UPWORK TEST » November 17, 2015

Daily Archives: November 17, 2015

Upwork Web Development

Drupal Test 2016

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1. Which of the following is the correct way to get the current theme path in Drupal?

Answers:

  1. drupal_get_path()
  2. path_to_theme()
  3. theme_path()
  4. drupal_get_path() without the variables.

2. Which of the following are best practices for scaling Drupal for a high traffic site?

Answers:

  1. Setting the page cache lifetime minimum to 1 minute
  2. Enabling CSS and JavaScript aggregation
  3. Sorting and filtering by CCK fields
  4. Using a PHP opcode cache

3. Which of the following is not a desired way to create a custom page with custom layout in Drupal?

Answers:

  1. Using panels
  2. Using a .tpl.php file specificially for that page
  3. Build page with exact HTML structure you want
  4. None of above

4. Which function can be used to invoke a hook in all enabled modules in Drupal?

Answers:

  1. module_invoke_all()
  2. module_invoke_hook()
  3. module_hook_invoke()
  4. hook_invoke_all()

5. The following are advantages of using Drupal Views vs. custom module development EXCEPT:

Answers:

  1. Development speed – creating a View will be faster than creating a custom module most of the time
  2. Performance – Views offer increased performance over custom modules
  3. Maintenance – Views is a Drupal standard, as opposed to using custom modules, which gives your site’s maintenance an unnecessary learning curve
  4. Upgrading – Views provide an upgrade path to future versions of Drupal, which custom modules don’t provide out-of-the-box

6. Which software architectural pattern is Drupal most closely associated with?

Answers:

  1. PAC: Presentation-Abstraction-Control
  2. MVC: Model-View-Controller
  3. MVVM: Model-View-ViewModel
  4. SOA: Service-Oriented Architecture

7. Which function can be used to attach images to a particular node at runtime?

Answers:

  1. node_save()
  2. node_insert_image()
  3. node_create()
  4. node_load()

8. Which of the following is the correct way to remove core CSS files and add custom CSS files to a theme?

Answers:

  1. By using the drupal_get_css() & drupal_add_css() function
  2. By using the drupal_attach_css() & drupal_remove_css() function
  3. By placing the <style > tag in the theme, and placing an overwrite to all classes and IDs that need to be removed
  4. Core CSS files cannot be removed and custom CSS files cannot be added to a theme

9. Which of following will have a negative effect on the performance of a Drupal website?

Answers:

  1. using cache
  2. using memcahe
  3. using APC
  4. using base theme

10. Which of the following is the correct way to display recent nodes/posts created by a user on their profile page?

Answers:

  1. By using views module to create a block, and configuring a view to take an argument as user ID and set that block to show only on profile pages
  2. By enabling the node created by users options from the admin panel
  3. By installing & configuring the related posts module of drupal
  4. It is a default feature of Drupal to show recent posts created by the user on their profile

11. By using the auto-complete field for a CCK nodereference, nodereference gives node id as [nid: node id]; which Drupal hook can be used to remove the bracket from the auto-complete list?

Answers:

  1. menu_alter()
  2. form_alter()
  3. A & B both
  4. None of above

12. Which of the following is the correct way to customize the template for a view thas has been created using CCK and the Views 2 module?

Answers:

  1. By creating a node-contentname.tpl.php or views-view-field–viewname–field-name-value.tpl.php
  2. By creating views-view-field–viewname–field-name-value.tpl.php
  3. Using Semantic Views
  4. Clicking on admin/build/views/edit/ViewName -> Basic Settings -> Theme

13. Which of the following is the correct way to make a partial or substring search in Drupal?

Answers:

  1. By using the Apache Solr module
  2. By using the Search Lucene API
  3. By patching the core modules
  4. By using all of the above methods

14. How can all the input filters that have been created in the code be applied?

Answers:

  1. Using check_markup()
  2. You can only apply filters one at time in your code.
  3. Using apply_filter()
  4. Using input_filter()

15. Which of the following statements are true?

Answers:

  1. Can insert a block to a template programmatically using block_invoke().
  2. Can insert a block to a template programmatically using module_invoke().
  3. Can insert a block to a template programmatically using module_invoke() and block_invoke().
  4. Cannot insert a block to a template programmatically.

16. How can the taxonomy term pages be themed?

Answers:

  1. Creating two files named node-taxonomy.tpl.php and page-taxonomy-term.tpl.php for theming the taxonomy pages
  2. Adding CSS in the default style in the drupal theme
  3. Adding code to the template.php file
  4. Adding the CSS to the taxonomy pages

17. Which of the following is the correct way to resolve the array_flip() error in Drupal which flips string and integer values?

Answers:

  1. Values of trans need to be string or integer values; if any other type is there, then a warning will be fired
  2. The array flip function can also flip the nested array also
  3. It should use array for the ID which are passed
  4. Pass only values in the string rather than the array itself

18. What is the best way to display the plain HTML content of view’s node using only one .tpl.php file for all views?

Answers:

  1. By using Ajax we can pull the data from the node, and using the convention mysite.com/node/1?ajax=1 to view the content
  2. By implementing both hook_preprocess_page and hook_preprocess_html
  3. By implementing hook_theme_registry_alter
  4. Placing a phptemplate_views_view_unformatted_VIEWNAME call in template.php

19. How can the theme be changed in Drupal using a Drush command?

Answers:

  1. drush -l http://yoursitename.com/ pm-disable theme_name
  2. drush -l http://yoursitename.com/ pm-enable theme_name
  3. drush -l http://yoursitename.com/ vset theme_default theme_name
  4. drush –l http://yoursitename.com/ settheme theme_name

20. How can a Drupal site be taken offline or in maintenance mode using Drush?

Answers:

  1. drush vset site_offline 1
  2. drush vdel site_offline
  3. drush vset maintenance_mode 0
  4. drush setoffline 1

21. Which of the following is the correct function to get the current theme of a Drupal site?

Answers:

  1. path_to_theme()
  2. drupal_get_path
  3. global $theme_path
  4. All of above

22. How can a module’s data be exposed to the Views 2 module using its API?

Answers:

  1. by using hook_views_data() & hook_views_api()
  2. by using the filefield_stats module
  3. by using the viewsmodule_stats module
  4. by using a built-in feature of the Views module, “expose filter”

23. With the faceted search module it is possible to?

Answers:

  1. Use the meta data associated with node type to search the nodes
  2. Taxonomy terms can be used to filter the search result
  3. Build the search query on the fly by selecting different and multple meta data
  4. All of above

24. What is the naming convention for a preprocessor function for the CCK fields in Drupal if the template called content-field-field_transmission_make_model.tpl?

Answers:

  1. yourThemeName_preprocess_content_field_value(&$variables)
  2. yourThemeName_preprocess_content_field(&$variables)
  3. yourThemeName_preprocess_content_field_field_tramission_make_model(&$variables)
  4. yourThemeName_preprocess_content_field_field_tramission_make_model()

25. Which of the following is the correct way to include CSS and JavaScript files to a particular node in Drupal 6?

Answers:

  1. By using the node preprocess function and adding the CSS and JavaScript files in the function
  2. By using the direct drupal function to add the CSS and JavaScript in the body section itself
  3. By using the drupal_get_css(); and drupal_get_js(); functions
  4. By creating particular page for that node and using CSS and JavaScript in that page only

26. Which of the following is the correct way to get the page URL of a page in Drupal?

Answers:

  1. drupal_get_destination() is used to get the path.
  2. $link = url($path, array(‘absolute’ => TRUE));
  3. global $base_root; $base_root . request_uri();
  4. $current_url = ‘http://’ .$_SERVER[‘HTTP_HOST’] .$_SERVER[‘REQUEST_URI’];

27. Drupal.behaviors should be used instead of jQuery.ready. Which of the following statements are not a good reason for this recommendation?

Answers:

  1. Drupal.behaviors can be fired multiple times during page execution .
  2. Modules could override or extend existing Drupal.behaviors.
  3. Drupal.behaviors can be run whenever new DOM elements are inserted into the document.
  4. Drupal.behaviors increase jQuery performence.

28. How can a Drupal user’s password be reset using Drush from the command line in Drupal 6.x?

Answers:

  1. drush sqlq “update {users} set pass=md5(‘new_password_here’) where uid=1”
  2. drush user-password someuser –password=”new_password_here”
  3. Both A & B
  4. Cannot reset a user’s password using Drush from the command-line

29. What is the best way to set up development for Drupal-based websites so that many developers can work on their own copy and before updating the master/central copy?

Answers:

  1. By using the Install Profile module
  2. By using the Features and Strongarm Module
  3. By using the svn:externals property
  4. By using the CCK and Views module

30. How can an absolute date (as opposed to a relative date, or the current date) be set as the default value for a CCK datetime field in Drupal?

Answers:

  1. There is no option to set an absolute date as the default value in a CCK date field
  2. By using strtotime() in date field with exact date
  3. By using the date picker to select exact date
  4. By going to the configuration page of the CCK datetime module

31. Drupal.behaviors should be used instead of jQuery.ready. Which of the following statements are not good reason for this recommendation?

Answers:

  1. Drupal.behaviors can be fired multiple times during page execution .
  2. Modules could override or extend existing Drupal.behaviors.
  3. Drupal.behaviors can be run whenever new DOM elements are inserted into the document.
  4. Drupal.behaviors increase jQuery performence.

32. What is the best way to create multiple blocks from a single module?

Answers:

  1. Using module_hook_block hook with $delta
  2. Setting an option from the Drupal admin block page for any module
  3. Creating a separate module for blocks
  4. Manually updating drupal_block table to the number of blocks

33. Which of the following statements are not best practices for implementing page handler include files in Drupal?

Answers:

  1. Any module that has more than ~50 lines of code for page handler functions should be split off into multiple files
  2. Page include files should be named in the form, modulename.key.inc
  3. Splitting page handlers into separate files; for example, example.admin.inc and example.pages.inc
  4. Consolidating page handlers in to a single file, to decrease overhead

34. $node_type_A = node_load($some_nid);

$current_delta = get_current_delta($node_type_A->vid);
$node_type_A->field_type_B_node_ref += array($current_delta + 1 => array(‘nid’ => $node_type_B_nid));
$node_type_A = node_submit($node_type_A);
node_save($node_type_A);
content_insert($node_type_A);

Which of following statements are true about code above?

Answers:

  1. Appending a node reference
  2. Arranging fields by weight
  3. Retrieving node refrece from a node
  4. Saving node without modification

35. Which of the following is the correct way to change the execution order of Drupal modules?

Answers:

  1. Updating the module’s weight in the system table
  2. From the Drupal admin panel module page
  3. Execution order of Drupal modules can not be changed, it’s always in alphabetical order
  4. Using the _preprocess_node() hook of the particular module

36. Which of the following statements are true for the code below?
function custom_module_menu_alter(&$items) {
$items[‘xyx/abc’][‘page callback’] = ‘custom_module_showcontent’;
}

Answers:

  1. The code adds a function which will be called upon requesting path xyx/abc.
  2. The code adds a function which will be called with function callback queue upon requesting xyx/abc.
  3. The code is adding a variable to menu path xyx/abc.
  4. The code is adding a variable to the variable queue of path xyx/abc.

37. Which one of following makes use of the Features module in Drupal?

Answers:

  1. Migrating content from one Drupal website to another
  2. Exporting modules’ functionality in a single feature module
  3. Exporting website settings
  4. Backing up of website and database

38. How can a Drupal site be brought out of maintenance mode?

Answers:

  1. By changing the $maintance_mode variable in the settings.php file to FALSE.
  2. By changing the “Site status” configuration in admin settings to “online”.
  3. By removing the maintenance-lock.php file from the root of the Drupal installation folder.
  4. By granting “access site” permissions to anonymous users.

39. What is the best practice when adding a div with some text at the end of a page?

Answers:

  1. Use function drupal_add_js
  2. Use function drupal_add_html
  3. Modify your theme’s page.tpl file
  4. Modify your theme’s footer.php file

40. Which of the following condition(s) is/are not suited for using custom Drupal nodes?

Answers:

  1. When implicit ‘ownership’ via author tracking is needed
  2. When categorization via taxonomy is needed
  3. When implicit tracking of creation/modification time is needed
  4. When high data integrity is needed

41. “hook_js_alter” overrides JavaSript in Drupal. Which of the following statements are true?

Answers:

  1. It performs the necessary alterations to the JavaScript code before it is presented on the page.
  2. It performs the necessary alterations to the JavaScript code after it is presented on the page.
  3. It performs the necessary alterations to the JavaScript code before the page is loaded by browser.
  4. It performs the necessary alterations to the JavaScript code after the page is loaded by browser.

42. function phptemplate_breadcrumb($breadcrumb) {
if (!empty($breadcrumb)) {
array_shift($breadcrumb);
return ‘<div class=”breadcrumb”>’. implode(‘ › ‘, $breadcrumb) .'</div>’;
}
}

Which of the statement(s) about the code above is/are true?

Answers:

  1. The code will add one item to the breadcrumbs
  2. The code will remove the home item from the breadcrumbs
  3. The code will add one item at the end of the breadcrumbs
  4. The code will add a separator to the breadcrumbs

43. Which of the following is the correct way to enable special characters in Drupal user’s URL?

Answers:

  1. Install Path auto module and configure the special characters that you want to allow in the URL.
  2. Install User Link module.
  3. Enable in the admin settings.
  4. Can not do this in Drupal.

44. Which of the following is the correct way to get the node ID of the page being currently executed?

Answers:

  1. Using the arg() function
  2. $node->currentNid
  3. $page->nid
  4. $_SERVER [‘REQUEST_URI’]

45. Which of the following is the correct way to combine the values of two fields in one field display in Drupal views, when using a field display style?

Answers:

  1. Overriding the views-view-field.tpl file
  2. Overriding the views-view.tpl.php file
  3. Selecting “rewrite output” and placing the field token values together in the desired display form
  4. Using the field formatter

46. How can custom CSS rules be added to a Drupal page (content) without using themes?

Answers:

  1. By using the drupal_add_css() function
  2. Using the <link> HTML tag
  3. Using the <style> HTML tag
  4. You cannot add custom CSS rules to Drupal pages

47. Which of the following are ways to display SQL queries executed by a Drupal view?

Answers:

  1. By using the devel module
  2. By using the view_query_export module
  3. By using $view->build_info[‘query’]
  4. By using the views_get_current_view() function

48. Which of the following is the best way to pass arguments to the drupal_get_form() function?

Answers:

  1. drupal_get_form(‘custom1_default_form’,$arg1,$arg2)
  2. drupal_get_form(‘custom1_default_form’, array(‘arg1’=>’value’,’arg2’=>’value’))
  3. drupal_get_form(‘custom1_default_form’,$arg1.$arg2)
  4. we cannot pass arguments to drupal_get_form core function

49. Which of the following is the correct way to add a user’s first and last name in Drupal?

Answers:

  1. By enabling Profile module. This module allows for fields to be added to users like first-name and last-name.
  2. Must enable the User Details module.
  3. Can not do this for Drupal users.
  4. A and B

50. Each menu item has a key corresponding to a Drupal path being registered in hook_menu. Which of following is
not a key used to register a path in hook_menu()?

Answers:

  1. file
  2. file path
  3. tab_root
  4. rule

51. function special_registration_form_alter(&$form, $form_state, $form_id) {

if ($form_id == ‘user_register’ && ‘user’ == arg(0) && ‘register’ == arg(1)) {
// snipped alteration code
}
}

Which of the following statements about code above are true?

Answers:

  1. The code will alter the registration form for specific user types.
  2. The code alter the registration form for all instances of the user_register form.
  3. The code alter the registration form, but only when the user_register form appears on the ‘register/user’ page.
  4. The code will alter the registration form, but only when the user_register form appears on the ‘user/register’ page.

52. What is the order in which template files (.tpl) will be displayed in a “view”?

Answers:

  1. Fields, Row style output, Style output, Display output
  2. Display output, Fields, Style output, Row style output
  3. Fields ,Row style output, Row style output, Display output
  4. Display output, Style output, Row style output, Fields

53. How can a new element that was created be validated, if hook_form_alter was used, and a new field was added to an existing form?

Answers:

  1. Using hook_validate
  2. Adding $form[‘#validate’][] and writing the validation function
  3. Using hook_check
  4. Such elements cannot be validated

54. When sending email from Drupal, how can the default “From” address be changed?

Answers:

  1. By changing the Drupal admin settings’ Site Information page
  2. By changing it in the php.ini file
  3. By installing the SMTP module.
  4. By changing super user account’s email address (user/1); the super user’s email address will be used as the site-wide email authoring address.

55. Having a taxonomy associated with a node type. Using which function would it be possible to load/get the vocabulary information in the code?

Answers:

  1. taxonomy_get_vocabularies
  2. taxonomy_vocabulary_load
  3. taxonomy_load_vocabularies
  4. taxonomy_vocabulary_get

56. require ‘./includes/bootstrap.inc’;
drupal_bootstrap(DRUPAL_BOOTSTRAP_FULL);
$db_result = db_query(‘SELECT * FROM {users}’);
while($user_object = db_fetch_object($db_result)){
// .. code here
}

Which of the following statement(s) about the above code is/are true?

Answers:

  1. The code can be written in the theme template.php file to fetch all users
  2. The code won’t run correctly; drupal_bootstrap can’t run from an external script file
  3. The code can be used in a custom module script to fetch all users
  4. The code can be used in an external PHP file to fetch all users

57. Which of the following is the correct way to install another Drupal that shares the same modules, themes, libraries and core code of an existing site, while using a new database?

Answers:

  1. By installing the Subdomain module and its required modules.
  2. By creating a new folder in the ‘sites’ folder with the new domain name as folder name. Then, copy the sites/default/default.settings.php file to the new folder. Run the install.php script from the browser afterwards.
  3. By adding the new site domain name as a key in the ‘$db_url’ associative array in the settings.php file.
  4. A single Drupal code base cannot be used to host multiple sites.

58. Which of the following will not change the value of a CCK field automatically as soon as the user creates a new node?

Answers:

  1. By using the Rules module and adding and configuring a new Triggered Rule.
  2. By installing the Computed Field module and creating a Computed Field as the changing field.
  3. By implementing the hook_nodeapi hook in a custom module.
  4. By implementing the hook_node_info hook in a custom module.

59. Which of the following is the correct method to fire another process when a new node is created in Drupal?

Answers:

  1. Use hook_nodeapi and inside the insert handler add the code that you want to run after node creation. Code below: function mymodule_nodeapi(&$node, $op, $a3 = NULL, $a4 = NULL) { switch ($op) { case ‘insert’: // Add you code here break; } }
  2. Can do this in the node settings and add the code there.
  3. In the admin settings, add in the code that must be ran when the new node is done.
  4. B and C are correct.

60. Which of the following is the correct way to control the maximum character length in views, while displaying field content?

Answers:

  1. Select “exclude from display” and use token values to display fields
  2. Select “Trim this field to a maximum length” and put the number of characters
  3. Select “rewrite output” and write a PHP function for the maximum length
  4. Use the maximum field formatter to restrict the character length

61. Suppose there is a new version for a module that is installed on a Drupal 6 site. This new version contains some database updates. Do those database updates need to be applied manually? If so, how can those updates be applied?

Answers:

  1. It’s not necessary to apply database updates manually. Database updates will be applied during automatic maintenance (cron).
  2. Run the update.php script as soon as the previous version is replaced with the new version.
  3. Disable the module and enable it again. New database updates will be applied when the module is being enabled.
  4. Run the db-updates.php file.

62. Which of the following is the correct way to restrict users, with an email address ending in example.org (user@example.org, test@example.org, etc), from registering an account?

Answers:

  1. By adding “%@example.org” as an email restriction in the Access Rules administration settings
  2. By installing a Captcha module and its required modules
  3. By creating a custom module and implementing the hook_user_restrictions hook
  4. By installing the Domain Access module and its dependencies

63. By default, does Drupal Filefield allow uploading of javascript files?

Answers:

  1. Yes, just like any other files.
  2. No, it would be a security risk if it is allowed, what is does is change the type of the file to .txt
  3. No, can not upload files in Drupal.
  4. A and B are correct.

64. Is it possible to call Drupal functions in external PHP files?

Answers:

  1. Yes. Bootstrap Drupal functions in your external PHP file.
  2. Yes. Just place the file inside the root directory of your Drupal installation.
  3. No.
  4. A and B are correct.

65. Suppose the user is on the folllowing URL:
http://example.com/blog/odesk-skills-test?page=1#comment-123

The above URL path is an alias of the following URL path:
http://example.com/node/8

What would be the output of the following code? (Assume it’s placed in the node.tpl.php file)

$arg_0 = arg(0);
var_export($arg_0);

Answers:

  1. ‘1’
  2. ‘node’
  3. ‘blog’
  4. ‘blog/odesk-skills-test’

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Upwork Web Designing

XHTML 1.0 Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which of the following is incorrect with regard to the <select> tag?

Answers:

  1. The “name” should be specified
  2. The “disabled” attribute disables the drop-down list
  3. The “multiple” attribute allows the user to choose multiple options
  4. The text specified in the “value” is displayed in the drop-down list
  5. None of the above

2. You have defined the following image in an XHTML document:

<img src=”/image/logo.gif” alt=”” id=”img1″ />

Answers:

  1. The code will only work properly in a browser that supports XHTML
  2. The code will work properly in a browser that supports both HTML 4.x and XHTML
  3. The code will only work properly in a browser that supports HTML 4.x
  4. The code is incorrect, it will not work in any browser

3. You want to create a link for your website allowing users to email the webmaster. How will you implement this if the webmaster’s email is “webmaster@xcompany.com”?

Answers:

  1. <a href=”mailto:webmaster@xcompany.com”>webmaster</a>
  2. <a href=”webmaster@xcompany.com”>webmaster</a>
  3. <a http=”mail:webmaster@xcompany.com”>webmaster</a>
  4. <mail http=”send:webmaster@xcompany.com”>webmaster</mail>
  5. <a href=”mailto://webmaster@xcompany.com”>webmaster</a>

4. What do you understand by cellspacing?

Answers:

  1. It makes the cell span more than one column
  2. It specifies the space between the cell wall and the contents of the cell
  3. It specifies the space between two cells
  4. It makes the cell span more than one row

5. Which of the following lines will be allowed by an XHTML parser?

Answers:

  1. <p>This is the starting of a new paragraph
  2. <P>This is the starting of a new paragraph<P>
  3. Here is a break statement <br></br>
  4. New Horizontal line <hr />

6. What do you understand by the following line of code?

<html xmlns=”http://www.w3.org/TR/REC-xml-names”>

Answers:

  1. xmlns specifies the URL to qualify the names used in the XHTML document
  2. xmlns means html-xml number sequence
  3. Elimination of xmlns tag will result in the document not being validated by a w3.org validator
  4. The page will not be displayed properly if the URL is changed to “http://www.w3.org/1999/xhtml”

7. Which of the following statements is true about the table header, body and footer tags?

Answers:

  1. The table header, body and footer tags are <tablehead>, <tablebody> and <tablefoot> respectively
  2. The table header, body and footer tags are <tabhead>, <tabbody> and <tabfoot> respectively
  3. It is recommended to first specify the table header followed by the footer and then the body tag
  4. None of the above

8. Which of the following is not correct for a <meta> tag?

Answers:

  1. It is more useful if it is placed in a head element
  2. It can be used to specify the keywords for the search engines
  3. It can be used to redirect users to other URLs
  4. It is mandatory to specify the name or scheme attributes

9. Your browser supports bidirectional text. Which tag will you use if you need to display text from right to left?

Answers:

  1. <opposite>Text should go in opposite direction</opposite>
  2. <p direction=”rtl”>Text should go in opposite direction</p>
  3. <bdo dir=”rtl”>Text should go in opposite direction</bdo>
  4. <text dir=”rtl”>Text should go in opposite direction</text>

10. How will you import a style sheet named “basic.css” in your web page?

Answers:

  1. <import name=”stylesheet” url=”basic.css”>
  2. <link rel=”stylesheet” type=”text/css” href=”basic.css”/>
  3. <style name=”stylesheet” url=”basic.css”>
  4. <link item=”stylesheet” type=”text/css” href=”basic.css”>

11. You want to display a table listing out customer names and their contact information. The heading of the table is shown in the figure. What is the code for creating the first line of the table heading?

Answers:

  1. <tr><th>Customer Name</th> <th rowspan=”3″>Contact</th> </tr>
  2. <tr><th>Customer Name</th> <th colspan=”3″>Contact</th> </tr>
  3. <tr><th>Customer Name</th> <th cellpadding=”3″>Contact</th> </tr>
  4. <tr><th>Customer Name</th> <thcellspacing=3>Contact</th> </tr>

12. The following registration form was coded by a programmer in XHTML:

1. <!– Start of the Form Fields –>
2. Name:
3. <input type=”text” name=”name” maxlength=”50″ />
4. Registration Date:
5. <input readonly type=”text” value=”javascript:getDate();” />
6. Account Type:
7. <select name=”Account”>
8. <option “selected” value=”Primary”>Primary</option>
9. <option value=”Secondary”>Secondary</option>
10. </select>

Which of the following options is true with regard to this XHTML document?

Answers:

  1. The syntax of the input tag at line 3 is incorrect
  2. The readonly attribute in line 5 is not correctly coded
  3. The syntax of the select tag is not correct
  4. Maxlength cannot be specified with text boxes

13. How will you specify a comment in an XHTML document?

Answers:

  1. <!!– Here is a comment… –!>
  2. <– Here is a comment.. –>
  3. <!– Here is a comment.. –>
  4. <! Here is a comment… –!>

14. Which of the following statements is correct with regard to DTDs?

Answers:

  1. A strict DTD allows the user to use cascading style sheets
  2. A transitional DTD displays content in those browsers which don’t support CSS
  3. A frameset DTD is used to partition the browser window
  4. All of the above

15. Which attributes of the <table> tag is deprecated in HTML 4.01 and not supported in strict DTD XHTML?

Answers:

  1. align
  2. bgcolor
  3. cellspacing

16. You want to provide a form field to the users for writing lengthy comments on the quality of the services provided by you. Which of the following tags will you use?

Answers:

  1. <textarea rows=”8″ cols=”20″> Your comments ….</textarea>
  2. <textarea row=”8″ col=”20″> Your comments ….</textarea>
  3. <textarea rowcount=”8″ colcount=”20″> Your comments ….</textarea>
  4. <input type=”text” maxlength=”100″ />

17. What is the numeric entity representation of the ‘less than’ sign (its entity name is ‘<‘) ?

Answers:

  1. 60;#
  2. &#60;
  3. &60#;
  4. #60&;

18. Which of the following is incorrect about the relation between HTML and XHTML?

Answers:

  1. XHTML is a stricter and cleaner version of HTML
  2. XHTML is almost identical to HTML 4.01
  3. XHTML and HTML both are used to generate dynamic content
  4. XHTML brings together the elements of HTML and the syntax of XML

19. While designing the links page of your website, you want the link to open in a new window. How will you implement this with XHTML using Transitional doc type?

Answers:

  1. <anchor href=”http://www.mailer.com”>Mailer</anchor>
  2. <anchor href=http://www.mailer.com target=_blank>Mailer</anchor>
  3. <A HREF=”http://www.mailer.com”>Mailer</A>
  4. <a href=”http://www.mailer.com” target=”_blank”>Mailer</a>

20. You are developing a website. In one of the subscription forms, you need to get the subscription start date from the user. The HTML code is as follows:

Day <input type=”text” size=”3″ />
Month <input type=”text” size=”10″ />
Year <input type=”text” size=”4″ />

Which of the following will you use if you want to put these 3 text fields together in a box?

Answers:

  1. <legend>
  2. <box>
  3. <fieldset>
  4. <area>

21. Which attribute specifies the submit URL in a form?

Answers:

  1. method
  2. action
  3. name
  4. id

22. You placed four radio buttons on a web form. You want the users to specify whether they are male or female and whether they are married or single. The code is as follows:

Male: <input type=”radio” checked=”checked” name=”chk” value=”male” />
Female: <input type=”radio” name=”chk” value=”female” />
Married: <input type=”radio” checked=”checked” name=”chk” value=”married” />
Single: <input type=”radio” name=”chk” value=”single” />

What is wrong with the above code?

Answers:

  1. It will allow the user to choose only the male and the married options
  2. It will allow the user to choose only the female and single options
  3. It will allow the user to choose only one option out of the four
  4. It will allow the user to choose all the four options at the same time

23. What do you understand by cellpadding?

Answers:

  1. It makes the cell span more than one column
  2. It specifies the space between the cell wall and the contents of the cell
  3. It specifies the space between two cells
  4. It makes the cell span more than one row

24. Which of the following is correct for an image?

Answers:

  1. An image must be resized in an editor to fit in the specified space on a webpage
  2. If you have a big image but specify smaller height and width attributes in the <img> tag, only the top left portion of the image will be displayed in the browser
  3. Both a and b are correct
  4. The height and width attributes allow resizing the image on the webpage

25. On one of your web pages named “Listing.xhtml” you specified a target like this:

<a name=”target4″>Old Listing</a>

How will you make a link to the above target?

Answers:

  1. <a url=”#target4″>Check Old Listing as well</a>
  2. <a href=”#target4″>Check Old Listing as well</a>
  3. <link url=”target4″>Check Old Listing as well</link>
  4. <a href=”Listing.target4″>Check Old Listing as well</a>

26. Which of the following statements is correct for the <blockquote> tag?

Answers:

  1. The text under blockquote must be enclosed in a block level element in a strict DTD document
  2. The attribute named “cite” must be specified
  3. Closing the tag is optional
  4. It doesn’t place an empty line after the text

27. A developer wrote this image tag:

<img src =”states.gif” width =”330″ height =”406″ alt=”States”
usemap =”#statemap” />

What code should follow this?

Answers:

  1. <map id=”statemap” name=”statemap”> <area shape=”rect” coords=”0,0,82,126″ href=”state1.htm” alt=”State1″ /> </map>
  2. <map id=”statemap” name=”statemap”></map> <area shape=”rect” coords=”0,0,82,126″ href=”state1.htm” alt=”State1″ />
  3. <map id=”statemap” name=”statemap”> <imgarea shape=”rect” coords=”0,0,82,126″ href=”state1.htm” alt=”State1″ /></map>
  4. <map id=”statemap” name=”statemap”></map> <imgarea shape=”rect” coords=”0,0,82,126″ href=”state1.htm” alt=”State1″ />

28. A <doctype> defines the document type of any XHTML document. It can be of three types:

Answers:

  1. Strict, Transitional, and Frameset
  2. Strict, Transitional and Loose
  3. Fixed, Intermediate and Loose
  4. Fixed, Intermediate, Frameset

29. You have to add a list of products in a drop-down list. What will you use to group the identical products under a category name?

Answers:

  1. optgroup
  2. option
  3. menu
  4. var

30. Which of the following is correct regarding the frame attribute of the table tag?

Answers:

  1. It is used to add a frame to the table
  2. A “hsides” frame attribute will show the border lines for horizontal sides of the table only
  3. A “hsides” frame attribute will not show the border lines for horizontal sides of the table only
  4. A “hsides” frame attribute will add a scrollable frame on the horizontal sides of the table

31. Which of these tags will create a single space character?

Answers:

  1. <td>
  2. <th>
  3. &nbsp;
  4. <b>

32. While writing a strict DTD XHTML document, you want to create a table having 2 columns, both left aligned. What technique will you choose to do this?

Answers:

  1. <table align=”left” border=”1″> <tr><td>Plan A </td> <td align=”left”>Monthly payment of $60</td> </tr> . . . . . . </table>
  2. <table border=”1″> <tr><td align=”left”>Plan A</td> <td align=”left”>Monthly payment of $60</td> </tr> . . . . . . </table>
  3. <table align=”left” border=”1″> <tr><td align=”left”>Plan A</td> <td align=”left”>Monthly payment of $60</td> </tr> . . . . . . </table>
  4. <table border=”1″> <tr><td align=”left”>Plan A</td> <td>Monthly payment of $60</td> </tr> . . . . . . </table>

33. Which of the following is correct about the <!DOCTYPE …> tag?

Answers:

  1. It is not considered to be mandatory as per the XHTML specification
  2. It must have a closing tag
  3. It should come just after the <html> tag
  4. Its declaration is not a part of the XHTML document itself
  5. None of the above

34. You specified a base tag and anchors as follows:

1. <base target=”_blank”></base>
2. <a href=”http://www.yahoo.com”>Yahoo</a>
3. <a href=”http://www.google.com” target=”_top”>Google</a>

Which of the following is true for the above code?

Answers:

  1. Only the Yahoo link will open in a new window
  2. Only the Google link will open in a new window
  3. Both links will open in a new window
  4. Both links will open in the same window

35. Please choose the most appropriate option.

One of the differences between XHTML and HTML 4.01 is that the “name” attribute has been replaced by the “id” attribute in:

Answers:

  1. img and applet tags
  2. img and map tags
  3. map and frame tags
  4. img, map, frame and applet tags
  5. frame, applet, style and map tags

36. Which of the following is true for the “<param>” tag?

Answers:

  1. It doesn’t need a closing tag
  2. The language attribute cannot be specified with it
  3. The name and type attributes are optional
  4. The class, id and title can be specified for it

37. Within a table cell “<td>”:

Answers:

  1. <p></p> tags can’t be used
  2. <ol></ol> tags can’t be used
  3. <table></table> tags can’t be used
  4. <form></form> tags can’t be used
  5. All the above tags can be used

38. Which of the following represents the basic tag structure of an XHTML document?

Answers:

  1. <html><head><body></body></html>
  2. <html><body></body></html>
  3. <html><head></head><body></body></html>
  4. <html><head></head></html>

39. Your website has moved to some other address. How will you automatically redirect a user to that address within 3 seconds of landing on the old address?

Answers:

  1. <meta http-equiv=”refresh” content=”3; url=http://www.newurl.com”/>
  2. <meta http=”refresh” url=”www.newurl.com”//>
  3. <meta scheme=”refresh” name=”redirect” http=”www.newurl.com”//>
  4. <meta http-equiv=”redirect” content=”3″ http=”www.newurl.com”/>

40. How will you specify the language attribute in XHTML?

Answers:

  1. <div lang=”en” xml:lang=”en”>Listing A</div>
  2. <div language=”en”>Listing A</div>
  3. <div language=”en” xhtml:lang=”en”>Listing A</div>
  4. <div xml:language=”en”>Listing A</div>

1,844 total views, 4 views today

Upwork Web Designing

Principles of Web Graphics Design Test 2016

Published by:

1. What does proximity refer to in the design theory?

Answers:

  1. It is a way to draw the viewer’s attention
  2. It is the strongest location for creating emphasis
  3. It is a way to make a group of objects feel like a single unit
  4. None of the above

2. Which of these is an advantage of liquid-width layout?

Answers:

  1. The designer has more control over how an image floated within the content will look
  2. This layout allows planned whitespace
  3. This layout adapts to most screen resolutions and devices
  4. The readability of narrow text blocks improves

3. Which font should be used for illustrations and art work that is to be incorporated into the design of a website?

Answers:

  1. Dingbat font
  2. Novelty fonts
  3. Serif fonts
  4. Transitional Serif fonts

4. Which is the type of symmetry which is applied to web site layouts by centering the content or balancing in between columns?

Answers:

  1. Horizontal symmetry
  2. Vertical symmetry
  3. Bilateral symmetry
  4. Radial symmetry

5. By which ‘magical number’ should a line’s length be divided so that it can be bisected using the golden ratio?

Answers:

  1. 1.26
  2. 2.16
  3. 1.62
  4. 2.61

6. By combining black with which color can a design get a technical feel?

Answers:

  1. White
  2. Purple
  3. Green
  4. Blue

7. Which of these is a method to create ’emphasis’ in a design?

Answers:

  1. Unity
  2. Proximity
  3. Repetition
  4. Isolation

8. Didot is a ________ serif font.

Answers:

  1. transitional
  2. sans
  3. modern

9. Which of these does not fall in the category of ‘warm colors’?

Answers:

  1. Orange
  2. Pink
  3. Burgundy
  4. Blue

10. What is the ‘core purpose’ of web designing?

Answers:

  1. Communication
  2. Attraction
  3. Sales

11. State whether True or False.

Complementary color schemes consist of colors that are located opposite each other on the color wheel.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

12. What is the bowl of a letter?

Answers:

  1. It is the rounded curve that encloses negative space in a letter form
  2. It is the name given to the dot above the lower case
  3. It is the horizontal line that marks the top edge of the lower case letters

13. State whether True or False.

The lesser the difference between a graphic element and its surroundings, the more that element will stand out.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

14. The ____ is the end of the content that users can see on a page before they scroll down.

Answers:

  1. footer
  2. whitespace
  3. logo
  4. fold

15. What is the term given to the process of cropping, resizing and modifying the pictures found while searching with search engines and using them for one’s own site?

Answers:

  1. Creative Cropping
  2. Google Ganking
  3. Edge Treatments

16. ________is a principle of design that has to do with the differences in the scale of objects.

Answers:

  1. Proportion
  2. Contrast
  3. Placement
  4. Proximity

17. Which of these is not a kind of freeform shape?

Answers:

  1. Ellipses
  2. Random angles
  3. Non-geometric curves
  4. Irregular lines

18. What is a split-complementary color scheme?

Answers:

  1. It is a color scheme that combines any complementary color scheme with another complementary color scheme
  2. It is a color scheme that uses the two colors adjacent to the base color’s complement
  3. It is a color scheme that uses colors that are adjacent to one another on the color wheel
  4. It is a color scheme that uses colors that are located opposite each other on the color wheel

19. Most font families include the regular font face along with italic, bold and ________ variants.

Answers:

  1. bold italic
  2. HTML text
  3. modern serif

20. _______ is anything that gives a distinctive appearance to the surface of a design.

Answers:

  1. Color
  2. A pixel
  3. Texture
  4. Typography

21. What is an analogous color scheme?

Answers:

  1. It is a color scheme that consists of a single base color and any number of shades or tints of that color
  2. It is a color scheme that consists of colors that are located opposite each other on the color wheel
  3. It is a color scheme that consists of two colors which are adjacent to the base color’s complement
  4. It is a color scheme that consists of colors that are adjacent to one another on the color wheel

22. Which of these color mixtures creates the color vermilion?

Answers:

  1. Yellow-orange
  2. Red-orange
  3. Yellow-green
  4. Blue-green

23. In print design language, the vertical space between the lines of the text is known as ____________.

Answers:

  1. leading
  2. ligature
  3. word-spacing
  4. letter-spacing

24. For which purpose has the JPEG format been developed?

Answers:

  1. It has been developed to store photographic images
  2. It has been developed to store printed images
  3. It has been developed to store Graphics Interchange Format
  4. It has been developed to store the eight bit format

25. _______ and _________ are the most important visual cues we can use to determine or create depth and volume in compositions.

Answers:

  1. Light, shadow
  2. Proportion, perspective
  3. Width, height

26. What does the ‘brightness’ of an image refer to?

Answers:

  1. It refers to the overall amount of light or darkness in the image
  2. It refers to the difference between the light and the dark areas of the image
  3. It refers to the overall color of the image
  4. It refers to the saturation of the color appearance in the images

27. _____________ is the process of adjusting the space between individual letters.

Answers:

  1. Tracking
  2. Kerning
  3. Ligature

28. Which of these is not a possible value for background-repeat?

Answers:

  1. Repeat
  2. Repeat-xy
  3. Repeat-x
  4. Repeat-y

29. What is the ‘rule of thirds’?

Answers:

  1. A symmetrical balance when one third of the elements of a composition are the same on either side of an axis line
  2. A line bisected by the golden ratio and divided into two sections, one of which is approximately twice the size of the other
  3. A line bisected by the golden ratio by dividing its length by three
  4. A layout divided into three equal parts

30. What does the saturation of a color mean?

Answers:

  1. The measure of the lightness or darkness of a color
  2. The basic formulae for creating harmonious and effective color combinations
  3. The saturation of a color is determined by a combination of light intensity and how much it is distributed across the spectrum of different wavelengths.
  4. The use of a color with black, white and shades of grey

31. In photoshop adjustments, the Hue color affects the overall _________ of the image.

Answers:

  1. brightness
  2. color
  3. layer style
  4. freshness

32. What does SIFR stand for?

Answers:

  1. Scalable Inman Flash Replacement
  2. Scalable Inman Flash Recalling
  3. Scalable Inman Flash Repayment

33. Which one of the following fonts does not come under ‘the safe list’?

Answers:

  1. Arial
  2. Arial Black
  3. Impact
  4. Helvetica
  5. All of the above are safe.

34. What is a comprehensive dummy?

Answers:

  1. It is a complete simulation of a printed layout that is created before the layout goes to the press
  2. It is a method of packing data in order to save disk storage space or download time
  3. It is a standard term for a banner advertisement
  4. It is a feature of HTML

35. Which of the following is one of the ways to avoid pixelation of an image to be published on the web?

Answers:

  1. Enhance the Hue Saturation
  2. Increase the dpi of the image
  3. Despeckle the image
  4. Flatten the image

36. State whether True or False.

The lower angled strokes in the letters “K”, “R” and “Q” are known as legs.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

37. State whether True or False.

Colors are displayed in percentages of red, green, and blue light in an additive color model.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

38. Which of these adds richness and visual interest to all types of design?

Answers:

  1. Economy of line
  2. Typography
  3. Pattern
  4. Pixels

39. A /An________ color scheme consists of a single base color and any number of tints or shades of that color.

Answers:

  1. analogous
  2. complementary
  3. monochromatic
  4. split complementary

40. What is the imaginary horizontal line on which most of the characters sit called?

Answers:

  1. Crossbar
  2. Cap height
  3. Serif
  4. Baseline

41. State whether True or False.

A focal point is the point where the different elements of a composition interact with one another.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

42. Any area of a page that is not covered by type or illustrations is known as _____.

Answers:

  1. blank space
  2. white space
  3. black space
  4. negative space

43. Which kind of font do ‘Wingdings’ and ‘Webdings’ fall under?

Answers:

  1. Novelty font
  2. Dingbat font
  3. Fixed-width fonts
  4. Sans – Serif fonts

44. ___________ is an eight bit format that compresses files on the basis of the number of colors in the image.

Answers:

  1. GIF
  2. JPEG
  3. CSS
  4. PNG

45. What does the term ‘typo’ stand for?

Answers:

  1. Impression or mark
  2. Writing mistakes
  3. Creating

46. State whether True or False.

CSS borders provide myriad of possible effects that do not rely on extra images.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

47. Which is the most common and expressive element of a graphic design?

Answers:

  1. Line
  2. Points
  3. Shape

48. What is typography?

Answers:

  1. It is the resetting of words, sentences and paragraphs in different fonts.
  2. It is the arrangement of familiar sets of shapes to make words, sentences, and paragraphs
  3. It is the implementation of new types of scripts

49. The curved angle that connects the terminal of the stroke to the serif is known as a___________.

Answers:

  1. bracket
  2. crown
  3. modern serif
  4. baskerville

3,195 total views, 6 views today

Upwork Web Designing

Maya 7.0 Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which NURBS element is being represented by the yellow colored line in the given image?

Answers:

  1. Hull
  2. Isoparm
  3. Normal
  4. None of the above

2. Which utility node is used to obtain information about the position of a light relative to a texture?

Answers:

  1. Double-sided shading
  2. Sampler info
  3. Light info
  4. Projection

3. Which among these fog types can cast shadows?

Answers:

  1. Environment fog
  2. Simple fog
  3. Physical fog
  4. Light fog

4. Color curve attribute is only available for spot light?

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

5. While using Move tool, which “Set keys on” option should be selected in order to set the keys on translate x,y & z attributes only?

Answers:

  1. All keyable attributes
  2. All Manipulator handles
  3. Current Manipulator handle
  4. All manipulator handles & keyable attributes

6. Key Ticks are shown as green marks whereas breakdowns are shown as red marks on the time slider?

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

7. Which among the following materials is a volumetric material?

Answers:

  1. Ocean shader
  2. Phong
  3. Shading map
  4. Light fog

8. Which type of light Maya automatically creates during render, if there is no light in the scene?

Answers:

  1. Point light
  2. Directional light
  3. Ambient light
  4. Volume light

9. Displacement mapping does not change the surface by moving its vertices but only changes the surface’s normals?

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

10. Which animation editor is shown in the given graphic?

Answers:

  1. Curve editor
  2. Trax editor
  3. Dope sheet editor
  4. Blend shape editor

11. Which of these is a software render type for particles?

Answers:

  1. Point
  2. Sphere
  3. Sprite
  4. Cloud

12. Which Material type has been used to render the sphere in the given image?

Answers:

  1. Phong
  2. Lambert
  3. Blinn
  4. Anisotropic

13. State whether True or False:
Keys cannot be set on the transform attributes of particles individually in a particle object.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

14. How many CVs at least would you need to complete a degree 5 curve?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 3
  3. 5
  4. 6

15. Animating an object using motion path creates a dynamic animation?

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

16. Which of the following lets you edit event and sound synchronization and timing?

Answers:

  1. Blend shape editor
  2. Curve editor
  3. Dope sheet editor
  4. Expression editor

17. In the given image, which Birail tool has been used to create the surface in graphic 1, using the vertical curves as profile curves and horizontal curves as rail curves in graphic 2?

Answers:

  1. Birail 1 tool
  2. Birail 2 tool
  3. Birail 3+ tool
  4. None of the above

18. Which among these lets you interactively update portions or all of the scene and get immediate feedback?

Answers:

  1. Render current frame
  2. Redo previous render
  3. IPR render current frame
  4. All of above

19. Which of the following particle render types allows setting “Line width” attribute for rendering?

Answers:

  1. Point
  2. Streak
  3. Multipoint
  4. All of above

20. Which manipulator is represented by yellow square pointed at with the red arrow in the given image of a spotlight?

Answers:

  1. Pivot
  2. Cone angle
  3. Penumbra
  4. Decay regions

21. In the given image, the particle render type is set to?

Answers:

  1. Point
  2. Multipoint
  3. Streak
  4. Multistreak

22. Which key would you press in order to turn on the pivot point manipulator?

Answers:

  1. Escape
  2. Insert
  3. End
  4. None of the above

23. “Parameter tool” displays the direction of the curve or surface and the normal to the curve or surface at a specified point?

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

24. What would you do to a NURBS surface in order to create a curve on that surface?

Answers:

  1. Make live
  2. Center pivot
  3. Add attribute
  4. None of the above

25. In the given image, the area marked in red shows the?

Answers:

  1. Range slider
  2. Time slider
  3. Playback controls
  4. None of the above

26. Which material type is used for representing matte surfaces with no specular highlights, such as chalk or unpolished surfaces?

Answers:

  1. Phong
  2. Lambert
  3. Blinn
  4. Phong E

27. Breakdowns can be converted into keys but keys cannot be converted into breakdowns?

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

28. Which utility is shown in the given image?

Answers:

  1. Multilister
  2. Hypershade
  3. Hypergraph
  4. Visor

29. Which is a 3d texture type?

Answers:

  1. Cloth
  2. File
  3. Brownian
  4. Ramp

30. Which output image file formats can store the depth channels in one file?

Answers:

  1. Maya IFF
  2. Maya16 IFF
  3. RLA
  4. All of the above

31. Which Move tool option causes the manipulator orientation to reflect the moved surface rather than the original surface and lets you move selected CVs on a NURBS surface in the U or V direction?

Answers:

  1. Object
  2. Local
  3. World
  4. Normal

32. Which editor is used to create, edit, and connect rendering nodes, such as textures, materials, lights, rendering utilities, and special effects?

Answers:

  1. Hypergraph
  2. Hypershade
  3. Outliner
  4. None of the above

33. Which light has been used for rendering the given image?

Answers:

  1. Point light
  2. Directional light
  3. Spot light
  4. Area light

34. Which light is used to simulate a combination of direct light and indirect light?

Answers:

  1. Point light
  2. Directional light
  3. Ambient light
  4. Volume light

35. Which type of attribute is typically used in an expression to control a combination of other attributes?

Answers:

  1. Static attributes
  2. Dynamic attributes
  3. Custom attributes
  4. All of above

36. Render diagnostics can display limitations and recommendations regarding output image file format restrictions?

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

37. In the given figure, which Maya utility does the button marked in red points to?

Answers:

  1. Hypershade
  2. Render globals
  3. Render diagnostics
  4. None of the above

38. Which animation types can be edited in the graph editor?

Answers:

  1. Expressions
  2. Animation curves
  3. Inverse Kinematics
  4. All of the above

39. Which light is represented by the icon in the given image?

Answers:

  1. Point light
  2. Ambient light
  3. Volume light
  4. Directional light

40. Which tool would you use to transform a number of items proportional, based on the distance from the manipulator handle?

Answers:

  1. Proportional modification tool
  2. Move tool
  3. Move normal tool
  4. All of the above

41. Which attribute for a particle per object is set to “Live forever” in order to make the particles live for ever?

Answers:

  1. LifespanMode
  2. Lifespan
  3. LifespanRandom
  4. None of the above

42. Which “world up type” in “attach to motion path” tool specifies that the up vector try to aim at the origin of a specified object instead of the world up vector?

Answers:

  1. Scene up
  2. Object up
  3. Object rotation up
  4. Vector

43. Which keyboard shortcut lets you edit the particle object in edit mode?

Answers:

  1. Escape
  2. Insert
  3. Spacebar
  4. ‘E’

44. Which among these is not an emitter type?

Answers:

  1. Surface
  2. Spot
  3. Curve
  4. Volume

45. “Hold current keys” sets keys only for the attributes that change value?

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

46. Which rotation interpolation would be set in order to create curves that have keyframes on sibling curves locked together but the interpolation between keyframes is performed in Euler-space?

Answers:

  1. Independent Euler-Angle curves
  2. Synchronized Euler-Angle curves
  3. Synchronized Quaternion curves
  4. All of the above

47. In the given Image, which one among the marked options represents anisotropic material?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. None of these

48. Which surface material is used by initial(default) shading group?

Answers:

  1. Phong
  2. Lambert
  3. Blinn
  4. None of the above

767 total views, 3 views today

Upwork Web Designing

Dreamweaver 8 Test 2016

Published by:

1. What is the name of the property that lets you specify the number of
pixels between the cell content and the cell edge?

Answers:

  1. Cellpadding
  2. Cellspacing
  3. Exclamator
  4. Seperator
  5. None of the above

2. How do you Lock up a file on the remote server to prevent other team members from editing it while you can edit the file yourself?

Answers:

  1. Make the file read only
  2. Archive the file
  3. Check in the file
  4. Check out the file

3. The Code inspector works just like Code view but allows you to work in a separate coding window.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

4. What is the use of the property “text-decoration=none”?

Answers:

  1. It will remove all the styles which you have applied to the text
  2. It will remove the underline (especially if applied to hyperlinks)
  3. Nothing will change
  4. None of the above

5. Pick the statement which is true.

Answers:

  1. You can use Behaviors, Styles, and Timelines in templates
  2. You can only apply Behaviors and styles to objects in the original template
  3. Both a and b are true
  4. Both a and b are false

6. Can Editable regions be exported from one template to another?

Answers:

  1. Yes from the menu, choose File > Export > Export Template Data as XML
  2. No, Dreamweaver does not have any such feature
  3. Yes from the menu, choose Modify > Export > Export Editable regions as XML
  4. Yes but the only for templates which have less than 10 editable regions

7. A navigation bar:

Answers:

  1. Consists of a sequence of images, arranged either horizontally or vertically, that make up a series of navigational buttons
  2. Consists of a sequence of buttons, arranged either horizontally or vertically
  3. Consists of a series of navigational buttons
  4. None of the above

8. The start page contains buttons for inserting various types of objects such as images, tables, layers into the document?

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

9. Which among these file formats lets you export and import sites in dreamweavers while keeping all the site’s settings intact?

Answers:

  1. zip
  2. rar
  3. xml
  4. cab

10. What is shown in the given image?

Answers:

  1. The coding toolbar
  2. The document toolbar
  3. The style rendering toolbar
  4. The standard toolbar

11. Which among the following file types does not support dynamic pages?

Answers:

  1. htm
  2. cfm
  3. asp
  4. php

12. Which two events add up to an ‘onClick’ event?

Answers:

  1. An onClick event consists of the onMouseDown and onMouseUp events
  2. An onClick event consists of the onMouseDown and onMouseClick events
  3. An onClick event consists of the onMouseClick and onMouseUp events
  4. None of the above

13. In which ways can you sort a table automatically in Dreamweaver?

Answers:

  1. Sorting alphabetically or numerically
  2. Sorting in ascending or descending order
  3. Sorting from internal to external cells
  4. Both a and b
  5. Both a and c
  6. a, b and c

14. Which among the following gives information for correcting the code when an invalid code is highlighted with yellow?

Answers:

  1. Code inspector
  2. Property inspector
  3. Design view
  4. None of the above

15. In the figure, what is the function of the options marked in green?

Answers:

  1. They are used for clearing columns widths and row heights
  2. They are used for inserting text in a particular column or row
  3. They are used for indentation of table
  4. None of the above

16. For a website that you create in Dreamweaver, where are the working copies of site files on your hard disk?

Answers:

  1. Local Folder
  2. Image Folder
  3. The location of Dreamweaver settings files
  4. None of the above

17. Which regions, editable or locked, are highlighted when you are editing the original template file?

Answers:

  1. The editable regions
  2. The locked regions
  3. Both editable and locked regions are highlighted with different colors
  4. Neither is highlighted, we have to recognize the regions by their headings

18. While working in split view how do you switch the view in order to take the design view on the top half and the code view to the bottom half?

Answers:

  1. Toggle the split view button
  2. Click on the view options button on the document toolbar and select design view on top
  3. Click the Show Design View button on the toolbar
  4. Click view> Switch view

19. What type of objects are shown in the figure?

Answers:

  1. Frames
  2. Common objects
  3. Forms
  4. Characters

20. In the given figure, what does the highlighted item in blue show?

Answers:

  1. A Local folder
  2. A Dreamweaver site
  3. Remote ftp
  4. None of the above

21. You cannot work in the design view when live data is turned off, in case of dynamic pages?

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

22. Which one of the following attributes limits the number of characters a user can enter in the form text field?

Answers:

  1. Length
  2. Size
  3. MaxChars
  4. Maxsize

23. What is an orphaned file?

Answers:

  1. A file that has no outgoing links to other pages
  2. A file with a missing template
  3. A file that has no incoming links pointing towards it
  4. A file that is not being used in the site anymore

24. You have created a page with a background image. You want the page to be displayed in such a manner that the image remains fixed in its position when the page is scrolled. How will you do this using Dreamweaver?

Answers:

  1. You will simply specify the image name in the background attribute of
  2. You will make a class and add it to . In that class you will turn on the option Repeat=”fixed” in background styles while making the CSS Style
  3. You will make a class and put it in . In that class you will turn on the option Scrolling=”fixed” in background styles while making the CSS Style.
  4. It can”t be done through Dreamweaver

25. How would you create a new page based on existing built-in Page Designs in Dreamweaver?

Answers:

  1. Click File>New>Page Design Templates>Create
  2. Click File>New, Select Page design in the general tab and choose the desired design
  3. Click File>Import>Page Design
  4. Click File>Open Recent and choose the desired Page design

26. In the Sitemap, what is the appearance of a file that is checked out?

Answers:

  1. It has a green check mark beside it
  2. It has a red check mark beside it
  3. both a and b are true
  4. It has a small icon of an eye beside it
  5. None of the above

27. Which among these features is used as a guide to re-create a page design that was created in a graphics application such as Macromedia Freehand or Fireworks.

Answers:

  1. Backdrop Image
  2. Background Image
  3. Tracing Image
  4. None of the above

28. Preload images is a handy action you can tie to the onLoad event for a page:

Answers:

  1. True
  2. Partially true
  3. False

29. The given image shows a suggestion box that can be turned on and off from?

Answers:

  1. Edit>Preferences>Code Hints
  2. Edit>Preferences>Code Format
  3. Edit>Preferences>Validator
  4. Edit>Preferences>Default

30. Do you need to have a target layer to use the Drag Layer Behavior?

Answers:

  1. No
  2. Yes
  3. Only when you are using it with drop-down menus
  4. Yes you need target layers along with the destination layer

31. Where do you specify which particular file types should be opened in the code view by default?

Answers:

  1. Select Edit>Preferences and access Types/Editors preferences
  2. Select Edit>Preferences and access Defaults preferences
  3. Edit the choices in the “code view” menu item on the document toolbar
  4. You cannot specify any such preference

32. Jump menus are drop-down lists that contain entries for every page on your site.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False
  3. Partially True

33. In the given figure, what is the Split Button used for?

Answers:

  1. It allows you to see both the code and layout of one area in a file on which you are working
  2. It splits the code view into two parts, so that the code from two different files can be edited at once
  3. It splits the code into two halves at the line of demarcation and save the code as two seperate files
  4. None of the above

34. Which among the following lets you manage your documents and folders, whether they are part of a Dreamweaver site or on a remote server?

Answers:

  1. The document window
  2. The document toolbar
  3. The file panel
  4. None of the above

35. Under which style category does the Z-index option appear?

Answers:

  1. Extensions
  2. Positioning
  3. Background
  4. Box

36. What is History Panel used for?

Answers:

  1. To log steps taken in the current document, undo or save them, or automate tasks
  2. To log the visitors on the site
  3. To log the users editing the files on the site
  4. None of the above

37. The Drag Layer action assigns three properties to each draggable layer about the position and state of the layer. Which three are these?

Answers:

  1. MM_UP, MM_BOTTOM and MM_SNAPPED
  2. MM_LEFTRIGHT, MM_UPDOWN and MM_SNAPPED
  3. MM_LEFT, MM_RIGHT and MM_SNAP
  4. MM_UP, MM_DOWN and MM_SNAPPED

38. Dreamweaver can attach a Design Note to any file, whether its a web page or another type of file in a web site. Is this statement true?

Answers:

  1. No, Dreamweaver cannot attach any design note to any file
  2. Dreamweaver attaches the Design note to HTML files only
  3. Yes, Dreamweaver can attach a design note to any file in a web site
  4. None of the above

39. You want all the pages of your website to be have a uniform appearance. You decide to use stylesheets to achieve this. What will you do?

Answers:

  1. Create an HTML Markup style
  2. Create an External Style sheet and link it to each page of your website
  3. Embed all the styles in the of each HTML document
  4. Link all the web pages with a common tag –

40. How can you change the Z-index of the dragging layer with the Drag Layer Behavior?

Answers:

  1. You cannot change it
  2. You can make the layer come to the front by checking the ”Bring Layer to Front” check box. You can then leave it on top or restore it to its original Z-index
  3. You can make the layer go to the end by checking the ”Put Layer to Back” check box
  4. You can change it through the Y-index check box

41. In the image, what does word wrap do when clicked upon?

Answers:

  1. It inserts Line breaks into the code automatically so that the code does not go beyond the given width of the view
  2. It makes the code lines appear on the new line whenever the maximum length limit of the view is encountered but does not actually insert line breaks into the code
  3. It seperates different code commands into parenthesis in order to distinguish them easily
  4. None of the above

42. When working in a collaborative environment using FTP, it doesn’t matter if everyone is using Dreamweaver’s Check In/Out functionality. True or False?

Answers:

  1. False, one member of your group could overwrite the work of another member if everyone is not using Check In/Out functionality
  2. True, you need not use this functionality in a group when you are using a third-party program to manage version control
  3. Both a and b are true
  4. Both a and b are false

43. How many style sheets can you link to a web page?

Answers:

  1. Only one
  2. Ten
  3. As many as needed
  4. None of the above

44. Which among these options lets you check how the page appears on a handheld device, such as a mobile phone or a BlackBerry device?

Answers:

  1. The style rendering toolbar
  2. Reports in Dreamweaver
  3. The document window
  4. The file panel

45. Which option on the property inspector do you select to create a nested list?

Answers:

  1. The indent button nests one list within another
  2. The target button
  3. The nested list button
  4. None of the above

46. A Sitemap can be used to add and delete pages, change page titles and check internal links:

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

47. Which among the following is not a menu item on the selection sub menu?

Answers:

  1. Comment out lines
  2. Convert Tabs to line breaks
  3. Indent
  4. Remove all tags

48. What is true about live data?

Answers:

  1. Dreamweaver processes the source within itself and generates the results in the design view
  2. Dreamweaver saves the file in the webserver directory and provides user a link to view the results
  3. Dreamweaver sends a temporary copy of the open document to the webserver folder for processing. The resulting page is returned and displayed in Design view and the temporary copy is deleted.
  4. None of the above

49. How can you convert tables into layers?

Answers:

  1. Select the table, right click on it and click on the option ‘Convert to layers’
  2. Select the ‘Convert tables to layers’ option from the Convert submenu under the Modify menu
  3. Click on the option ‘Convert tables to layers’ in the main menu
  4. There is no option in Dreamweaver to convert tables into layers

50. How does an Editable Region differ from an Optional Region?

Answers:

  1. Editable Region shows in all the pages, where as an optional region shows only in the selected pages
  2. Editable Regions cannot contain dynamic content whereas optional regions can
  3. Editable Regions can only contain text where as optional regions can have an option to contain text or images
  4. There is no difference between an optional region and editable region

51. Stylesheets cannot be used for specifying border styles:

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

52. In the figure, which field is necessary to fill while defining a site?

Answers:

  1. Site Name
  2. Local root folder
  3. HTTP address
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the above

53. You can resize an image in the dreamweaver but cannot crop the image, for that you need an external image processing application?

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

54. The bottom left of the design view shows the tags as given in the image. What happens when we click on the td tag?

Answers:

  1. Opens suggestion box for the td tag
  2. The td tag code is auto corrected
  3. The td cell is selected
  4. Nothing happens

55. In the given figure, what has been shown?

Answers:

  1. The document window
  2. The document Panel
  3. The start page
  4. The document toolbar

56. What is a dynamic page?

Answers:

  1. That has embedded animation effects
  2. That has scripted mouse rollover effects
  3. That has the source computed to generate the output html at the webserver
  4. That has the source computed in the browser window to generate the output html

57. How can you tell which images in your entire site are missing the Alt text?

Answers:

  1. Run the Missing Alt Text report on the entire site
  2. Run the report command on the entire site
  3. Both a and b are true
  4. Both a and b are false

58. Which of the server behaviors let you display multiple items returned from a database query, and let you specify the number of records to display per page.

Answers:

  1. Formats
  2. Recordset Navigation
  3. Show Region
  4. Repeated Region

59. What is indicated by the region marked Green?

Answers:

  1. That the region marked green is locked
  2. That the region marked green is editable
  3. That the region marked green is a comment
  4. That this is a template

60. Which among the following workspace elements contains buttons that provide options to switch between Design view and Code view?

Answers:

  1. The standard toolbar
  2. The coding toolbar
  3. The document toolbar
  4. The insert bar

61. What does the Dreamweaver cache do?

Answers:

  1. Enabling the cache speeds up some Dreamweaver features such as updating hyperlinks
  2. The cache also enables the application to accomplish link and site management tasks quickly
  3. Both a and b are correct
  4. None of the above

62. In the above Dialog box, where will you specify the name of the Rollover image?

Answers:

  1. You have to add it in the textbox called ”Image Name”
  2. You have to browse for it through a separate dialog box
  3. The textbox for specifying the Rollover image is missing in the figure
  4. You have to browse for it in the box labeled ”when clicked, go to URL”

63. What will you use to create a Hyperlink Rollover?

Answers:

  1. CSS Selector styles
  2. CSS class styles
  3. HTML Markup
  4. The Layer style in CSS

64. The applyBehavior() function:

Answers:

  1. Inserts an event handler into the user”s document to call the action function
  2. Returns one or more functions to be inserted into the of the user”s document
  3. Is the set of functions
  4. None of the above

65. Which menu option brings up this popup box?

Answers:

  1. File > Export > table
  2. Modify > Export > Export table
  3. Export > Export table
  4. This popup box is not a part of Dreamweaver, because Dreamweaver does not allow exporting of tables

66. Where should the embedded stylesheet be placed in an HTML page?

Answers:

  1. Anywhere
  2. In the <Head> part of the document within <style></style> tags
  3. In the <Body> part of the document within <style></style> tags
  4. In the <embed> tag within the <body> part of the document

67. State which is true:

Answers:

  1. Z-Index sets the stacking order of the layers
  2. Layers can inherit the visibility of their parent tags or can be set independently of the parent to be either visible or hidden
  3. Both a and b

68. How do you disable automatic code re-writing on opening and closing of asp, php or cfm files?

Answers:

  1. Choose Edit>Preferences>Code Rewriting. Ensure that Never Rewrite Code is selected and In Files with Extensions contains the appropriate file type.
  2. Edit>Preferences>Code Hints. Ensure that Enable Auto Tag Completion and Enable Code Hints are not selected.
  3. Toggle off Re-write code by right clicking on the page.
  4. You cannot set a preference for this feature

69. Which of the given options lets Dreamweaver automatically save multiple versions of a document?

Answers:

  1. Auto Backup
  2. Contribute compatibility
  3. File Rollback
  4. None of the above

70. In which of the following modes is the “visual aid” button on the document toolbar disabled?

Answers:

  1. Show Design view
  2. Show Split view
  3. Show code view
  4. None of the above

71. Templates can be used to import and export XML content:

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

72. Dreamweaver does not have an in built webserver, rather it provides connectivity to the local or remote web servers for the site management.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

73. From where can you insert events?

Answers:

  1. From the + sign
  2. Click on events and the list will be displayed
  3. From the drop down in between events and actions
  4. None of the above

74. What is “Set text of frame”?

Answers:

  1. It is an automatic frameset
  2. It is a powerful action that lets you completely replace the content of a frame with new text you supply
  3. It is an action that lets you replace the text in a frameset
  4. None of the above

75. In the figure, what happens if you do not select a delimiter value?

Answers:

  1. The file will not import properly, and your data will not be correctly formatted in a table
  2. The file will not import at all
  3. The data will not be displayed
  4. None of the above

76. The buttons shown in the given image appear in the property panel when an image is selected. What functions are these buttons used for?

Answers:

  1. Drawing custom shapes on the image
  2. Drawing Image map clickable regions on the image
  3. Custom selection of the image
  4. None of the above

77. When does a person viewing a web page get to see the active link color of a hyperlink?

Answers:

  1. When viewing a page that has links which have not been visited yet
  2. While clicking on a hyperlink
  3. After visiting a link
  4. While moving the mouse pointer over a link

78. In the given image what radio buttons would you choose to insert the pseudo-class a:hover into the HTML of a Web page?

Answers:

  1. Tag, New Style Sheet File
  2. Class, this document only
  3. Advanced this document only
  4. Class, New Style Sheet File

79. What tag is used to embed the animated GIF file in a document?

Answers:

  1. embed
  2. applet
  3. anim
  4. img

80. Which of the following elements can be added to a template?

Answers:

  1. Links
  2. Style sheets
  3. Behaviors and Java script
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the above.

81. Word-spacing and letter-spacing for a class is specified under the Block category:

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

82. Which among the following is not considered as the document’s dependent file?

Answers:

  1. Design Notes
  2. External Style Sheets
  3. Images
  4. None of the above

83. While working on a large site, how do you set Dreamweaver to exclude certain folders from site operations such as Get or Put that you perform?

Answers:

  1. You Check out the concerned folders
  2. You Check in the concerned folders
  3. You make the concerned folders read only
  4. You Cloak the concerned folders

84. Suppose you have set the width of a table column to a certain value, say 50 pixels, but when the page is opened in the browser, the column is not 50 pixels wide. What is the most likely reason?

Answers:

  1. There may be some problem in the browser
  2. You haven’t set the width of the entire table
  3. Column widths cannot be specified in pixels
  4. None of the above

85. What does the z-index value signify in the layers property inspector?

Answers:

  1. The type of the layer
  2. The stacking order of the layer
  3. The size of the layer
  4. None of the above

86. How do you define a template’s editable regions?

Answers:

  1. Choose the area to be editable and press F11
  2. From the menu, choose Modify > Templates > New Editable Region
  3. Choose the area to be editable, and a pop-up will be displayed automatically, where you can define editable regions
  4. From the menu, choose Insert > Template Objects > Editable Region

87. What is the File Extension for template files?

Answers:

  1. .tmp
  2. .dwr
  3. .htm or .html
  4. None of the above

892 total views, 2 views today

Upwork Web Designing

Adobe Premiere Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which of the following is true about linking and unlinking video and audio clips in a Timeline?

Answers:

  1. We can link video only to audio.
  2. We cannot link a video clip to another video clip.
  3. We cannot link an audio clip to another audio clip.
  4. We can link a video clip to multiple audio clips.

2. Which of the following is not a transparency key type?

Answers:

  1. Blue screen
  2. Green screen
  3. Chroma
  4. CMYK

3. Assuming that no optimization has been performed for rendering with available memory.

What is the maximum number of available processors that Premiere Pro can use by default for video rendering?

Answers:

  1. 18
  2. 11
  3. 16
  4. 10

4. Which of the following is not a tool in the title window tool box?

Answers:

  1. Oval
  2. Straight line
  3. Polygon
  4. Zoom tool

5. In the given diagram, which filter has been applied on the clip in Figure A to get the output shown in Figure B?

Answers:

  1. Mosaic
  2. Extract
  3. Median
  4. Emboss

6. Which feature allows one to move, rotate, distort and magnify a variety of still image and video files?

Answers:

  1. Motion
  2. Zoom
  3. Rotate
  4. Position

7. Which of the following is another kind of split edit?

Answers:

  1. J cut
  2. H cut
  3. M cut
  4. None of the above

8. What determines the length of transition?

Answers:

  1. Length of clip in track Video 1A
  2. Length of clip in track video 1B
  3. Length of overlap of clip in track Video 1A over clip in track Video 1B
  4. None of the above

9. Which of the following blending or superimposing modes is the opposite of the Color mode?

Hint: Result color of the Color blending mode has hue and saturation of the source color and luminosity of the underlying color.

Answers:

  1. Hue
  2. Luminosity
  3. Saturation
  4. Exclusion

10. In the Title Properties panel, which of the following options is used to create superscripts and subscripts?

Answers:

  1. Slant
  2. Baseline Shift
  3. Leading
  4. Tracking

11. Adobe Premiere Pro saves style library files with the extension

Answers:

  1. .cfl
  2. .tlb
  3. .ppj
  4. .prsl

12. In the Audio Track Mixer shown above, what function does the button marked in red performs?

Answers:

  1. Mutes a send.
  2. Deletes a send.
  3. Completely turns off track output.
  4. Designates a send as a pre-fader or post-fader.

13. What is the frame size for NTSC video?

Answers:

  1. 720×486 pixels
  2. 720×480 pixels
  3. 720×530 pixels
  4. 720×534 pixels

14. Which of the following is true about Move Into Sync — one of the options to automatically synchronize clips that were moved out of sync?

Answers:

  1. Synchronizes clips to the specified timecode.
  2. Shifts the selected video or audio part of the clip in time to restore sync.
  3. Performs a slip edit to restore sync without moving the clip’s position in time.
  4. Moves the clip without regard to adjacent clips and overwrites any clips to regain sync.

15. A clip cannot be used multiple times in the timeline.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

16. Which type of transparency key should be applied on Figure A to achieve the result in Figure C, in the given diagram?

Answers:

  1. Chroma
  2. Alpha channel
  3. Track matte
  4. Image matte

17. What could be the reason if the Multi-Camera Monitor displays the same frame in large previews on both the left and right side?

Answers:

  1. The current clip is not a multi-camera clip.
  2. The multi-camera clip is not enabled.
  3. Effects applied to the target sequence are not display in the Multi-Camera Monitor.
  4. Storage bandwidth is not sufficient for the number of cameras used by the current clip.

18. What happens if gain value is set to forty percent in audio mixing?

Answers:

  1. Amplifies the clip
  2. Attenuates the clip
  3. Won’t accept this value
  4. None of the above

19. Why is a counting leader used?

Answers:

  1. To export audio files
  2. To verify that audio is working properly
  3. To verify that audio and video are working in sync
  4. None of the above

20. Which of the following premiere setting files cannot be transferred across platforms?

Answers:

  1. Motion settings (.pmt)
  2. Project files (.ppj)
  3. Sequences (.psq)
  4. Transition sets (.pfx)

21. Choose an appropriate option from the list to complete the following sentence:

When user creates low-resolution clips for offline editing with Adobe Media Encoder,

Answers:

  1. clips with single audio channel are created even if you have four or more audio channels on your footage.
  2. clips with two audio channels are created even if you have four or more audio channels on your footage.
  3. clips with all available audio channels are created that are there on your footage.
  4. filenames of the original clips are retained in the filenames of the encoded clips.

22. Splitting of clip creates a new and separate instance of the original clip.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

23. In a Timeline panel, sub-mixes don’t have the options as shown in the image:

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

24. The use of which transition has been shown in the given diagram?

Answers:

  1. Cross dissolve
  2. Cross zoom
  3. Cube spin
  4. Curtain

25. Which of the following Roll/Crawl Timing options, specifies the number of frames through which the title rolls at a slowly increasing speed until the title reaches the playback speed?

Answers:

  1. Ease-Out
  2. Ease-In
  3. Preroll
  4. Postroll

26. In the given diagram, what is the area inside the dotted line denoted by A called?

Answers:

  1. Title safe zone
  2. Action safe zone
  3. Frame safe zone
  4. Motion safe zone

27. The following image shows a Clip in Program Monitor showing two motion paths:

What does the spacing between dots indicates here?

Answers:

  1. Keyframed positions.
  2. Positions at interpolated frames.
  3. Speed between keyframes.
  4. Clip anchor points.

28. Which of the following is true about resizing the text box created with Path Type tool, which is shown in the image?

Answers:

  1. Resizing the text box, resizes the visible area along with the text it contains.
  2. Resizing the text box, resizes only the visible area; the text remains the same size.
  3. Resizing the text box, resizes only the text contained in the visible area; size of visible area remains the same.
  4. None of these.

29. _____________ specifies the amount of space added or subtracted between specific character pairs.

Answers:

  1. Orientation
  2. Kerning
  3. Aligning
  4. Justify

30. Which option is not available in all the transitions?

Answers:

  1. Forward
  2. Reverse
  3. Anti-alias
  4. None of the following

31. How is extracting different from lifting?

Answers:

  1. Removes a range of frames from the timeline
  2. The frames can be within a single clip or can span multiple clips
  3. Removes the selected range of frames from all unlocked tracks and closes the gaps
  4. None of the following

32. What should be used to split multiple tracks at the same point in the timeline?

Answers:

  1. Razor tool
  2. Multi-razor tool
  3. Fade scissor tool
  4. None of the following

33. What does the acronym PAL stands for?

Answers:

  1. Phase altered line
  2. Phase alternating line
  3. Phase alternation line
  4. None of the following

34. In Title Properties panel, which of the following options is used to specify the horizontal scale of the selected font?

Answers:

  1. Kerning
  2. Tracking
  3. Baseline Shift
  4. Aspect

35. Markers are used for reference but do not alter the video program.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

36. Suppose there is an audio clip (with average playback speed) for the following sentence:

“A digital audio editor is a application used for manipulating digital audio”

Our requirement is to insert an audible word “computer” before the word “application” in the same audio clip.
Which of the following edit methods is preferable to get the desired manipulated digital audio clip?

Answers:

  1. Frame-based
  2. Audio Samples

37. While editing multi camera sequences, which of the following synchronization methods, synchronizes clips to the specified timecode?

Answers:

  1. In Points
  2. Out Points
  3. Clip markers
  4. None of these

1,693 total views, 4 views today

Upwork Web Designing

Adobe After Effects 7.0 Test 2016

Published by:

1. The positions of effect points are based on the coordinate system of the layer and not on the coordinate system of the composition.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

2. Which Transform option should be chosen to rotate a layer along a motion path?

Answers:

  1. Auto-Orient Rotation
  2. Rotation
  3. Position
  4. Anchor Point

3. Which among the following is not a mask mode?

Answers:

  1. Lighten
  2. Darken
  3. Brighten
  4. Difference

4. Which mask is previewed and rendered faster than any other kind of drawn mask?

Answers:

  1. Rectangular
  2. Oval
  3. Bezier
  4. Circular

5. At least _________ layers should be selected in order to distribute layers.

Answers:

  1. Two
  2. Three
  3. Four
  4. Five

6. The lock layer can be moved by alignment or distribution option.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

7. Which among the following is not a render effect?

Answers:

  1. Audio waveform
  2. Audio spectrum
  3. Beam
  4. Blend

8. What is the maximum number of masks that can be applied to a single layer in an After Effects 7.0 composition?

Answers:

  1. 512
  2. 256
  3. 128
  4. 127

9. What would happen, if the feather width is set to 25, using the mask feather property?

Answers:

  1. The feather extends 25 pixels inside the mask edge
  2. The feather extends 25 pixels outside the mask edge
  3. The feather extends 10 pixels inside and 15 pixels outside the mask edge
  4. The feather extends 12.5 pixels inside and 12.5 pixels outside the mask edge

10. Which audio effects repeats the sound in audio footage after a specified amount of time?

Answers:

  1. Backward
  2. Delay
  3. Bass
  4. Stereo mixer

11. Why is the film strip format used?

Answers:

  1. To edit uncompressed footage in photoshop
  2. To save the sound along with the footage
  3. To save transparency mask in the footage
  4. None of the above

12. Which effect has been applied on Figure B from the given as in Figure A in the diagram?

Answers:

  1. Mirror
  2. Motion Blur
  3. Motion Tile
  4. None of the above

13. Which layer property has the preserve frame aspect ratio feature?

Answers:

  1. Position
  2. Scale
  3. Anchor point
  4. Rotation

14. Open path cannot create transparent area for a layer.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

15. What is the maximum composition resolution supported by After Effects?

Answers:

  1. 4000×4000 pixels
  2. 30000×30000 pixels
  3. 1024×768 pixels
  4. 800×600 pixels

16. How can the result in Figure B be achieved from the given in Figure A in the diagram?

Answers:

  1. By setting the saturation to -100
  2. By setting the light to -100
  3. By setting the Hue to -100
  4. By turning on colorize option in the Hue saturation dialog box

17. Still Image layer cannot be time stretched.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

18. What does select label group mean?

Answers:

  1. Select several layers of one color
  2. Select several layers with the same effect
  3. Select several layers using the same mask
  4. Select several layers using the same audio effects

19. When a color value is keyed out, all pixels that have similar color become transparent. What is this technique called?

Answers:

  1. Luma key
  2. Color key
  3. Image matte
  4. Difference Matte

20. Trimming a still image layer simply changes the length of time the image displays in the composition, without affecting the displayed portion of the image.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

21. What would be the outcome if drop shadow effect is applied in photoshop layer and then files are imported into After Effects?

Answers:

  1. After Effects does not support Adobe Photoshop layer effects
  2. The layer effect will be imported but cannot be edited in the After Effects control window
  3. The effect will be imported and can be edited in the After Effects control window
  4. None of the above

22. Which effect is used to adjust an image’s position in an imaginary 3D space, add depth or create an adjustable z-axis?

Answers:

  1. Perspective effects
  2. Style effects
  3. Render effects
  4. None of the above

23. ____________ are used primarily to create and control animation in After Effects.

Answers:

  1. Keyframes
  2. Layers
  3. Filters
  4. None of the above

24. Which among the following is not a type of mask and cannot be drawn?

Answers:

  1. Rectangular
  2. Oval
  3. Bezier
  4. Surface

25. Which of the following layers will be used for applying an effect to many layers at once?

Answers:

  1. Composition
  2. Footage
  3. Solid
  4. Adjustment

26. What is the standard sampling rate for compact disc audio?

Answers:

  1. 44.100 Khz
  2. 22.050 Khz
  3. 48 Khz
  4. 32 Khz

27. Which masking mode is used in the given diagram?

Answers:

  1. Intersect
  2. Add
  3. Difference
  4. None of the above

28. What settings should be made in the path text to shift the text as in Figure A to that as in Figure B, in the given diagram?

Answers:

  1. Tracking
  2. Kerning
  3. Baseline shift
  4. Horizontal shear

29. What render settings should be used if only the part of the composition should be rendered?

Answers:

  1. Length of composition
  2. Field render
  3. Work area only
  4. None of the above

30. What is speeding up or slowing down a layer in After Effects called?

Answers:

  1. Clipping
  2. Time stretching
  3. Trimming
  4. None of the above

31. Which options renders one ninth of the pixels contained in the full resolution image in the composition setting dialog box?

Answers:

  1. Full resolution
  2. Half resolution
  3. Third resolution
  4. Quarter resolution

32. What tracks the specified range of bumpy movement and then adjusts the layer anchor point or rotation?

Answers:

  1. Minimax
  2. Motion blur
  3. Motion stabilizer
  4. Motion tile

33. Which of the following is not a shape type for Path text?

Answers:

  1. Rectangle
  2. Circle
  3. Bezier
  4. Line

34. Which of the following command is not true?

Answers:

  1. Layer > New > Text Layer
  2. Layer > New > Solid Layer
  3. Layer > New > Light Layer
  4. Camera > Layer >New

35. What would happen if the capture speed is set to 50% of motion sketch as in the given diagram?

Answers:

  1. After Effects would play back the motion twice as fast as the sketching speed
  2. It would play back the motion half as fast as sketching speed
  3. It would play back the motion at the same speed as sketching speed
  4. It would not accept this value

36. Which among the following is not the method to create a mask in After Effects?

Answers:

  1. Drawing a path using the tool from the toolbox
  2. Specifying the dimensions of the mask shape in the mask shape dialog box
  3. Pasting a path drawn in and copied from another layer or from adobe illustrator or photoshop
  4. Setting additional remap keyframes

37. Which channel contains the transparency information?

Answers:

  1. Green
  2. Blue
  3. Alpha
  4. All of the above

38. Which among the following is a visual effect and not an audio effect and must be applied to a video layer?

Answers:

  1. Audio waveform
  2. Delay
  3. Levels
  4. Backward

39. A mask cannot be locked.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

40. What would be used to add color to a background or create simple graphic images using mask and layer properties?

Answers:

  1. Keying
  2. Preserve transparency
  3. Masking
  4. Solid layer

41. What should be done to refresh a window or to remove red border around the composition window as shown in the given diagram?

Answers:

  1. Release shift key
  2. Release caps lock key
  3. Release Alt key
  4. Release Enter key

42. In the given diagram, which part is being denoted by A?

Answers:

  1. Level controls
  2. Audio option menu
  3. Level values
  4. VU meter

43. What quality option should be used if rendering should be done at reduced resolution?

Answers:

  1. Draft
  2. Best quality
  3. Wireframe
  4. None of the above

44. Which effect cannot be applied to a mask shape?

Answers:

  1. Path text
  2. Fill (close path only)
  3. Stroke
  4. Smear (open path only)

45. Which of the following text types will be used in order to animate the text along the perimeter of the circle?

Answers:

  1. Basic text
  2. Number text
  3. Path text
  4. None of the above

46. What does the term “nesting” mean in After Effects?

Answers:

  1. The process of importing multiple images sequence as footage
  2. The process for animating a still image
  3. The process of adding composition to another composition
  4. The process of saving the composition for the future use

47. For which file format does After Effects automatically convert empty area in to an alpha channel?

Answers:

  1. BMP
  2. AI
  3. GIF
  4. None of the above

48. Which type of mask is shown in the given image?(Based on Adobe After Effects 7.0)

Answers:

  1. Rectangular
  2. Oval
  3. Bezier
  4. Circular

1,872 total views, 7 views today

Upwork Software Testing

Software Testing Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to Code coverage?

Answers:

  1. It describes the degree to which the source code of a program has been tested
  2. It is a form of White-box testing
  3. It is a form of Black-box testing

2. Usability testing indicates that the design and system should be modified if:

Answers:

  1. people have difficulty in understanding the instructions
  2. people have difficulty in manipulating the parts
  3. people have difficulty in interpreting the feedback
  4. all of the above

3. Which of the following statements about Equivalence partitioning is correct?

Answers:

  1. A software testing design technique in which tests are designed to include representatives of boundary values
  2. A type of software testing used for testing two or more modules or functions together with the intent of finding interface defects between the modules or functions
  3. It is the degree to which the source code of a program has been tested
  4. A software testing technique that divides the input data of a software unit into partitions of data from which test cases can be derived

4. What is Boundary value testing?

Answers:

  1. It tests values at and near the minimum and maximum allowed values for a particular input or output
  2. It tests different combinations of input circumstances
  3. It is a testing technique associated with White-box testing
  4. Both a and b

5. Which of the following types of errors are uncovered in White-box testing?

Answers:

  1. Performance errors
  2. Logical errors
  3. Typographical errors
  4. Behavioral errors

6. What is the name of the testing method in which (for each pair of input parameters) all the possible discrete combinations of parameters are passed on?

Answers:

  1. Single testing
  2. Pairwise testing
  3. Unit testing
  4. None of the above

7. Which of the following are the objectives of using a “test harness”?

Answers:

  1. Automating the testing process
  2. Executing test suites of test cases
  3. Generating test reports
  4. Creating reusable test logic to reduce maintenance and improve test coverage

8. In Bottom-up integration testing,

Answers:

  1. Major decision points are tested in the early phase
  2. No drivers need to be written
  3. No stubs need to be written
  4. Regression testing is not required

9. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to Test Automation?

Answers:

  1. Test Automation is the process of writing a computer program to do testing that would otherwise need to be done manually.
  2. Test Automation is the use of software to control the execution of tests and the comparison of actual outcomes to predicted outcomes.
  3. Test Automation tools may provide record and playback features that allow users to interactively record user actions and replay it back any number of times.
  4. Test Automation is the set of procedures used by organizations to ensure that a software product will meet its quality goals at the best value to the customer.

10. Performance testing is used for real-time systems only.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

11. ___________ testing is used to evaluate and understand the application’s reliability, scalability and interoperability when more users are added or the volume of data is increased.

Answers:

  1. Integration
  2. Performance
  3. Regression
  4. Stability

12. From the options given below which of the dynamic program analysis technique is aimed at improving application performance?

Answers:

  1. Code complexity analysis
  2. Profiling
  3. Network packet sniffing
  4. Spelling and grammar checking
  5. Program slicing

13. Which of the following tools supports traceability, recording of incidents, and scheduling of tests?

Answers:

  1. Static analysis tool
  2. Debugging tool
  3. Test management tool
  4. Configuration management tool

14. Which of the following is not a Static testing methodology?

Answers:

  1. Code review
  2. Inspection
  3. Walkthroughs
  4. System tests

15. Choose the correct description of a Stub in software testing:

Answers:

  1. A Stub is basically the same as a driver except that it is very fast in returning results
  2. A Stub is a dummy procedure, module or unit that stands in for an unfinished portion of a system
  3. A Stub is just a different name for an Emulator
  4. None of the above

16. Which of the following resources are tested by most of the Stress testing tools?

Answers:

  1. Disk space
  2. Network bandwidth
  3. Internal memory
  4. All of the above

17. The process of using a test case to test a specific unit of code, function, or capability is called:

Answers:

  1. Test Run
  2. Test Script
  3. Test Plan
  4. Test Scenario

18. Which of the following models of software development incorporates testing into the whole software development life cycle?

Answers:

  1. Agile model
  2. Waterfall model
  3. V-Model
  4. Spiral model

19. What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is carried out?

Answers:

  1. Unit, Integration, System, Validation
  2. System, Integration, Unit, Validation
  3. Unit, Integration, Validation, System
  4. None of the above

20. The determination of adherence or non adherence to a compliance is carried out during:

Answers:

  1. Inspection
  2. Audit
  3. White-box testing
  4. Walkthrough

21. What do you understand by the term “Monkey test”?

Answers:

  1. It is random testing performed by automated testing tools
  2. It is used to simulate the actions a user might perform
  3. It is another name for Monitor testing

22. Which of the following is not included in Non-functional testing?

Answers:

  1. Load/Stress testing
  2. Unit testing
  3. Security testing
  4. Stress testing

23. The cursory examination of all the basic components of a software system to ensure that they work is called:

Answers:

  1. Fuzz testing
  2. Black-box testing
  3. Sanity testing
  4. Smoke testing

24. When a defect is detected and fixed, the software should be retested to confirm that the original defect has been successfully removed. This is called:

Answers:

  1. Regression testing
  2. Maintenance testing
  3. Confirmation testing
  4. None of the above

25. Identify the defect which can be detected by Equivalence Partitioning Technique:

Answers:

  1. Improper handling of sequences of events
  2. Mis-handling of combinations of conditions
  3. Irregular handling of large and small values
  4. Improper handling of input classes
  5. Invalid output generation

26. Which of the following is not a part of System testing?

Answers:

  1. Recovery testing and failover testing
  2. Performance, Load and Stress testing
  3. Usability testing
  4. Top-down integration testing

27. Which of the following Security testing concepts deals with the process of determining whether a requester is allowed to receive a service or perform an operation?

Answers:

  1. Confidentiality
  2. Integrity
  3. Authentication
  4. Authorization

28. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to Smoke testing and Sanity testing?

Answers:

  1. A Smoke test is designed to touch every part of the application in a cursory way whereas a Sanity test is used to determine if a small section of the application is still working after a minor change
  2. A Smoke test adopts a shallow and wide approach whereas a Sanity test is a narrow regression test that focuses on one, or a few areas of functionality. Sanity testing is usually narrow and deep
  3. A Smoke test is usually unscripted whereas a Sanity test is scripted either using a written set of tests or an automated test
  4. A Smoke test is a normal health checkup to a build of an application before taking it to in-depth testing whereas a Sanity test is to verify whether all requirements are met or not, checking all features breadth-first

29. From the following options, choose the best example which represents a reliability failure for an application:

Answers:

  1. Slow response time
  2. Excessive application consumption
  3. Random application termination
  4. Failure to encrypt data

30. In which of the following testing methodologies does the automatic generation of efficient test procedures/vectors use models of system requirements and specified functionality?

Answers:

  1. Repetitive testing
  2. Model testing
  3. Modular testing
  4. System testing

31. Which of the following is true regarding Static Analysis tools?

Answers:

  1. They help you find defects rather than failures
  2. They are used by developers only
  3. They require compilation of code
  4. All of the above

32. The review of a technical document such as requirements specs or a test plan, with the purpose of looking for problems and seeing what is missing, without fixing anything is called:

Answers:

  1. Inspection
  2. Black box testing
  3. White box testing
  4. Walkthrough

33. Which of the following options correctly defines the term “test harness”?

Answers:

  1. It is a high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding testing
  2. It is a set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project
  3. It is a collection of software and test data configured to test a program unit by running it under varying conditions and monitoring its behavior and outputs
  4. It is a set of several test cases for a component or a system under test

34. Which one of the following is a major benefit of verification early in the software development life cycle?
Answers:

  1. It allows the identification of changes in user requirements
  2. It facilitates timely set up of the test environment
  3. It reduces defect multiplication
  4. It allows testers to become involved early in the project

35. Identification of set-use pairs is accomplished during which of the following static analysis activities?

Answers:

  1. Control flow analysis
  2. Data flow analysis
  3. Coding standards analysis
  4. Function Point Analysis

36. What would be the appropriate result of a Stress test at its peak?

Answers:

  1. A gradual performance slow-down leading to a non-catastrophic system halt
  2. A gradual performance improvement leading to a catastrophic system halt
  3. A gradual performance slow-down leading to a catastrophic system halt
  4. A gradual performance improvement to a non-catastrophic system halt

37. In which type of testing is random data generated for input into the software?

Answers:

  1. Smoke testing
  2. Marge testing
  3. Fuzz testing
  4. Operation testing

38. Which of the following is incorrect for Black-box testing?
Answers:

  1. It takes an external perspective of the test object to derive test cases.
  2. It is sometimes also called as Opaque Testing, Functional Testing and Closed Box Testing.
  3. It uses an internal perspective of the system to design test cases based on internal structure.

39. Which of the following statements is not true regarding capture/replay tools?

Answers:

  1. They are used to support multi-user testing
  2. They capture aspects of user behavior
  3. They are the most frequently used types of CAST tools
  4. They are used to capture and playback user requirements

40. The main focus of Black-box testing is:

Answers:

  1. to check for logical errors
  2. to ensure that each code statement is executed once
  3. to test the functionality of the system as a whole
  4. to identify all paths through the software

41. Which of the following is written by a programmer and is meant to call the function to be tested by passing test data to it?

Answers:

  1. Stub
  2. Driver
  3. Proxy

42. Which of the following types of testing emulates the real world use of a system and verifies that the product fulfills the intended requirements?

Answers:

  1. System testing
  2. Model testing
  3. Integration testing
  4. User acceptance testing

43. What is the difference between Regression testing and Retesting?

Answers:

  1. Retesting is done by programmers while Regression testing is done by testers
  2. Retesting checks for unexpected side-effects while Regression testing ensures that the original fault has been corrected
  3. Retesting ensures that the original fault has been corrected while Regression testing checks for other unexpected side-effects
  4. There is no difference between Regression testing and Retesting

44. Which of the following testing occurs outside the development environment?

Answers:

  1. Installation testing
  2. White-box testing
  3. Module testing
  4. Fuzz testing

45. The testing phase in which individual software modules are combined and tested as a group is called:

Answers:

  1. Unit testing
  2. Integration testing
  3. Module testing
  4. White-box testing

46. Which of the following statements holds true for Verification and Validation?

Answers:

  1. Verification is used to check if we are doing the right thing and Validation is used to check whether we have developed the software as per the client’s requirements or not.
  2. Validation is used to check if we are doing the right thing and Verification is used to check whether we have developed the software as per the client’s requirements or not.
  3. Validation tells us what to test and Verification decides on the methodology to go about testing the application
  4. None of the above

47. The testing performed by external organizations or standards bodies to give greater guarantees of compliance is called:

Answers:

  1. Usability testing
  2. Conformance testing
  3. Integration testing
  4. System testing

48. Which of the following are benefits of automated testing?

Answers:

  1. reusability
  2. efficiency
  3. speed
  4. allows testing of video and mp3 files

49. Beta testing is performed by:

Answers:

  1. An independent test team
  2. The software development team
  3. In-house users
  4. External users

50. Selecting the test inputs that are likely to reveal a failure associated with a particular defect is an example of the use of:

Answers:

  1. Activity analysis
  2. Defect taxonomy for test design
  3. Root cause analysis
  4. Cleanroom software development

51. Which of the following test activities provides the maximum potential cost savings from the use of Computer-Aided Software Testing (CAST)?

Answers:

  1. Test execution
  2. Test planning
  3. Test management
  4. Test design

52. Which of the following strategies are used for Integration testing?

Answers:

  1. Big Bang
  2. Top-down
  3. Bottom-up
  4. Any of the above strategies can be used

53. Which of the following is true about Sanity Testing?

Answers:

  1. A Sanity test is used to determine if a small section of the application is still working after a minor change
  2. A Sanity test is run to check if the build of an application is stable and it can be considered for further testing
  3. A Sanity test is the process of testing to make sure that the older programming still works with the new changes
  4. All of the above are true

54. Which of the following is false about software testing?

Answers:

  1. Top-down integration testing has as its major advantage that low level modules never need testing
  2. Alpha testing is in-house testing performed by the test team
  3. Equivalence partitioning is used to minimize the number of permutations and combinations of input data
  4. Fuzz testing provides random data to the input of a program

55. Which of the following is not a type of Incremental testing approach?

Answers:

  1. Top-down
  2. Big-bang
  3. Bottom-up
  4. None of the above

56. What is the main reason for testing a software immediately before releasing it?

Answers:

  1. To ensure that the system will work after release
  2. To decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
  3. To find as many bugs as possible before release
  4. To give information for a risk based decision about release

57. Which of the following types of testing is likely to benefit the most from the use of test tools that provide the test capture and replay facilities?

Answers:

  1. Integration testing
  2. Regression testing
  3. System testing
  4. User acceptance testing

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