo OU
  3. Create a new GPO linked to the Domain and disable Windows Update in User Configuration section of the GPO.Enable Block Policy inheritance setting on Charlie OU
  4. Create a new GPO linked to the OUs Bravo and Charlie and disable Windows Update in User Configuration section of the GPO

32. Which of the following is a recommended tool for populating Active Directory with data from other directory services?

Answers:

  1. csvde
  2. ldifde
  3. ntdsutil
  4. ADSI Edit MMC snap-in

33. You are the back-up operator in a company and responsible for system-state data backup which is residing at two Windows Server 2003 domain controllers. How should you automate the process for every day at 12:00 mid-night?

Answers:

  1. Schedule a system state data backup for specified time
  2. Schedule a full back-up of each domain controller once a day
  3. Schedule a task to back-up ntds.dit file at late night
  4. Schedule a task to back-up the entire drive having active-directory database and log files at late night

34. When an administrator runs dcpromo command in Windows Server 2003 to
install Domain, setup fails with the following message
“Active Directory installation failed. The network location could not be
reached.” What may be the problem ?

Answers:

  1. DNS
  2. Default gateway
  3. Network adapter
  4. Administrative privileges

35. You are the administrator for ExpertRating’s Branch office. Your company domain is running on Windows Server 2003. Your company’s HQ is located at Atlanta and contains one Active-Directory Integrated DNS Server. An administrator at HQ instructs you to install and configure the DNS server as Active Directory Integrated zone. But when DNS is installed at the Branch office and a zone is tried to be created, the option to create Active-Directory Integrated zone is unavailable. What should be done in this scenario?

Answers:

  1. A new secondary Zone at the branch office configured with the address of DNS server located at HQ should be created
  2. The HQ DNS server should be configured to approve the branch DNS server as Name Server
  3. It should be ensured that HQ DNS server is configured as Standard Primary Zone
  4. It should be ensured that Branch office server is promoted as Domain Controller, and then an Active Directory Integrated Zone should be created

36. You are the network administrator responsible for handling DNS server running on Windows server 2003. You receive a report that Windows Server 2003 CPU utilization rate is constantly exceeding 85 % of the CPU.How will you check if this problem arises only because of the DNS server?

Answers:

  1. Check DNS counters performance from System Monitor
  2. Run ipconfig/displaydns command
  3. Use Network Monitor to check the number of queries resolved by DNS
  4. Use Event Viewer to check DNS performance

37. Your network consists of one parent domain running on Windows Server 2003 and 1000 Windows XP clients.Your company’s growth demands a child domain to be installed in one of the Branch Location.But when you run dcpromo command to join the child domain in parent,you get an error message that the existing domain cannot be contacted.What will you do to correct this problem?

Answers:

  1. Configure a domain controller of the child domain with the address of the DNS server of existing domain.
  2. Create an Active Directory Integrated zone of child domain in the existing domain controller
  3. Transfer PDC emulator role to a new child domain
  4. Use ntdsutil to transfer domain naming master role to child domain

38. Suppose there are network connectivity problems between your HQ at Atlanta and Branch office in Atlanta which are causing packets to drop. How will you check where and what percentage of packets is dropped from the HQ?

Answers:

  1. By running tracert from HQ to Branch
  2. By running tracert from Branch office to HQ
  3. By running pathping from HQ to Branch
  4. By running pathping from Branch to HQ
  5. By running Network Monitor

39. Your network consists of three Windows 2003 Domain Controllers named DC-1, DC-2 and DC-3. DC-3 doesnot hold any FSMO roles. After backing-up the System State Data Back-up of all DCs, DC-3 disk failed. You replaced the failed disk with a new disk and installed Server 2003 on the new disk. What should you do next on DC-3?

Answers:

  1. Restore the System State Data back-up from Directory Services restore Mode
  2. Run Windows Back-up on DC-1 and restore the same on DC-3
  3. Run Active Directory installation wizard to make the new computer a replica in the domain
  4. Force replication from Active Directory Sites and Services to DC-3

40. You are planning to deploy Windows XP professional to client computers using RIS. What should you do to find out the GUIDs of all client computers?

Answers:

  1. Use Network Monitor to view DHCPOFFER packets
  2. Use Network Monitor to view DHCPDISCOVER packets
  3. Use performance Monitor to view DHCPREQUEST packets
  4. Use Event Viewer to view RIS logging

41. State whether true or false.

We can only seize a role if the domain controller that holds that role fails.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

42. Your company’s domain consists of one OU named Sales. Sales OU consists of users from Sales Department. You need to assign one of the user of Sales OU named Paul, to create, add and modify user’s objects only.They should not be able to change group’s object properties.What should you do ?

Answers:

  1. Assign the Full Control permission on Sales OU to Paul
  2. Run Delegation of Control wizard on sales OU and grant him permission to create and manage user’s objects
  3. Grant Paul the Domain Admins rights
  4. Run Delegation of Control wizard on the Domain and select OU objects from custom tasks to delegate option

43. Which of the following roles is responsible for the uniqueness of Active Directory objects in each domain?

Answers:

  1. PDC Emulator role
  2. RID Master role
  3. Schema Master role
  4. Infrastructure Master role

44. You are the network administrator of a Windows 2003 network having Windows XP clients.You want to secure your network by implementing a policy that supports encrypted TCP/IP communication. Which of the following is most secured?

Answers:

  1. Enable Internet Connection Firewall(ICF)
  2. Enable Network Address Translator(NAT)
  3. Enable secure Server IPSec POlicy
  4. Enable Server IPSec Policy

45. The administrator is trying to reset the external trust. But clients are unable to access resources in the domain outside of the forest. Which of the following FSMO role must be available for this reset?
Answers:

  1. Domain naming master
  2. Infrastructure role
  3. RID role
  4. PDC Emulator master

46. Some applications are deployed that uses protocols that requires knowledge of the user’s password for authentication purposes. Which policy can provide the best result in this scenario ?

Answers:

  1. Enable ‘Store password using reversible encryption’ policy
  2. Decrease maximum service ticket lifetime for Kerberos
  3. Increase minimum password length
  4. Enable ‘Enforce password policy’

47. When running dcpromo command in Windows Server 2003, the administrator changed the NetBIOS name to production. But the real FQDN is sales.microsoft.com. After setup, what would be the FQDN?

Answers:

  1. sales.microsoft.com
  2. production.microsoft.com
  3. microsoft.sales.com
  4. sales.com

48. State whether true or false.

Once the forest functional level is raised to Windows Server 2003, one cannot add a Windows 2000 domain controller to the forest.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

49. You are the network administrator for a company called ExpertRating. Your network contains one Windows Server 2003 Domain Controller. One day, when you reboot your DC, you receive an error message “Cannot find NTOSKERNL.EXE”. Which of the following actions will you employ?

Answers:

  1. Automated System Recovery
  2. Last Known Good Configuration
  3. Safe Mode
  4. Directory Services Restore Mode

50. You are the network administrator of a company. Your company’s network has a single Active Directory domain named expertrating.com. This domain has two sites and each site contains two domain controllers. You purchase two servers and use each new server as a domain controller in each site, making a total of three domain controllers at each site. You want to configure the inter site replication to flow through these new domain controllers. What will you do?

Answers:

  1. Configure each new domain controller as preferred IP bridgehead server
  2. Configure each new domain controller as preferred SMTP bridgehead server
  3. Configure both new domain controllers as Global Catalog servers
  4. All of the above

51. After running authoritative restore command on crash Windows Server 2003 domain controller, how will it be checked if authoritative restore was successful by checking the version number increase in the directory?

Answers:

  1. ntdsutil
  2. replmon
  3. repadmin
  4. netdiag

52. Which of the following commands provide maximum information related to capacity statistics such as megabytes per server and per object class, and information on how to compare two directory trees across replicas in the same domain?

Answers:

  1. repadmin
  2. replmon
  3. netdiag
  4. dsastat

53. You are the network administrator of an Aerospace Company. Your company’s policy clearly states renaming of Guest account on all computers in domain. What would you do if you do not have the time to edit each name manually on each computer but you need to do it immediately?

Answers:

  1. Create a login script and apply it on Default Domain Group Policy
  2. Instruct user to enable remote desktop and change their name from server using remote desktop
  3. Use GPO to rename Guest account on the Default Domain Group Policy
  4. Send network message to all users to rename guest account

54. You are the network administrator of a company. Your company’s network has a single Active Directory domain. It has an OU named sales. You want to give permissions to a company’s junior network administrator to create child OUs for sales OU. He should also be able to verify the existence of the OUs created by him. Which of the following permission set will be enough to accomplish this if you want to give him minimum permissions?

Answers:

  1. Write All Properties, Create All Child Objects
  2. Read All Properties, All Extended Rights, Write All Properties
  3. List Contents, All Extended Rights
  4. Read All Properties, Create Organizational Unit Objects, List Contents

55. You are the network administrator of a company. Your company’s network has Windows 2003 Server and Windows XP Professional computers. The network consists of a single Active Directory Domain named Expertrating.com. All user computers have computer accounts in an OU named expertrating users. You want to configure the network in such a way that all user computers are automatically updated when new critical updates are issued. Servers need to be updated manually. How will you perform this task?

Answers:

  1. Create a new GPO linked to the domain. Configure the GPO so that all the updates are automatically downloaded and installed on the user computers from an internal server on which you install and configure Software Update Services
  2. Create a new GPO linked to the OU Expertrating users. Configure the GPO so that all the updates are automatically downloaded and installed on the user computers from an internal server on which you install and configure Software Update Services
  3. Create a new GPO linked to the domain. Configure the GPO so that all the updates are automatically downloaded and installed on the user computers from Microsoft Update Servers from the internet
  4. All of the above

56. Which of the following roles is responsible for allowing schema changes to Active directory objects?

Answers:

  1. PDC Emulator role
  2. RID Master role
  3. Infrastructure Master role
  4. None of the above

57. How can an administrator predict the physical requirements for installing Windows Server 2003 Domain Controller ?

Answers:

  1. By using performance monitor
  2. By using Active Directory Sizer tool
  3. By using Exmerge utility
  4. By using ADMT tool

58. Your company is planning to deploy Windows XP Professional on 200 computers. The network has one Windows Server 2003 domain controller (DC). You want the installation to be automated and centralized, and to be done only on authorized computers. What should you do?

Answers:

  1. Create a shared folder on DC, copy Windows XP installation files to that folder, and run unattended installation on  icensed computers
  2. Install RIS server on DC. Create user accounts for licensed users. Configure the RIS server to accept connections request only from authorized computers. Allow users to run unattended setup from the shared folder
  3. Install RIS server on DC. Create computer accounts for licensed computers. Configure the RIS server to accept requests only from authorized computers. Allow users to run unattended setup from the shared folder
  4. Copy installation files and answer file to a CD and run the setup from CD-ROM manually on each client computer

59. State whether true or false.

A PDC Emulator is required for authentication purposes for Windows NT 4.0 clients.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

60. You are a network administrator and responsible for handling your company’s domain, sales.microsoft.com running in Windows Server 2003. Your domain crashes accidentally and when you re-run the dcpromo command to promote it again, as domain controller with the same name, it fails. What can be the problem?

Answers:

  1. DNS zone conflicts with the same name
  2. Some old objects with the same name conflict with the new server
  3. Latest service pack is missing
  4. Run ipconfig/flusdhns command

61. Your company is running on Windows Server 2003 DNS server with slaves.You changed DNS file manually on DNS server.But slave still doesn’t pick up any changes. What will you do to apply those changes to slave?

Answers:

  1. Run ipconfig/flushdns command to clear DNS cache on slave
  2. Start IXFR from Primary zone to Slave
  3. Restart DNS services on slave
  4. The SOA record serial number should be edited manually on the primary copy of the zone

62. Which of the following are FSMO roles?

Answers:

  1. Schema role
  2. PDC Emulator role
  3. RID Master role
  4. Infrastructure Master role
  5. Domain Naming Master role
  6. All of the above

63. You are the network administrator for the Big North Fishing Company. The network consists of one Windows Server 2003 domain named bignorthfishingco.com. You are installing a new domain bignorthfishingco1.com but during promotion you get an error message: The domain name specified is already in use on the network. What is the cause of the problem?

Answers:

  1. Duplicate IP address is detected
  2. The default generated DNS domain name is already in use
  3. Administrative privileges are missing
  4. The default generated NetBios name is already in use

64. You are the administrator of a Windows 2003 domain. According to company policy, you created an OU and applied a GPO restricting Control Panel access to users. Later on, your company policy changed and you allow Control Panel access to some of the users in that OU. The policy also states that their membership be kept as it is without moving them to other groups or OUs.How will you allow Control Panel access to some users thereby restricting access to others in the same OU?

Answers:

  1. Deny Apply Group Policy permission to users from the properties of Control Panel GPO.
  2. Create a new security group, move all users to that group, and deny GPO permissions
  3. Add users to Domain Administrator group
  4. Select Block Policy Inheritance from the properties tab of OU.

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Upwork Mobile Technologies

iPhone Programming OS 4.0 Test 2016

Published by:

1. The genstrings tool can parse _____.

Answers:

  1. C files with .c filename extension.
  2. Objective-C files with .m filename extension.
  3. Java code files with .java filename extension.
  4. Nib files with any file name extension.

2. Which of the following need to be modified while localizing an application?

Answers:

  1. Nib files (windows, views, menus).
  2. Static text.
  3. Icons and graphics.
  4. Dynamic text generated by your program.

3. Which of the following terms are related to Memory Management in Objective-C?

Answers:

  1. alloc
  2. mutableCopy
  3. delete
  4. release

4. Which of the following properties of the UIImage class are not in use after iOS 4.2?

Answers:

  1. imageOrientation
  2. size
  3. leftCapWidth
  4. topCapHeight

5. What is the return value of SecRandomCopyBytes function of SecRandom class in iPhone OS 4.0 if the function completes successfully?

Answers:

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. -1
  4. true

6. You want to animate a layer’s opacity to 0 while moving it further away in the layer. Which of the following code snippets will you use?

Answers:

  1. theLayer.opacity=0.0; theLayer.zPosition=0;
  2. theLayer.opacity=0.0; theLayer.zPosition= -100;
  3. theLayer.opacity=0.0; theLayer.zPosition=100;
  4. theLayer.opacity=1.0; theLayer.zPosition=0;

7. What is the value type of UTTypeConformsTo key of uniform type identifier for iPhone OS 4.0?

Answers:

  1. array of dictionaries
  2. array of strings
  3. string
  4. dictionary
  5. integer

8. Which of the following statements is correct regarding functions fopen and open in generic C?

Answers:

  1. fopen returns an error if the file does exist.
  2. fopen does not automatically create the file if it does not exist.
  3. open returns an error if the file does exist.
  4. open returns a file descriptor.

9. Which of the following is the correct syntax for declaring a class in Objective-C?

Answers:

  1. @interface ClassName : ItsSuperclass { instance variable declarations } method declarations @end
  2. @implementation ClassName : ItsSuperclass { instance variable declarations } method declarations @end
  3. @class ClassName : ItsSuperclass { instance variable declarations } method declarations @end
  4. All are correct

10. Which of the following properties of the GKSession class is read-only?

Answers:

  1. available
  2. delegate
  3. displayName
  4. peerID
  5. sessionID

11. Which of the following debugging environments are provided by Xcode to find and squash bugs in your code?

Answers:

  1. Debugging from the text editor
  2. Mini Debugger
  3. Debugger window
  4. GDB debugger console
  5. All of the above

12. When your session becomes active, which of the following iPhone OS 4.0 audio session categories allows other audio to continue playing?

Answers:

  1. AVAudioSessionCategoryAmbient
  2. AVAudioSessionCategorySoloAmbient
  3. AVAudioSessionCategoryPlayback
  4. AVAudioSessionCategoryRecord

13. Which Audio Toolbox framework file defines an interface for reading and writing audio data in files in iPhone OS 4.0?

Answers:

  1. AudioConverter.h
  2. AudioFile.h
  3. AudioFileStream.h
  4. AudioServices.h

14. Which of the following is NOT the default behavior of an audio session in iPhone OS?

Answers:

  1. Playback is disabled and recording is enabled.
  2. When you move the Ring/Silent switch to the “silent” position, your audio is silenced.
  3. When you press the Sleep/Wake button to lock the screen, or when the Auto-Lock period expires, your audio is silenced.
  4. When your audio starts, other audio on the device—such as iPod audio that was already playing—is silenced.

15. Which of the following debugging tasks are provided by Xcode to find and squash bugs in your code?

Answers:

  1. Add and set breakpoints.
  2. View your call stack per thread.
  3. View the value of variables by hovering the mouse pointer over them.
  4. Execute a single line of code.
  5. All of the above

16. Apple’s implementation of HTTP Live Streaming supports DRM (Digital rights management).

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

17. Which Core Audio Services framework handles positional and low-latency audio services in iPhone OS 4.0?

Answers:

  1. Audio Toolbox
  2. Audio Unit
  3. AV Foundation
  4. Core Audio
  5. OpenAL

18. What are universal binaries in Xcode?

Answers:

  1. These are executable files that can contain code and data for more than one architecture.
  2. These are file references which are generated by the target, such as an application.
  3. These are indexes that contain symbolic information for your project.
  4. These are used to specify build location settings.

19. What is the function of the Code Sense feature in Xcode?

Answers:

  1. Code Sense helps in switching between different circumstances such as development or release.
  2. Code Sense maintains an index that contains important information for your project.
  3. Code Sense creates a cache for the files which are being used frequently.
  4. Code Sense maintains an index of files used in a project.
  5. Code sense is the code completion feature helpful in avoiding typing and syntax errors.

20. Which of the following animation class provides simple interpolation between values for a layer property?

Answers:

  1. CABasicAnimation
  2. CAKeyframeAnimation
  3. CATransition
  4. CAAnimationGroup

21. What will the hitTest: object of the CALayer class return if the point lies outside the receiver’s bounds rectangle?

Answers:

  1. nil
  2. true
  3. false
  4. 0

22. When the genstrings tool discovers a key string used more than once in a single strings file, it:

Answers:

  1. deletes the comments from the individual entries and leaves one comment string without generating a warning.
  2. merges the comments from the individual entries into one comment string and generates a warning.
  3. differentiates the comments from the individual entries into various strings and generates a warning.
  4. None of the above

23. What is the datatype of the clockwise parameter of the CGContextAddArc function of the CGContext class?

Answers:

  1. bool
  2. int
  3. CGFloat
  4. CGContextRef

24. Which of the following languages can be used to write the code for Xcode projects?

Answers:

  1. C
  2. C++
  3. Objective-C
  4. Objective-C++
  5. Java

25. What is the return value of function CGColorGetAlpha of class CGColor?

Answers:

  1. An alpha intensity value in the range [-1,1]
  2. An alpha intensity value in the range [-0.5,0.5]
  3. An alpha intensity value in the range [0,1]
  4. An alpha intensity value in the range [1,5]

26. How much time in seconds will it take to display an animation if you have 60 images using UIImageView class for the property animationDuration?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 10
  4. 15

27. What will the following method call do if the value of the accessed counter is 0?

– (void)discardContentIfPossible

Answers:

  1. It will discard the contents of the object because the counter is 0.
  2. It will not discard the contents of the object because the counter is required to be above 0.
  3. It will not discard the content of the object as a negative counter value is required.
  4. None of the above

28. Consider the following code with 2 alternatives of vector operations for OpenGL ES:

highp float f0, f1;
highp vec4 v0, v1;
Alternative 1: v0 = (v1 * f0) * f1;
Alternative 2: v0 = v1 * (f0 * f1);

Which alternative demonstrates proper use of vector operations?

Answers:

  1. Alternative 1
  2. Alternative 2
  3. Both alternatives demonstrate proper use of vector operations.

29. Which of the following are the Derivative types defined in Objective-C?

Answers:

  1. short
  2. long
  3. long long
  4. int

30. Which of the following properties of the CAKeyframeAnimation class represents an optional array of NSNumber objects that define the duration of each keyframe segment?

Answers:

  1. path
  2. keyTimes
  3. rotationmode
  4. continuityValues

31. Which Core Audio Service framework is used to record, play back, pause, loop, and synchronize audio in iPhone OS 4.0?

Answers:

  1. Audio Queue
  2. Music Sequencing Services
  3. Core Audio Clock
  4. System Sound Services

32. If you want to rotate an object using Core Animation, in radians, in the z axis, which of the following key paths of a layer’s CATransform3D matrix will you use?

Answers:

  1. rotation
  2. rotation.xy
  3. rotation.x
  4. rotation.y
  5. rotation.z

33. What is the default setting to refer to file locations in your Xcode project?

Answers:

  1. Relative to Build Product
  2. Relative to Project
  3. Relative to Enclosing Group
  4. Relative to <source path>
  5. Absolute Path

34. Before editing the Nibs, one should:

Answers:

  1. Unlock all connections.
  2. Lock all connections.
  3. Break all connections.
  4. None of the above

35. What is the default value of the borderColor property of the CALayer class?

Answers:

  1. 0
  2. nil
  3. opaque black
  4. dark black

36. What will be the return value of function ABPersonComparePeopleByName when person1 goes before person2 in class ABPersonComparePeopleByName in iPhone OS 4.0?

Answers:

  1. kCFCompareLessThan
  2. kCFCompareEqualTo
  3. kCFCompareGreaterThan
  4. None of the above

37. What happens if Xcode is not able to find a file or folder at the path defined for it in the project?

Answers:

  1. Xcode skips the file or the folder and continues execution.
  2. Xcode gives an alert with a description of the missing file.
  3. Xcode displays the item in red in the project window.

38. If the code is written using the Core Foundation and Foundation macros, the simplest way to create strings files is:

Answers:

  1. Using an option in the Preferences panel of Interface Builder.
  2. By merging the comments from the individual entries into one comment string.
  3. By unlocking all connections.
  4. By using the genstrings command-line tool.

39. Which of the following copy functions will you use in Objective-C to create an entirely new compound object?

Answers:

  1. Shallow Copy
  2. Deep Copy
  3. Both a and b

40. What is the data type of extendStart parameter of function CGShadingCreateAxial of class CGShading?

Answers:

  1. CGFloat
  2. CGPoint
  3. bool
  4. CGFunctionRef
  5. int

41. What is the datatype of the parameter inValidBitsPerChannel for the function CalculateLPCMFlags in CoreAudioTypes class in iPhone OS 4.0?

Answers:

  1. UInt32
  2. bool
  3. Float32
  4. UInt64

42. What will be the return value of CFHTTPMessageApplyCredentials function of CFHTTPMessage class if the authentication is successful?

Answers:

  1. TRUE
  2. FALSE
  3. nil
  4. 0
  5. 1

43. Which of the following statements regarding Objective-C are correct?

Answers:

  1. In Objective-C, the keyword for NULL is nil.
  2. In Objective-C, #import and #include compiler directives carry out the same operations.
  3. In Objective-C, for the object-oriented constructs (such as method return values), id is the default data type.
  4. The keyword nil has an id with a value of 0.

44. What is the default value of the remoteParticipantVolume property of the class GKVoiceChatService in iPhone OS 4.0?

Answers:

  1. 0.0
  2. 0.5
  3. 1.0
  4. 5.0

45. What is the default value of the fontSize property of the CATextLayer class?

Answers:

  1. 8.0
  2. 12.0
  3. 18.0
  4. 36.0

46. Which part of the HTTP Live Streaming is responsible for taking input streams of media and encoding them digitally?

Answers:

  1. Server component
  2. Distribution component
  3. Client software
  4. None of the above

47. Locking all connections before editing the Nib files can be achieved by using:

Answers:

  1. An option in the Start Menu.
  2. An option in the Preferences panel of Interface Builder.
  3. An option in the Preferences panel of Language Directory.
  4. Any of the above.

48. When you send an object a retain message in Memory Management using Objective-C, what will happen?

Answers:

  1. Its retain count is incremented by 1.
  2. Its retain count is decremented by 1.
  3. Its retain count remains same.
  4. Its retain count is set to 0.

49. When using a Cocoa framework, what will all ControlEvents method of UIControl class return in case it fails to create the object?

Answers:

  1. failure to create
  2. no object to return
  3. status code 420
  4. nil

50. By default, is the search interface visible in the UISearchDisplayController class?

Answers:

  1. Yes
  2. No

51. Which of the following reasons will return a value of NO for the instance method startVideoCapture of class UIImagePickerController?

Answers:

  1. Movie capture is already in progress.
  2. The device does not support movie capture.
  3. The device is out of disk space.
  4. All of the above

52. What will be the value of the clockwise parameter of the CGContextAddArc function of the CGContext class if you want to create a counterclockwise arc?

Answers:

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. True
  4. False

53. Which of the following types of audio files has NO size restriction?

Answers:

  1. AIFF
  2. WAVE
  3. CAF
  4. All of the above have file size restrictions.

54. Which of the following is NOT a parameter of function SecKeyDecrypt of the class SecCertificate in iPhone OS 4.0?

Answers:

  1. key
  2. padding
  3. cipherText
  4. certificate

55. Which of the following defined types is a dynamic object type in Objective-C?

Answers:

  1. id
  2. Class
  3. SEL
  4. BOOL

56. What is the default value of allowsEditing property of UIImagePickerController class in iPhone OS 4.0?

Answers:

  1. NO
  2. YES
  3. enable
  4. disable

57. Which of the following OpenGL ES objects is a simple 2D graphics image in a specified format?

Answers:

  1. texture
  2. buffer
  3. shaders
  4. renderbuffer
  5. framebuffers

58. Which symbol is used as a syntactic marker for blocks of code in iPhone OS 4.0?

Answers:

  1. ~
  2. $
  3. ^
  4. *

59. Which of the following methods is used for the purpose of creating your view objects in memory management?

Answers:

  1. Initialization methods
  2. loadView
  3. viewDidLoad
  4. dealloc

60. What will happen if an application is running and the user presses the Home button in iPhone OS 4.0 with 3GS?

Answers:

  1. The application will be terminated.
  2. The application will be shifted to background execution context.
  3. The application will continue to run until its execution ends.
  4. The application will be paused.

61. What is the functionality of the beta parameter of function catlas_caxpby in class cblas?

Answers:

  1. Input vector X
  2. Input vector Y
  3. Scaling factor for X
  4. Scaling factor for Y

62. Which of the following are NOT a property of UIImagePickerController class in iPhone OS 4.0?

Answers:

  1. cameraCaptureMode
  2. mediaTypes
  3. startVideoCapture
  4. takePicture
  5. videoQuality

63. While opening Nib files, which of the following should not be ignored?

Answers:

  1. Objects in a Nib file typically have connections between them that should not be broken.
  2. If Objects in a Nib file have broken connections, they should not be restored.
  3. The size of the files.
  4. None of the above

64. Which of the following directives are used to declare and define classes, categories, and protocols?

Answers:

  1. @interface
  2. @implementation
  3. @protocol
  4. @class
  5. @end

65. What will happen if your filename ExampleImage.png is being called as follows:

[UIImage imageNamed:@”ExampleImage.PNG”]

Answers:

  1. The image file will load in the simulator but not in iPhone OS 4.0 because it is case sensitive.
  2. The image file will load in iPhone OS 4.0 but not in the simulator because it is case sensitive.
  3. The file will load in both the simulator and iPhone OS 4.0 because they are both case insensitive.
  4. The file will load neither in the simulator nor in iPhone OS 4.0 because they are both case sensitive.

66. What type of value is assigned to the loc-args child property of alert property in an Apple Push Notification?

Answers:

  1. string
  2. array of strings
  3. number
  4. dictionary

67. What will the following method definition do if the value of the accessed counter is 0?

– (void)discardContentIfPossible

Answers:

  1. It will discard the contents of the object because the counter is 0.
  2. It will not discard the contents of the object because the counter is required to be above 0.
  3. It will not discard the content of the object as a negative counter value is required.
  4. None of the above

68. Which of the following properties of ADBannerView class are read-only?

Answers:

  1. bannerLoaded
  2. currentContentSizeIdentifier
  3. bannerViewActionInProgress
  4. delegate
  5. requiredContentSizeIdentifiers

69. Which of the following are new features to have been introduced in iPhone OS 4.0?

Answers:

  1. Multitasking
  2. Apple Push Notification Service
  3. Local Notification
  4. Gesture Recognizers

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Upwork Mobile Technologies

iOS Programming Test 2016

Published by:

1. Consider the following code:

(BOOL)application:(UIApplication *)application didFinishLaunchingWithOptions:(NSDictionary *)launchOptions {

// Set Background Color/Pattern
self.window.backgroundColor = [UIColor blackColor];
self.tabBarController.tabBar.backgroundColor = [UIColor clearColor];
//self.window.backgroundColor = [UIColor colorWithPatternImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@”testbg.png”]];

// Set StatusBar Color
[[UIApplication sharedApplication] setStatusBarStyle:UIStatusBarStyleBlackTranslucent];

// Add the tab bar controller’s current view as a subview of the window
self.window.rootViewController = self.tabBarController;
[self.window makeKeyAndVisible];
return YES;
}

How can the error be corrected that gets thrown in the console, “Applications are expected to have a root view controller at the end of application launch”?

Answers:

  1. self.window = [[[UIWindow alloc] initWithFrame:[[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds]] autorelease];
  2. MenuViewController *menuViewController = [[MenuViewController alloc]init]; self.window.rootViewController = menuViewController;
  3. Both
  4. None of above

2. Which of the following allows it to determine if an application is running on iPhone, or if it’s running on an iPod Touch?

Answers:

  1. NSString *deviceType = [UIDevice currentDevice].model; if([deviceType isEqualToString:@”iPhone”])
  2. NSString *deviceType = [UIDevice currentDevice].Size; if([deviceType isEqualToString:@”iPhone”])
  3. NSString *deviceType = [UIDevice currentDevice].device; if([deviceType isEqualToString:@”Device”])
  4. NSString *deviceType = [UIDevice currentDevice].iPhone; if([deviceType isEqualToString:@”iPhone”])

3. What is true about ARC and manual memory management?

Answers:

  1. Always nil out properties in dealloc under ARC and manual memory management.
  2. Do not have to nil out properties in dealloc under ARC and manual memory management.
  3. nil out properties in dealloc under ARC but not in manual memory management.
  4. nil out properties in dealloc under manual memory management but not in ARC.

4. What does the “strong” property attribute do?

Answers:

  1. It does not extend the lifetime of the object it points to, and automatically becomes nil.
  2. It specifies a reference that does not keep the referenced object alive and is not set to nil.
  3. It makes the object alive, as long as there is a strong pointer to it.
  4. It specifies a reference that does not keep the referenced object alive and is not set to nil.

5. Which of the following is the best practice to find an active internet connection?

Answers:

  1. – (BOOL) connectedToInternet { Reachability *reachability = [Reachability reachabilityForInternetConnection]; NetworkStatus networkStatus = [reachability currentReachabilityStatus]; return !(networkStatus == NotReachable); }
  2. – (BOOL) connectedToInternet { NSString *URLString = [NSString stringWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:@”http://www.google.com”]]; return ( URLString != NULL ) ? YES : NO; }
  3. – (BOOL) connectedToInternet { NSURL *URLString = [NSURL URLWithString:@”http://www.google.com”]; NSData *data = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:URLString]; if (data) return YES; else return NO; }
  4. – (BOOL) connectedToInternet { NSMutableURLRequest *request = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL: [NSURL URLWithString:@”http://www.google.com/”]]; [request setHTTPMethod:@”HEAD”]; NSHTTPURLResponse *response; [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&response error: NULL]; return ([response statusCode] == 200) ? YES : NO; }

6. What gets returned if XIB is not properly connected to a parent controller?

Answers:

  1. EXEC_BAD_ACCESS
  2. SIGABRT
  3. SIGKILL
  4. None of these.

7. What is the use of performSelector in iOS?

Answers:

  1. To add a class delegate
  2. To define a class
  3. To call a method of a class
  4. To add a selector method

8. Which of the following is the correct way to get the value of the first object of a NsMutableArray stored in another NsMutableArray?

Answers:

  1. [[myArray objectAtIndex:0] objectAtIndex:0];
  2. [myArray objectAtIndex:0]
  3. [[[myArray objectAtIndex:0] objectAtIndex:0]objectAtIndex:0];
  4. [myArray firstObject]

9. What is the maximum size of an iOS application?

Answers:

  1. 20 MB
  2. 50 MB
  3. 1 GB
  4. 2 GB

10. Which of the following is the correct way to set the font size of UIButton title label?

Answers:

  1. someButton.font = [UIFont systemFontOfSize: 15];
  2. someButton.titleLabel.font = [UIFont systemFontOfSize: 15];
  3. [someButton setFont: [UIFont systemFontOfSize: 15]];
  4. All of the above

11. Which of the following frameworks is needed to apply a border to an object?

Answers:

  1. UIKit
  2. CoreGraphics
  3. QuartzCore
  4. Foundation

12. How can it be detected if the app is running on an iPhone 5?

Answers:

  1. if(UI_USER_INTERFACE_IDIOM() == UIUserInterfaceIdiomPhone5)
  2. if([[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds].size.height == 568)
  3. if([[UIScreen mainScreen] bounds].size.height == 1136)
  4. if([[UIDevice currentDevice].model isEqualToString:@”iPhone5″])

13. Which of the following is not a valid Touch method with respect to Cocoa Touch programming?

Answers:

  1. – (void)touchesBegan:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event
  2. – (void)touchesMoved:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event
  3. – (void)touchesEnded:(NSSet *)touches withEvent:(UIEvent *)event
  4. None of above

14. Which of the following will return the device’s current location?

Answers:

  1. CLLocationManager locationManager = [[CLLocationManager alloc] init]; [locationManager startUpdatingLocation];
  2. CLLocationManager locationManager = [[CLLocationManager alloc] init]; [locationManager updateLocation];
  3. CLLocationManager locationManager = [[CLLocationManager alloc] init]; [locationManager getLocation];
  4. CLLocationManager locationManager = [[CLLocationManager alloc] init]; [locationManager findLocation];

15. Which of the following is the correct way to print out stack/trace to the console/log in Cocoa application?

Answers:

  1. NSLog(@”%@”,[NSThread callStackSymbols]);
  2. NSLog(@”%@”,[NSThread callStackReturnAddresses ])
  3. NSLog(@”%@”,[NSThread currentThread]);
  4. None of the above.

16. Which of the following is not a valid UIGestureRecognizer?

Answers:

  1. UITapGestureRecognizer
  2. UIZoomGestureRecognizer
  3. UIRotationGestureRecognizer
  4. UIPanGestureRecognizer

17. Which of the following will change the placeholder text color in UITextField?

Answers:

  1. textField.placeHolder.textColor = [UIColor redColor];
  2. textField.placeHolder.textLabel.textColor = [UIColor redColor];
  3. textField.placeHolder.color = [UIColor redColor];
  4. None of the above.

18. Which of the following framework is needed to round corners of UILabel?

Answers:

  1. UIKit
  2. CoreGraphics
  3. QuartzCore
  4. CoreAnimation

19. Which of the following is not a valid icon size for any iOS device (iPhone, iPod, iPad)?

Answers:

  1. 114 x 114
  2. 144 x 144
  3. 72 x 72
  4. 64 x 64

20. Which of the following is not a valid UIGestureRecognizer?

Answers:

  1. UITapGestureRecognizer
  2. UIZoomGestureRecognizer
  3. UIRotationGestureRecognizer
  4. UIPanGestureRecognizer

21. Which of the following will set an image on UIButton?

Answers:

  1. button.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@”btn_img.png”];
  2. button.imageView.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@”btn_img.png”];
  3. [button setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@”btn_img.png”] forState:UIControlStateNormal];
  4. [button setImageView:[UIImage imageNamed:@”btn_img.png”] forState:UIControlStateNormal];

22. Select all incorrect bundle ID(s):

Answers:

  1. com.company.appName
  2. com.appName
  3. appName
  4. com.company-name.app-name

23. Which of the following will set the font of UISegmentedControl?

Answers:

  1. UIFont *font = [UIFont boldSystemFontOfSize:12.0f]; NSDictionary *attributes = [NSDictionary dictionaryWithObject:font forKey:UITextAttributeFont]; [segmentedControl setTitleTextAttributes:attributes forState:UIControlStateNormal];
  2. [[UISegmentedControl appearance] setTitleTextAttributes:[NSDictionary dictionaryWithObjectsAndKeys:[UIFont fontWithName:@”STHeitiSC-Medium” size:13.0], UITextAttributeFont, nil] forState:UIControlStateNormal];
  3. segmentedControl.transform = CGAffineTransformMakeScale(.6f, .6f);
  4. None of these.

24. Which of the following correctly sets an image on UIButton?

Answers:

  1. button.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@”button_img.png”];
  2. button.imageView.image = [UIImage imageNamed:@”button_img.png”];
  3. [button setImage:[UIImage imageNamed:@”button_img.png”] forState:UIControlStateNormal];
  4. [button setImageView:[UIImage imageNamed:@”button_img.png”] forState:UIControlStateNormal];

25. Which of the following font packages are supported by Cocoa-Touch?

Answers:

  1. .ttf (True Type Font)
  2. .ttc (True Type font Collection)
  3. .otf (Open Type Font)
  4. .dFont (MAC OS X Data Fork Font)

26. Which of the following is not an Open Source Framework/Library?

Answers:

  1. MBProgressHUD
  2. ASIHTTPRequest
  3. RestKit
  4. StoreKit

27. Which of the following is the best way to add a UIToolbar above keyboard?

Answers:

  1. -(void)keyboardWillShow:(NSNotification *)notification { [self.view addSubview:toolbar]; }
  2. -(void)textFieldDidBeginEditing:(UITextField *)textField { [self.view addSubview:toolbar]; }
  3. Always keep UIToolBar visible on screen.
  4. -(void)keyboardWillHide:(NSNotification *)notification { [self.view addSubview:toolbar]; }

28. Select which of the following is not UITableViewCellSelectionStyle values?

Answers:

  1. UITableViewCellSelectionStyleNone
  2. UITableViewCellSelectionStyleBlue
  3. UITableViewCellSelectionStyleLightGray
  4. UITableViewCellSelectionStyletGray

29. What is the correct method to define a delegate object in an ARC Environment?

Answers:

  1. @property (nonatomic, weak) id <MyClassDelegate> delegate;
  2. @property(nonatomic,retain) id <MyClassDelegate> delegate;
  3. @property(nonatomic,weak) <MyClassDelegate> delegate;
  4. @property(nonatomic, weak) NSObject *delegate;

30. Which of the following is the best practice to find active internet connection?

Answers:

  1. – (BOOL) connectedToInternet { Reachability *reachability = [Reachability reachabilityForInternetConnection]; NetworkStatus networkStatus = [reachability currentReachabilityStatus]; return !(networkStatus == NotReachable); }
  2. – (BOOL) connectedToInternet { NSString *URLString = [NSString stringWithContentsOfURL:[NSURL URLWithString:@”http://www.google.com”]]; return ( URLString != NULL ) ? YES : NO; }
  3. – (BOOL) connectedToInternet { NSURL *URLString = [NSURL URLWithString:@”http://www.google.com”]; NSData *data = [NSData dataWithContentsOfURL:URLString]; if (data) return YES; else return NO; }
  4. – (BOOL) connectedToInternet { NSMutableURLRequest *request = [NSMutableURLRequest requestWithURL: [NSURL URLWithString:@”http://www.google.com/”]]; [request setHTTPMethod:@”HEAD”]; NSHTTPURLResponse *response; [NSURLConnection sendSynchronousRequest:request returningResponse:&response error: NULL]; return ([response statusCode] == 200) ? YES : NO; }

31. What will be output of following code?
NSLog(@”%.2f”,[[UIDevice currentDevice].systemVersion floatValue]);

Answers:

  1. 6.1.0
  2. 6.1.2
  3. 6.10
  4. 6.12

32. What is the difference between new and [[alloc]init] in iOS?

Answers:

  1. [[alloc]init] is used to create an object but new is not used to create an object.
  2. Neither [[alloc]init] nor new is used for creating an object.
  3. No difference. Both [[alloc]init] and new are used to create an object.
  4. [[alloc]init] is not used to create object but new is used to an create object.

33. How can the application name of an iOS project be changed?

Answers:

  1. Change Bundle Display Name from info.plist
  2. Rename Project
  3. Change bundle identifier
  4. Create a new project with New name

34. What could be the probable result if selector is unknown or undefined?

Answers:

  1. Causes memory leak
  2. Causes application to terminate with error
  3. Nothing will happen
  4. None of above

35. Is it possible to deploy beta build on any device?

Answers:

  1. Yes beta build can be deployed on any iOS device.
  2. Beta build can be deployed only on devices that are included in Mobile Provision certificate while compiling build.
  3. Beta Build can be deployed only on Simulators.
  4. All of above

36. Which one is true regarding integrating and using custom fonts in an iOS application?

Answers:

  1. Apple rejects the applications that use custom fonts.
  2. Adding fonts to your app plist allows usage directly in the app.
  3. There is no direct way to add fonts; third party APIs are the only way.
  4. You can add fonts, but only if they are provided by Apple.

37. Which of the following is the correct way to set UIButton’s Highlight Tint color programmatically?

Answers:

  1. [button setColor:[UIColor grayColor]];
  2. [button setTintColor:[UIColor grayColor]];
  3. [button setColor:[UIColor grayColor]];
  4. [button TintColor:[UIColor grayColor]];

38. Which of the following properties would be used to draw a shadow under UIView?

Answers:

  1. CGContextRestoreShadowState
  2. CGContextRestoreGState
  3. CGContextSetShadow();
  4. CGContextshadowState

39. Which of the following is the correct way to check whether the view controller view is loaded or visible?

Answers:

  1. if (viewController.isViewLoaded || tabbarController.view.window) { // viewController is visible }
  2. if([[[self tabBarController] selectedViewController] isEqual:self]){ //we’re in the active controller }else{ //we are not }
  3. if (viewController.isLoaded && viewController.view.) { // viewController is visible }
  4. if (viewController.isViewLoaded && viewController.view.window) { // viewController is visible }

40. Which of the following is the correct way to transfer data from one view controller to another?

Answers:

  1. EditingViewController *controller = [[EditingViewController alloc] initWithNibName:@”EditingView” bundle:nil]; controller.editedObject = book; … [self.navigationController pushViewController:controller animated:YES]; [controller release]; In the Editing View (EditingViewController): – (IBAction)save { … [editedObject setValue:datePicker.date forKey:editedFieldKey]; [editedObject setValue:textField.text forKey:editedFieldKey]; } [self.navigationController popViewControllerAnimated:YES]; }
  2. NSString *commString; in appDelegate. And then when you submit the uitextfield value just assign that text field value to the appDelegate.commString use this in the next view. ProjectNameAppDelegate *appDelegate = [[UIApplication sharedApplicatoin] delegate]; appDelegate.commString = textField.text;
  3. Both 1 and 2 methods are correct.
  4. None of above are correct.

41. Which of the following UILabel properties help adjust text within a UILabel?

Answers:

  1. lineBreakMode
  2. adjustsFontSizeToFitWidth
  3. numberOfLines
  4. drawTextInRect:

42. Which of the following is the correct way to set the Navigation Bar Color of the Tab Bar Configure Menu?

Answers:

  1. “UINavigationController *navigationController; … navigationController.navigationBar.tintColor = [UIColor blackColor];”
  2. “UINavigationController *navigationController; … navigationController.tintColor = [UIColor blackColor];”
  3. “UINavigationController *navigationController; … navigationController.color = [UIColor blackColor];”
  4. “UINavigationController *navigationController; … navigationController.navigationBar.Color = [UIColor blackColor];”

43. What does EXC_BAD_ACCESS signal received mean in Xcode?

Answers:

  1. Due to warning in code
  2. “Owning” the memory but forgetting to release
  3. Testing on a device without registering UDID
  4. Using incorrect delegate methods

44. Which of the following is best JSON library to be used in iOS applications?

Answers:

  1. SBJSON
  2. JSON kit
  3. Touch JSON
  4. None of these

45. How can an SMS be sent programmatically from the iPhone (iOS 4.0 or later)?

Answers:

  1. Using MFMessageComposeViewController
  2. [[UIApplication sharedApplication] openURL: @”sms:PHONE-NUMBER”];
  3. Both A &B are correct answers
  4. The official SDK/Cocoa Touch doesn’t allow sending SMSs programmatically

46. What is the difference between assign and retain in Objective-C?

Answers:

  1. assign – Specifies that a copy of the object should be used for assignment. The previous value is sent a release message. retain – Specifies that the setter uses simple assignment. The previous value is sent a release message.
  2. assign – Specifies that the setter uses simple assignment. This is the default. retain – Specifies that retain should be invoked on the object upon assignment. The previous value is sent a release message.
  3. assign – Increases the count of an object by 1. Takes ownership of an object. retain – Decreases the retain count of an object by 1. Relinquishes ownership of an object.
  4. assign – Makes a assign of an object, and returns it with retain count of 1. If you copy an object, you own the copy. retain – Specifies that a retain of the object should be used for assignment. The previous value is sent a release message.

47. Which property would be used to get the UDID of UIDevice on iOS?

Answers:

  1. [UIDevice UDIDString]
  2. [UIDevice uniqueIdentifier]
  3. -[UIDevice identifierForVendor]
  4. None of these

48. When does this behavior usually happen?
“Xcode Message: finished running <my app>” on targeted device shows, but nothing happens

Answers:

  1. If the app was ran on earlier devices (3G or 3GS) and arm6 was not added in Require Device Capabilities.
  2. If app was built and ran on version 3.2 or earlier of Xcode and arm7 was not added in Require Device Capabilities.
  3. If Bundle Identifier used in the project is being used by another project
  4. When some another application is already running on device
  5. When the device is locked with a passcode

49. Is it possible to set multiple architecture from Build Settings tab in Xcode for a project?

Answers:

  1. Yes
  2. No
  3. only in Xcode 4.5 or later
  4. only in Xcode 4.5 or previous

50. Which framework can be used to call SOAP web services in iOS applications?

Answers:

  1. gSOAP
  2. ASIHTTP framework
  3. wsdl2objc framework
  4. None of these

51. What property in info.plist handles the association of file types in an iPhone application?

Answers:

  1. LSItemContentTypes
  2. LSHandlerRank
  3. CFBundleTypeName
  4. CFBundleTypeRole

52. Which method of Objective-C handles detecting the shake gesture on an iOS device?

Answers:

  1. + (UIAccelerometer *)sharedAccelerometer
  2. – (void) accelerometer:(UIAccelerometer *)accelerometer didAccelerate:(UIAcceleration *)acceleration
  3. – (void) accelerometer:(UIAccelerometer *)accelerometer willAccelerate:(UIAcceleration *)acceleration
  4. – (void) accelerometer:(UIAccelerometer *)accelerometer beginAccelerate:(UIAcceleration *)acceleration

53. Which one is the best resolution for the following error?
“A valid signing identity matching this profile could not be found in your keychain”

Answers:

  1. Installing the certificate file in your keychain
  2. Renewing your provisioning profile
  3. Installing the private key in your keychain
  4. Renewing your Apple developer account.

54. What is the best way to show multiple lines text in the UILabel?

Answers:

  1. CGRect currentFrame = myLabel.frame; CGSize max = CGSizeMake(myLabel.frame.size.width, 500); label.font = [UIFont systemFontOfSize:13.0]; CGSize expected = [myString sizeWithFont:myLabel.font]; myLabel.numberOfLines = 0;
  2. CGRect currentFrame = myLabel.frame; CGSize max = CGSizeMake(myLabel.frame.size.width, -1); CGSize expected = [myString sizeWithFont:myLabel.font]; myLabel.numberOfLines = -1;
  3. myLabel.numberOfLines = 0; CGRect currentFrame = myLabel.frame; CGSize max = CGSizeMake(myLabel.frame.size.width, 500); CGSize expected = [myString sizeWithFont:myLabel.font constrainedToSize:max lineBreakMode:myLabel.lineBreakMode]; currentFrame.size.height = expected.height; myLabel.frame = currentFrame;
  4. You have to use UITextView for this purpose, otherwise Apple will rejects your app submission

55. Which of the following correctly describes when the – (void)viewDidUnload method is called?

Answers:

  1. When the application launches.
  2. When any view appears.
  3. When a view is released.
  4. During low memory conditions when the view controller needs to release its view.

56. Which of the following is not a valid MKAnnotationView property?

Answers:

  1. canShowCallout
  2. draggable
  3. dragState
  4. None of these.

57. What does a “__block” type specifier mean?

Answers:

  1. Modifications made with the variable marked with __block inside the block are not visible outside of it.
  2. Modifications done with the variable marked with __block inside the block are also visible outside of it.
  3. It makes the variable non-mutable within the block.
  4. None of the above

58. Which of the following is not a valid MPVolumeView method?

Answers:

  1. – (CGRect)volumeThumbRectForBounds:(CGRect)bounds volumeSliderRect:(CGRect)rect value:(float)value
  2. – (UIImage *)maximumVolumeSliderImageForState:(UIControlState)state
  3. – (CGRect)routeButtonRectForBounds:(CGRect)bounds
  4. – (void)setVolumeThumbImage:(UIImage *)image

59. Which of the following code samples will declare a variable inside a block in Objective-C?

Answers:

  1. Person *aPerson = nil; [participants enumerateObjectsUsingBlock:^(id obj, NSUInteger idx, BOOL *stop) { Person *participant = (Person*)obj; if ([participant.gender isEqualToString:@”M”]) { aPerson = participant; *stop = YES; } }]; return aPerson;
  2. __block Person *aPerson = nil; [participants enumerateObjectsUsingBlock:^(id obj, NSUInteger idx, BOOL *stop) { Person *participant = (Person*)obj; if ([participant.gender isEqualToString:@”M”]) { aPerson = participant; *stop = YES; } }]; return aPerson;
  3. [participants enumerateObjectsUsingBlock:^(id obj, NSUInteger idx, BOOL *stop) { Person *participant = (Person*)obj; Person *aPerson = nil; if ([participant.gender isEqualToString:@”M”]) { aPerson = participant; *stop = YES; } }]; return aPerson;
  4. All of the above.

4,436 total views, 18 views today

Upwork Miscellaneous Certifications

Photography Certification 2016

Published by:

1. What two processes had to be “discovered” before the art of Photography was truly born?

Answers:

  1. Optical
  2. Digital
  3. Chemical
  4. Studio

2. What does “Framing” an image refer to?

Answers:

  1. Following the rule of thirds
  2. Positioning of the subject in relation to other image elements
  3. Centering the subject in the frame
  4. Adding lights to the subject

3. Which lens would be considered “normal” on a 35mm film or equivalent full frame digital camera?

Answers:

  1. 85mm
  2. 50mm
  3. 24mm
  4. 105mm

4. If the proper exposure at ISO 800 is f5.6 at 1/250, the proper exposure at ISO 100 would be f5.6 at __________.

Answers:

  1. 1/2000
  2. 1/30
  3. 1/125
  4. 1/1000

5. Copal is a type of __________.

Answers:

  1. lens
  2. camera
  3. flash
  4. shutter

6. What does the guide number of a flash describe?

Answers:

  1. How many f stops it can be used with
  2. Its output with a set reflector
  3. How close it can be placed to the subject
  4. What shutter speeds it can be used with

7. A butterfly is a name for __________

Answers:

  1. an A clamp.
  2. a grid for a soft box.
  3. a light stand with a boom arm.
  4. a large diffusion frame and fabric.

8. The “circle of confusion” is a term related to determining the __________.

Answers:

  1. angle of view
  2. shutter speed setting
  3. maximum aperture
  4. depth of the field

9. Images saved as jpegs are saved with lossless compression.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

10. Which is the hardest type of light to achieve pleasing images in?

Answers:

  1. Early evening light
  2. Diffused light
  3. Midday light
  4. Early morning light

11. A reversal film is also referred to as a __________

Answers:

  1. negative film.
  2. slide or transparency film.
  3. black and white film.
  4. lithographic film.

12. A color that can’t be reproduced in the final image is called __________.

Answers:

  1. saturated
  2. high key
  3. process
  4. out of gamut

13. When using a flash on most cameras, using too high a shutter speed will result in_________.

Answers:

  1. stopping the action.
  2. overexposed images.
  3. dark cut off section.
  4. excess noise/grain.

14. Chromatic aberration is the inability of a lens to focus __________ on a single point.

Answers:

  1. gradations.
  2. edges.
  3. images.
  4. colors.

15. In a 300mm 2.8 lens, the number 2.8 refers to __________

Answers:

  1. the aperture range of the lens.
  2. the number of glass elements in the lens.
  3. the maximum aperture for the lens.
  4. the size of the filter thread for that lens.

16. A scrim is used to __________

Answers:

  1. lower the intensity of the light.
  2. concentrate the light.
  3. diffuse the light.
  4. reflect the light.

17. What does shallow depth of field mean?

Answers:

  1. That there is a limited area of focus in which to place items.
  2. That items are placed close together on the set.
  3. That all items are blurry, showing action.
  4. That items in both the background and foreground are in focus.

18. When shooting with a view camera at infinity, the bellows extension factor would be __________.

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 1.5
  3. 0
  4. .75

19. Another name for a medium format camera would be __________.

Answers:

  1. 6×6
  2. 120 mm
  3. 6×7
  4. Any of the three

20. Which lens is generally considered the best for taking high quality, natural looking portraits on a 35mm film or “full frame” digital camera?

Answers:

  1. 24mm f 2
  2. 300mm f2.8
  3. 85mm f1.8
  4. 35-70 f 2.8-4

21. On a zoom lens, 3.5-5.6 means it has __________

Answers:

  1. only two levels of zoom.
  2. a variable maximum aperture.
  3. it’s a prime lens.
  4. it stops down to 5.6.

22. Moire is caused when there is an interaction between __________ in a subject and the pixels that make up the digital image.

Answers:

  1. colors
  2. curves
  3. patterns
  4. skin tones

23. Using a longer lens will __________

Answers:

  1. make the subject smaller in the frame.
  2. exaggerate the features of the subject.
  3. compress the features of the subject.
  4. show more of the background in the frame.

24. A lighting ratio of 1:1 will produce an image that is __________.

Answers:

  1. dramatic
  2. dark
  3. flat
  4. bright

25. Vignetting is __________

Answers:

  1. low key lighting
  2. dark corners on an image.
  3. high key lighting
  4. soft edges on an image.

26. A “catchlight” is __________

Answers:

  1. a highlight in a subject’s eye.
  2. the main light.
  3. the fill light.
  4. red eye.

27. The smallest element in a digital image is ______.

Answers:

  1. a megabyte
  2. a pixel
  3. a grain
  4. a color array

28. Bit depth refers to __________

Answers:

  1. the value difference between adjacent pixels.
  2. the total number of pixels of a certain color that are in an image.
  3. the amount of color that can be rendered by averaging pixels.
  4. the amount of color that can be rendered by a single pixel.

29. The coatings on a lens are designed to increase image quality by __________

Answers:

  1. polarizing the light.
  2. reducing reflections from the surface of the glass.
  3. reducing the amount of blue light.
  4. redirecting the light in uniform wavelengths.

30. RAW means that when an image is saved to the camera’s memory, it is saved_____________

Answers:

  1. is saved as a JPEG and a TIFF.
  2. is saved as a TIFF with lossless compression.
  3. remains unprocessed by the camera software.
  4. is saved as a TIFF without compression.

31. The amount of energy a capacitor in a power pack can store is called watt seconds.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

32. A shutter speed of ½ of a second or longer should be used when hand holding a camera.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

33. If you change your shutter speed from 1/60 to 1/250, you need to change your aperture from f11 to _____ to keep your exposure the same.

Answers:

  1. f2.8
  2. f16
  3. f1.4
  4. f5.6

34. A lens that focuses light using concentric glass rings is called a/an __________ lens.

Answers:

  1. elemental
  2. compound
  3. linear
  4. fresnel

35. Images that are considered editorial can be described as __________

Answers:

  1. images that are edited.
  2. images that are not designed to sell a particular item or idea.
  3. images that need to be edited.
  4. images that will impress the editor.

36. Bracketing is a term used to describe __________

Answers:

  1. shooting multiple images to make a panorama.
  2. shooting multiple exposures of the same image.
  3. shooting multiple angles of a subject.
  4. None of the above.

37. What problem can you often have when a subject is backlit?

Answers:

  1. Underexposed subjects
  2. Blurry photos
  3. Oversaturated subjects
  4. Overexposed subjects

38. In architectural Photography it is important to __________

Answers:

  1. shoot the whole room.
  2. keep the building centered.
  3. keep verticals parallel.
  4. place people in the room.

39. In order to prevent red eye that often happens in flash photography, it is best to__________

Answers:

  1. move your light off the camera axis.
  2. shoot in a darkened room.
  3. use a ring light.
  4. set the flash to a lower power setting.

40. Each photodiode or pixel on a standard digital chip can record all three of the colors used in digital photography.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

41. A candid approach to wedding Photography can also be called the photojournalistic style.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

42. Kelvin degrees represent the __________ of a source of light.

Answers:

  1. color temperature
  2. light intensity
  3. watt second rating
  4. flash duration

43. Extension tubes will change __________

Answers:

  1. the number of apertures on a lens.
  2. the focal length of a lens.
  3. the number of glass elements a lens has.
  4. how close to a subject a lens can focus.

44. What do F-stops really refer to?

Answers:

  1. How much light you let into the camera
  2. How tightly you focus your camera
  3. Your use of action and how it affects your photos
  4. Nothing.

45. Computer monitors use both the RGB and CMYK color spaces.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

46. Sharpening settings used when processing images should vary depending on the subject.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

47. A gray card used to determine proper exposure reflects __________ of the light that strikes it?

Answers:

  1. 18%
  2. 6%
  3. 45%
  4. 63%

48. What effect does putting a grid or honeycomb on a light source have?

Answers:

  1. It diffuses the light.
  2. It intensifies the light.
  3. It narrows the spread of the light.
  4. It reflects the light.

49. What does the Rule of Thirds refers to?

Answers:

  1. Bracketing in 1/3rd stops
  2. Placement of elements in the image
  3. Distance of the subject from the background
  4. All of the above

50. Incident light meters work by reading the light that reflects off of a subject.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

51. The higher the f-stop number, the more the light allowed into the camera.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

52. What does saturated color refer to?

Answers:

  1. Hazy, dark colors
  2. Bright, brilliant colors
  3. Colors in blush tones
  4. Colors that are false and are brought on through the use of lights and filters

53. To get the most accurate colors, you should __________

Answers:

  1. set your white balance setting to auto.
  2. use a gray card or diffusion filter to set the correct balance.
  3. use the camera’s preset for a given light source.
  4. shoot only in one type of light.

54. When undiffused, a strobe light and a tungsten light will generally produce the same quality of light.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

55. Light travels in a straight line until it is __________

Answers:

  1. refracted.
  2. curved.
  3. reflected.
  4. refracted or curved.

56. Diffused light is created in a photo studio through the use of screens and large light sources.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

57. When working in digital editing software, sharpening is achieved by increasing the contrast between __________

Answers:

  1. adjacent pixels.
  2. the subject and the background.
  3. distinct colors.
  4. the background and the foreground.

58. What might you do to add drama and interest to an image taken in snow?

Answers:

  1. Find a source of bright color
  2. Move the subject into some shade
  3. Shoot mainly in the middle of the day
  4. Place your subject between the sun and yourself

59. The inverse square law is used in reference to __________

Answers:

  1. the depth of the field.
  2. shutter speed settings.
  3. the intensity of light that reaches a subject.
  4. aperture settings.

60. A prime lens is also called a __________.
Answers:

  1. zoom lens
  2. telephoto lens
  3. fixed focal length lens
  4. wide angle lens

61. The step pattern seen on an enlarged digital photographic image is called __________.

Answers:

  1. Vectorization
  2. Aliasing
  3. Axis lines
  4. Anti-aliased

62. What do polarizing filters help you to remove from or reduce in your photos?

Answers:

  1. Infrared light
  2. Dark shadows
  3. Reflections
  4. Sunlight

63. Flash or strobe is considered an artificial light.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

64. The features called swing and tilt are available on most high end 35mm and equivalent digital cameras.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

65. Fake walls used on Photography sets are often referred to as __________.

Answers:

  1. screens
  2. scrims
  3. gobos
  4. flats

66. A view camera differs from other cameras in that it can control __________.

Answers:

  1. perspective
  2. the depth of the field
  3. neither perspective or the depth of the field
  4. both perspective and the depth of the field

67. Where is the final image in a digital camera stored?

Answers:

  1. In the buffer
  2. In the acetate
  3. In the memory card or stick
  4. In the CCD

68. If an image is overexposed, which of the following would most likely be the cause?

Answers:

  1. Shooting at the aperture setting of 5.6
  2. Moving to a higher aperture number
  3. Shooting at a shutter speed of 1/125
  4. Moving to a lower aperture number

69. Images produced by digital cameras are __________.

Answers:

  1. vector based
  2. halftone
  3. duotone
  4. raster based

70. Using a larger aperture will result in _________

Answers:

  1. more depth of field.
  2. longer exposures.
  3. less depth of field.
  4. all of the above.

71. In lighting, modeling means you are __________

Answers:

  1. keeping the light close to the axis of the camera.
  2. turning the lights on and off to see the effect a light will have.
  3. creating a three dimensional effect or depth in your image.
  4. having your subject pose in a particular manner.

72. TTL stands for __________.

Answers:

  1. Table Top Lighting
  2. Through the Lens
  3. Traditional Tungsten Lighting
  4. Temporary Time Lag

73. The word noise is to digital Photography as __________ is to a film.

Answers:

  1. hue
  2. grain
  3. pixel
  4. saturation

74. Another name for a key light is __________.

Answers:

  1. hot light
  2. back light
  3. main light
  4. ring light

75. Aerial perspective is __________

Answers:

  1. shooting from a high vantage point
  2. shooting up from a low vantage point.
  3. the effect of atmosphere on distant subjects.
  4. shooting from a plane.

76. Digital Photography has eliminated the need to get a good exposure.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

77. Banding or posterization in a digital image is caused when there isn’t enough information to reproduce different shades of color.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

 

1,683 total views, 12 views today

Upwork Miscellaneous Certifications

Mechanical IQ Test 2016

Published by:

1. Consider the diagram above. If the box that contains the vase and flower is moved in the direction of the arrow and is then stopped suddenly, which way will the vase fall?

Answers:

  1. P
  2. Q
  3. In a direction other than P or Q

2. A bus, a jeep, a scooter, and a bicycle are thrown off a mountain at an altitude of 5000 meters. All four items are thrown at the same time, from the same height, with the same velocity, and under the same atmospheric pressure and temperature. The bus weighs the most, followed in descending order of weight by the jeep, the scooter, and the bicycle. Which of the four items will be the last to hit the ground?

Answers:

  1. The bus
  2. The scooter
  3. The jeep
  4. The bicycle

3. Consider the first diagram above. Which of the given choices (1 to 4) will correctly complete the sequence?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

4. Consider the diagram above. If the drive wheel rotates in a clockwise direction, in which direction will the rod’s speed of movement be faster?

Answers:

  1. While moving toward the right side
  2. While moving toward the left side
  3. The speed of movement will be the same in both directions.

5. If drive wheel A in the above diagram rotates in a clockwise direction, then drive wheel B will __________________.

Answers:

  1. rotate faster in a clockwise direction
  2. rotate slower in a counterclockwise direction
  3. rotate slower in a clockwise direction
  4. rotate faster in a counterclockwise direction

6. Consider the first diagram above. Which of the given choices (1 to 4) would correctly fill the missing space?

Answers:

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 2
  4. 1

7. The diagram above shows four flags on four flag posts secured in four weighted bases. The construction of the flags and the flag posts in all the four cases is the same. Analyze the given weights and calculate which flag is the easiest to balance on the flag post.

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 3
  3. 2
  4. 4

8. In the above diagram, the weight of man A is 250 lbs and the weight of man B is 200 lbs. Which man must exert more effort in order to hold the 100 lb load?

Answers:

  1. Man A
  2. Man B
  3. Both men must exert the same effort.

9. Which of the given pictures (1 to 4) above will result in Cube A once folded?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

10. The diagram above represents a tractor. Which wheel of the tractor rotates faster?

Answers:

  1. P
  2. Q
  3. Both rotate at the same speed.

11. In the first diagram above, a force of 15 lbs compresses springs arranged in a linear series of 24 cm each. If the same force of 15 lbs is applied to parallel springs, the springs will be compressed by _____________________.

Answers:

  1. 30 cm
  2. 75 cm
  3. 15 cm
  4. 4 cm

12. Refer to the diagram of a box above. If the force of friction is greater than the force applied in the given direction, then in which direction will the box move?

Answers:

  1. In the direction of the applied force
  2. In the direction away from the applied force
  3. The box will not move.
  4. In an upward direction

13. If pulley A in the above diagram moves in a clockwise direction, which weight will it move in an upward direction?

Answers:

  1. The 60-lb weight
  2. The 50-lb weight
  3. Both weights
  4. Neither weight

14. Consider the diagram above. If the cam (projecting part of a rotating wheel or shaft that strikes a lever at one or more points on its circular path) rotates in a counterclockwise direction, the bird will _______________________.

Answers:

  1. move forward
  2. rotate
  3. move backward
  4. not move at all

15. In the above diagram of a power-supplying pulley system, which pulley will rotate the fastest?

Answers:

  1. 3
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 1

16. The letters P, Q, R, and S represent four type of tires.

Tire P is 10 inches wide.
Tire Q is 20 inches wide.
Tire R is 30 inches wide.
Tire S is 40 inches wide.

These tires are fitted in pairs on a motorcycle. Consider that all four tire types are manufactured of the same material, have the same air pressure and radius, and are fitted to the same motorcycle. The motorcycle is driven on the same road every time the tires are changed. Given this information, which tire, when fitted in pairs on a motorcycle, will help prevent high fuel consumption?

Answers:

  1. Tire P
  2. Tire Q
  3. Tire R
  4. Tire S

17. Consider the first diagram above. Which of the given choices (1 to 5) will correctly complete the sequence?

Answers:

  1. 4
  2. 1
  3. 3
  4. 2
  5. 5

18. Which arrow in the above diagram will have the maximum mechanical advantage (ratio of load lifted to effort applied) of lifting the load of 30 lbs most efficiently?

Answers:

  1. P
  2. Q
  3. R
  4. S

19. If each arrow in the above diagram represents an equal number of students moving on a path, then which path is the most crowded?

Answers:

  1. X
  2. V
  3. Y
  4. Z

20. If gear A in the above diagram rotates at a speed of 20 RPM in a clockwise direction, then the direction of rotation and speed of gear F will be ___________________.

Answers:

  1. clockwise at 20 RPM
  2. counterclockwise at 20 RPM
  3. clockwise at 10 RPM
  4. counterclockwise at 10 RPM

21. Given the information in the above diagram,how much force is required at Point C in order to lift the weight at Point B?

Answers:

  1. 100 lbs
  2. 50 lbs
  3. 25 lbs
  4. 30 lbs

22. There are two slides P and Q which slide in the guide-ways A, B, C and D. P slides from A to C and vice versa. Q slides from D to B and vice versa. The clockwise rotating device R is attached to the two slides P and Q in such a way that the rotary motion R is converted to the reciprocating motion of the two slides.
When the slide Q reaches the centre and slide P reaches the top i.e. point A as shown in the figure the device R faces towards C. The slides travel half the distance in their respective guide-ways to make the rotating device face any of the four points A, B, C and D.
If the device R faces towards Point D, then what shall be the position of the slide P.

Answers:

  1. Point A
  2. Point B
  3. Point C
  4. Point D
  5. At the centre

23. In the above diagram, a load of 100 lbs is kept on four different measuring scales at different positions. Which scale will show the maximum deflection?

Answers:

  1. 3
  2. 2
  3. 1
  4. 4

24. A person weighing 200 lbs jumps from a ten-story building carrying a load of 100 lbs. How much load will the person experience while falling?

Answers:

  1. 9.8 lbs
  2. 100 lbs
  3. 0 lbs
  4. 300 lbs

25. Given the information in the above diagram, how much weight must be placed at point B in order to balance the lever?

Answers:

  1. 10 lbs
  2. 20 lbs
  3. 15 lbs
  4. 40 lbs

26. Which of the above groups of shapes can be assembled to make shape A? The direction of the shapes can be changed as necessary.

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

27. The pendulums of each wall clock in the above diagram weigh the same. If the clocks strike 12 and the pendulums start swinging, which pendulum will complete one full stroke in the shortest amount of time?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

28. A bolt or a nut is tightened by turning it in a clockwise direction and loosened by turning it counterclockwise. What type of threads do bolts or nuts have?

Answers:

  1. Right-handed threads
  2. Left-handed threads

29. Consider the first diagram above. Which of the given choices (1 to 4) would correctly fill the missing space?

Answers:

  1. 4
  2. 3
  3. 2
  4. 1

30. The above diagram shows five boxes (A, B, C, D, and E) attached to each another. The area of each box is as follows:

A- 300 square meters
B- 250 square meters
C- 100 square meters
D- 150 square meters
E- 270 square meters

If the forces P and Q are applied in the directions represented by the arrows, which box will experience the most amount of stress?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. E

31. Which of the above cubes will be formed when Picture A is folded?

Answers:

  1. 4
  2. 2
  3. 1
  4. 3

32. If gear A in the above diagram rotates in a clockwise direction, then in which direction does the slide Q move?

Answers:

  1. to the left
  2. to the right
  3. It does not move.

33. From which of the beakers shown in the diagram above will water flow out faster?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. Water will flow out at the same speed from each beaker.

34. With which of the screwdrivers in the diagram above will it be possible to unscrew the screw most efficiently such that equal amount of force is exerted on the handle of the screwdriver.

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3

35. The above diagram shows the trajectories of four balls 1, 2, 3, 4 thrown from point O. If all four balls are thrown with equal force and travel with the same velocity but in different directions, which ball will fall farthest from point O. Considering that the wind resistance is constant. The maximum height of the trajectory of the balls from the ground level is also indicated?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

36. Consider the first diagram above. Which of the given choices (1 to 4) will correctly complete the sequence of shapes?

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 1
  3. 4
  4. 3

37. Use your mechanical measurement skills to visually judge which combination of hooks in the above diagram will hold the board A properly on board B.

Answers:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 4
  3. 1 and 4
  4. 2 and 5

38. Four blocks of steel all having equal weight and equal volume, but different surface areas, are thrown in a pond 50 meters deep. The surface area of the first block is 100 square meters, the second block is 200 square meters, the third block is 300 square meters, and the fourth block is 400 square meters. Which block will require the most time to reach the bottom of the pond?

Answers:

  1. The first block
  2. The second block
  3. The third block
  4. The fourth block
  5. All four blocks will require the same amount of time.

39. What is the name of a flat shape comprised of eight corners and eight straight edges?

Answers:

  1. Octagon
  2. Hexagon
  3. Pentagon
  4. Rectangle

40. In the above diagram, a circular portion of the 20 cm radius is cut from a rectangular steel sheet of 50 cm x 60 cm. What is the area of the remaining portion of the sheet?

Answers:

  1. 1644 cm2
  2. 1744 cm2
  3. 1544 cm2
  4. 1444 cm2

41. Which of the above battery circuit diagram shows batteries coupled in series?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. None of the above

42. Which of the two pulley systems in the given diagram will require more force to lift the load?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. Both require the same force.

43. The diagram above shows four slides made of the same material. The same kind of ball is thrown down each slide at the same time and at the same velocity. From which slide will the ball reach the ground the fastest?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

44. Given the information in the above diagram,how much weight must be placed at point D in order to balance the lever?

Answers:

  1. 100lbs
  2. 200lbs
  3. 160lbs
  4. 260lbs

45. Which of the above Venn diagrams shows the proper relationship between cutting tools, tools made of high-speed steel, and the tool room?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

46. When a car turns left, what is the speed of rotation of the rear wheels?

Answers:

  1. The wheel on the left side rotates faster than the wheel on the right side.
  2. Both rear wheels rotate at the same speed.
  3. The rear wheel on the right side rotates faster than the rear wheel on the left side.

47. Calculate the approximate value of the angle in the above diagram.

Answers:

  1. 90º
  2. 45º
  3. 120º
  4. 180º

48. If drive wheel A in the above diagram rotates in a clockwise direction, then drive wheel B will _______________.

Answers:

  1. rotate in a counterclockwise direction at a faster speed
  2. rotate in a clockwise direction at a slower speed
  3. rotate in a counterclockwise direction at the same speed
  4. rotate in a clockwise direction at the same speed

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Upwork Miscellaneous Certifications

Mechanical Engineering Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which among the following is also known as croning process in which cast parts are produced with dimensional tolerances as low as ±0.2 millimeters.

Answers:

  1. Centrifugal casting
  2. Investment casting
  3. Slush casting
  4. Shell casting

2. Calculate the moment of a 20 newtons force at 10 meters perpendicular distance from the point about which the moment is required.

Answers:

  1. 200 newton meters
  2. 100 newton meters
  3. 150 newton meters
  4. 250 newton meters

3. Which of the following devices is used for atomizing and vaporizing the fuel before mixing it with air in varying proportions?

Answers:

  1. Spark plug
  2. Carburetor
  3. Flywheel
  4. Governor

4. If Q is energy, W is external work done and E is internal energy then, According to the first law of thermodynamics, energy Q is equal to:

Answers:

  1. Q = W + E
  2. Q = W – E
  3. Q = W / E
  4. Q = W x E

5. Which branch of engineering mechanics deals with the force which acts upon bodies at rest?

Answers:

  1. Statics
  2. Dynamics
  3. Kinetics
  4. Kinematics

6. Calculate the centrifugal force for a body moving in a circular path, given that the mass of the body is 10 kilogram, its angular velocity is 10 radians per second and the radius of the circular path is 10 meters.

Answers:

  1. 30000 newtons
  2. 10000 newtons
  3. 20000 newtons
  4. 15000 newtons

7. Which among the following is the correct range of value for the included angle of a V-belt?

Answers:

  1. 10º to 20º
  2. 30º to 40º
  3. 70º to 80º
  4. 100º to 120º

8. Which among the following is a spring controlled governor?

Answers:

  1. Watt governor
  2. Porter governor
  3. Hartnell governor

9. Which among the following plant layout is known as ‘functional layout’ or ‘analytical layout’?

Answers:

  1. Process layout
  2. Product layout
  3. Fixed position layout

10. Which among the following types of chips is usually produced during the machining of brittle materials?

Answers:

  1. Discontinuous chips
  2. Continuous chips with no built up edges
  3. Continuous chips with built up edges

11. According to the Boyle’s law:

Answers:

  1. pressure is directly proportional to volume.
  2. pressure is inversely proportional to volume.
  3. temperature is directly proportional to volume.
  4. temperature is inversely proportional to volume.

12. The compression ratio of a diesel engine is:

Answers:

  1. 10 to 15
  2. 15 to 25
  3. 40 to 50
  4. 50 to 60

13. Calculate the specific heat of a gas at constant volume, given that the mass of the gas is 100 kilograms, the initial temperature of the gas is 20 kelvins and the final temperature of the gas is 50 kelvins. The total heat supplied to the gas is 105 kilojoules.

Answers:

  1. 30 joules per kg per kelvin
  2. 35 joules per kg per kelvin
  3. 40 joules per kg per kelvin
  4. 45 joules per kg per kelvin

14. The petrol engine works on ___________.

Answers:

  1. Rankine cycle
  2. Otto cycle
  3. Diesel cycle

15. In which, among the following systems, does no heat or work cross its boundary?

Answers:

  1. Closed system
  2. Isolated system
  3. Open system

16. A couple of two bodies produces which type of motion?

Answers:

  1. Rotational motion
  2. Translatory motion
  3. Rotational and translatory motion

17. Up to which point in a stress-strain curve is Hooke’s law applicable?

Answers:

  1. Yield point
  2. Elastic limit
  3. Plastic limit
  4. Breaking point

18. A solar collector receiving solar radiation at the rate of 0.6 kW/m2 transforms it into the internal energy of a fluid at an overall efficiency of 50%. The fluid heated to 350 K is used to run a heat engine which rejects heat at 313 K. If the heat engine is to deliver 2.5 kW power, the minimum area (in sq. meters) of the solar collector required would be:

Answers:

  1. 8.33
  2. 16.66
  3. 39.68
  4. 79.36

19. In which type of welding is a mixture of Iron oxide and Aluminum used?

Answers:

  1. Metal inert gas welding
  2. Tungsten inert gas welding
  3. Submerged arc welding
  4. Thermit welding
  5. Stud arc welding

20. The forces which meet at one point but whose lines of action lie on different points are known as ______________.

Answers:

  1. Co-planar concurrent forces
  2. Co-planar non-concurrent forces
  3. Non co-planar concurrent forces
  4. Non co-planar non-concurrent forces

21. Calculate the value of crippling load of a specimen, given that the crushing stress is 160 newtons per square meter, cross sectional area is 80 square millimeters, Rankine’s constant is 1, length of column is 1 millimeter and the value of radius of gyration is also 1.

Answers:

  1. 7000
  2. 6400
  3. 8000
  4. 8500

22. How many revolutions of crankshaft does it take to complete one working cycle in a four stroke engine?

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 8

23. Which type of thread is used in bench vices in manufacturing units?

Answers:

  1. Acme thread
  2. Buttress thread
  3. Knuckle thread
  4. Square thread

24. Which type of sand is used on the face of the pattern before molding?

Answers:

  1. Parting sand
  2. Core sand
  3. Loam sand
  4. Floor sand
  5. Backing sand

25. In which, among the following governing methods, is a control valve fitted in the fuel delivery pipe in order to control the quantity of fuel mixed in the charge?

Answers:

  1. Hit and miss governing
  2. Qualitative governing
  3. Quantitative governing
  4. Combination system of governing

26. In which among the following wage incentive plans is the worker paid according to the number of units of work produced by him?

Answers:

  1. Straight piece work system
  2. Halsey plan
  3. Rowan plan
  4. Gantt plan

27. In which, among the following engine strokes, is the firing of the vaporized fuel carried out?

Answers:

  1. suction stroke
  2. expansion stroke
  3. exhaust stroke
  4. compression stroke

28. The process to improve the fatigue resistance in metals by producing compressive stresses in its surface is known as ________.

Answers:

  1. cold peening
  2. cold bending
  3. cold spinning
  4. cold extrusion

29. Due to which of the following properties does molding sand adhere to the sides of the molding box?

Answers:

  1. Permeability
  2. Plasticity
  3. Adhesiveness
  4. Cohesiveness

30. Calculate the number of joints in a chain if the number of links is 5.

Answers:

  1. 3.5
  2. 4.5
  3. 5.5
  4. 6.5

31. Calculate the strain in a material whose original length before undergoing strain is 10 centimeters and the length after undergoing strain is 100 centimeters.

Answers:

  1. 9
  2. 110
  3. 90
  4. 0.1

32. What is the significance of the above given symbol in work study technique?

Answers:

  1. Inspection of materials
  2. Transport of materials
  3. Storage of materials
  4. Operation of materials

33. In which, among the following scavenging methods, are the inlet and the outlet ports situated on the same side of the engine cylinder?

Answers:

  1. Loop scavenging method
  2. Uniflow scavenging method
  3. Crossflow scavenging method

34. The resultant of two forces A and B is Q. If A is doubled and the new resultant is perpendicular to A, then:

Answers:

  1. A=B
  2. A=Q
  3. A=2Q
  4. B/2=Q

35. Calculate the mechanical efficiency of an engine whose brake power is 20 watts and indicated power is 40 watts.

Answers:

  1. 40%
  2. 50%
  3. 60%
  4. 70%

36. ___________ is an opening through the cope.

Answers:

  1. Gate
  2. Riser
  3. Core
  4. Refractory

37. If the motion between a pair takes place in more than one direction, then this kind of motion is termed as ___________.

Answers:

  1. completely constrained motion
  2. incompletely constrained motion
  3. successfully constrained motion

38. The work measurement technique is concerned with:

Answers:

  1. the time during which maximum production is done.
  2. the time during which no production is done.
  3. the processes to simplify the production work.
  4. the development of economical methods of carrying out production work.

39. What is the value of universal gas constant in SI units?

Answers:

  1. 8.314 joules per kilogram mole kelvin
  2. 83.14 joules per kilogram mole kelvin
  3. 831.4 joules per kilogram mole kelvin
  4. 8314 joules per kilogram mole kelvin

40. A process in which gas is heated such that the product of its pressure and volume remains constant is known as _______.

Answers:

  1. isochoric process
  2. isobaric process
  3. isothermal process
  4. hyperbolic process

41. Which type of welding is obtained if there is an excess of acetylene?

Answers:

  1. Neutral flame
  2. Oxidizing flame
  3. Reducing flame

42. In a simple harmonic motion, number of cycles produced per second is known as:

Answers:

  1. velocity.
  2. acceleration.
  3. frequency.
  4. amplitude.
  5. periodic time.

43. Calculate the frictional power of an engine if the indicated power is 10 watts and the brake power is 5 watts.

Answers:

  1. 5 watts
  2. 2 watts
  3. 0.5 watts
  4. 15 watts

44. The allowance provided on patterns which are used for castings in which contraction is not uniform is known as _________.

Answers:

  1. shaking allowance
  2. camber allowance
  3. machining allowance
  4. contraction allowance
  5. draft allowance

45. If we have to choose a grinding wheel having the least hardness, which grade of grinding wheel should be chosen?

Answers:

  1. Grade A to H
  2. Grade I to P
  3. Grade Q to Z

46. Calculate the torque for a solid shaft having a radius of 10 millimeters and torsional shear stress of 112 newtons per square millimeter.

Answers:

  1. 175000 newton millimeters
  2. 175840 newton millimeters
  3. 174840 newton millimeters
  4. 176800 newton millimeters

47. _____________ is the operation of enlarging a previously drilled hole.

Answers:

  1. Reaming
  2. Tapping
  3. Boring
  4. Lapping

48. Two springs having stiffness 5 and 10 respectively are connected in series. Calculate the combined stiffness of the two springs.

Answers:

  1. 20/3
  2. 30/4
  3. 10/3
  4. 15/2

49. What is the value of entropy of a substance at absolute zero temperature?

Answers:

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. -1

50. If M – bending moment, I – moment of inertia, E – young’s modulus of elasticity and R – radius of curvature then, which of the following is the correct bending equation for a beam?

Answers:

  1. M/I = R/E
  2. I/M = R/E
  3. M/I = E/R

51. The milling operation of producing surfaces of irregular shape is known as:

Answers:

  1. Plain milling
  2. Side milling
  3. End milling
  4. Form milling
  5. Gang milling

52. What effect does the grain size of a cutting tool have on the tool life?

Answers:

  1. Tool life increases
  2. Tool life decreases
  3. Grain size has no effect on tool life

53. Within which angular range is the shear stress maximum if a body is subjected to tensile stress in one plane?

Answers:

  1. 45º and 135º
  2. 50º and 175º
  3. 40º and 130º
  4. 55º and 180º

54. _______________ is a beam having its end portion extended beyond the support.

Answers:

  1. Cantilever beam
  2. Simply supported beam
  3. Overhanging beam
  4. Continuous beam

55. ___________ is that type of motion in which there is reduction in amplitude over every cycle of vibration.

Answers:

  1. Forced vibration
  2. Damped vibration
  3. Longitudinal vibration
  4. Transverse vibration

56. Calculate the circular pitch of a gear whose pitch circle diameter is 12.74 millimeters and the number of teeths on gear wheel are 20.

Answers:

  1. 2 millimeters
  2. 3 millimeters
  3. 4 millimeters
  4. 5 millimeters

57. The shortest time in which an activity can be completed is known as:

Answers:

  1. optimistic time
  2. most likely time
  3. pessimistic time

58. Which type of organization among the following has a straight flow of authority within a single unit?

Answers:

  1. Line organization
  2. Functional organization
  3. Line and staff organization
  4. Line, staff and functional organization

59. The smallest circle drawn to the cam profile is known as ________.

Answers:

  1. base circle
  2. pitch circle
  3. prime circle

60. Calculate the coefficient of friction of a body whose limiting friction of which is 10 newtons and the value of the normal reaction is 5.

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 50
  3. 0.5
  4. 15

61. Calculate the angular velocity of a body whose rotations per minute is 60.

Answers:

  1. 6 radians per second
  2. 8 radians per second
  3. 7.60 radians per second
  4. 5.68 radians per second

62. In a programmed evaluation and review technique, if the slack of an activity is negative, then what can be stated for the project completion?

Answers:

  1. Completion of the project is not delayed.
  2. Additional resources are required to complete the project in time.
  3. Completion of the project is delayed.

63. __________ is the angle made by the face of the tool and the parallel plane to the base of the cutting tool.
Answers:

  1. Lip angle
  2. Rake angle
  3. Side relief angle
  4. End relief angle

64. What type of gear is used to transmit power at constant velocity ratio between two shafts the axes of which intersect at an angle?

Answers:

  1. Helical gear
  2. Bevel gear
  3. Worm gear
  4. Rack and pinion gear

65. Which technique among the following is known as ‘time phase of loading’.

Answers:

  1. routing
  2. scheduling
  3. dispatching

66. The process of heating the metal to the plastic state followed by application of pressure to form the molten metal into desired shape is known as ________.

Answers:

  1. hot forging
  2. hot piercing
  3. hot drawing
  4. hot extrusion

67. The radius of a shaft is 5 millimeters. The shear stress on that shaft is 50 newtons per square millimeter and the polar moment of inertia is 10 (millimeters)4. Calculate the twisting moment on that shaft.

Answers:

  1. 100 newton millimeters
  2. 200 newton millimeters
  3. 150 newton millimeters
  4. 250 newton millimeters

68. If L is the length of the journal and d is the diameter of the journal then, in a square bearing:

Answers:

  1. L = d
  2. L ≠ d
  3. L + d = 1
  4. L = 1 + d

69. The bolt and nut is an example of a:

Answers:

  1. turning pair
  2. rolling pair
  3. screw pair
  4. spherical pair

70. In involute gears the pressure angle __________ as the gear engages or disengages.

Answers:

  1. decreases
  2. increases
  3. remains constant

71. The broaching operation in which the workpiece moves across the stationary tool is known as _______.

Answers:

  1. surface broaching
  2. continuous broaching
  3. pull broaching
  4. push broaching

72. Calculate the coefficient of friction of a body whose limiting friction is 10 newtons and the value of the normal reaction is 5.

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 50
  3. 0.5
  4. 15

73. The ability of a material to embed small particles of dust, grit etc. is known as ___________.

Answers:

  1. conformability
  2. bondability
  3. embeddability
  4. compressibility

74. A jig is a device which is used to:

Answers:

  1. hold a workpiece.
  2. hold and locate a workpiece.
  3. hold and locate a workpiece as well as guide and control cutting tools.
  4. hold a workpiece as well as guide and control cutting tools.

75. What is the value of the point angle of a twist drill?

Answers:

  1. 118º
  2. 150º
  3. 106º
  4. 100º

76. Calculate the economic order quantity of a plant in which the total raw material utilized per year is 1600 tonnes, procurement cost per order is $1000 and the annual inventory carrying cost per item is $10.

Answers:

  1. 428.68
  2. 565.68
  3. 636.68
  4. 700.68

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