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Upwork General Management

Time Management Test 2016

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1. Which is the first step in a Time Management schedule?

Answers:

  1. Procrastination
  2. Setting up goals
  3. Prioritization of goals
  4. Reviewing your plan

2. Which of the following ‘5S’ tools makes things easier to locate?

Answers:

  1. Shine
  2. Standardize
  3. Set in order
  4. Sustain

3. Which of the following statements is/are true?

i)You should not worry about things you cannot change.
ii)You should always set yourself unachievable targets so that you are always striving as hard as possible.

Answers:

  1. Both are true
  2. Only i is true
  3. Only ii is true
  4. Neither is true

4. According to Time Management principles, meetings are _______

Answers:

  1. a waste of time.
  2. primarily about avoiding getting on with real work.
  3. to last no longer than an hour.
  4. an example of investing time.

5. Which of the following is NOT an application of a Gantt chart?

Answers:

  1. Scheduling activities within a project.
  2. Assigning activities to individuals.
  3. Determining the cost of particular activities.
  4. Mapping the dependencies between activities.

6. Delivering a motivating speech to employees can best be described as __________.

Answers:

  1. spending time.
  2. wasting time.
  3. investing time.
  4. saving time.

7. Which of the following statements is/are true?

i)It is generally better to implement a fit-for-purpose rather than perfect solution.
ii)Non-IT-based tools should not be used to assist in planning one’s time.

Answers:

  1. Both are true
  2. Only i is true
  3. Only ii is true
  4. Neither is true

8. Which of the following statements is/are true?

i)Time should not be wasted in reviewing performance, but used to plan the next task.
ii)To be of any value, monitoring activities must result in decisions being made.

Answers:

  1. Both are true
  2. Only i is true
  3. Only ii is true
  4. Neither is true

9. Which of the following statements is/are true?

i)It is generally more efficient to respond to crises as they arise rather than invest time in preventing them.
ii)An effective process should never be modified.

Answers:

  1. Both are true
  2. Only i is true
  3. Only ii is true
  4. Neither is true

10. Which of the following activities is not an example of ‘investing’ time?

Answers:

  1. Attending a training course.
  2. Manufacturing products
  3. Designing a more efficient process
  4. Delegating a task to a subordinate

11. For effective time management, SMART objectives should be set. Which of the following is not part of the acronym ‘SMART’?

Answers:

  1. Specific
  2. Measurable
  3. Achievable
  4. Rigid
  5. Time-bounded
  6. They all are.

12. Which of the following symptoms could NOT be the result of stress?

Answers:

  1. Headaches.
  2. Eczema.
  3. Insomnia.
  4. Forgetfulness..
  5. All of these could result from stress.

13. Which of the following statements is/are true?

i)Deadlines are always a motivating factor.
ii)Time management principles do not apply to the staff primarily engaged In routine tasks.

Answers:

  1. Both are true
  2. Only i is true
  3. Only ii is true
  4. Neither is true

14. Which of the following techniques was/were created by Jiro Kawakita?

Answers:

  1. Pareto Charts
  2. Affinity Diagrams
  3. Nominal Group Technique
  4. To-do lists

15. Which of the following statements is/are true?

i)For optimal performance, work should be entirely stress-free.
ii)Stress only applies to work-related issues.

Answers:

  1. Both are true
  2. Only i is true
  3. Only ii is true
  4. Neither is true

16. Which of these is a hindrance in overcoming procrastination?

Answers:

  1. Completing the toughest task first
  2. Following a Time Management schedule
  3. Asking for help
  4. Effective management

17. Which of the following might hinder the implementation of a Time Management approach?

i)Highly-motivated employees
ii)Lack of funds to invest in tools
iii)Predictable tasking
iv)Workplace culture

Answers:

  1. Only i and ii
  2. Only i and iii
  3. Only i and iv
  4. Only ii and iii
  5. Only ii and iv
  6. Only iii and iv

18. In which of the following situations would investing time be inadvisable?

Answers:

  1. Getting a new member of staff up to speed.
  2. Where a return on the investment is not guaranteed.
  3. Where the cost of the investment is high.
  4. Where return on the invested time is small and will take a long time to realize.

19. Which of the following variables must be balanced against ‘schedule’ to assess the effectiveness of a process?

i)Quality
ii)Scale
iii)Cost

Answers:

  1. None of the above
  2. Only i
  3. Only ii
  4. Only iii
  5. Only i and ii
  6. Only i and iii
  7. Only ii and iii
  8. All of the above

20. Which of the following statements is/are true?

i)Managers who delegate usually experience lower absenteeism and staff turnover.
ii)Someone who manages their time efficiently should never have to refuse to take on a task.

Answers:

  1. Both are true
  2. Only i is true
  3. Only ii is true
  4. Neither is true

21. ________ is a drive and a stimulus that helps you to accomplish goals.

Answers:

  1. Delegation
  2. Saying ‘no’
  3. Procrastination
  4. Motivation

22. Which of these is not necessarily a key element of a Time Management plan?

Answers:

  1. Defining goals
  2. Prioritizing goals
  3. Ascertaining Time
  4. Controlling Time

23. A/An ___________ is a specialized chart that exhibits data collected in such a way that important points necessary for the process under improvement can be demarcated.

Answers:

  1. Pareto Chart
  2. Affinity Diagram
  3. Time Chart
  4. Control Chart

24. Which of these is a principle of Time Management?

Answers:

  1. Setting realistic goals
  2. Procrastination
  3. Time is reversible
  4. Be reactive, not proactive

25. The time spent planning an activity should

Answers:

  1. be minimized.
  2. be approximately 5% of the time spent conducting it.
  3. not be included in calculating its overall cost.
  4. be proportional to its importance and complexity.

26. The ‘Just-In-Time’ approach to production means

Answers:

  1. delivering products to customers more quickly.
  2. closely monitoring the hours worked by employees.
  3. prioritising ‘schedule’ above any other variable.
  4. minimising the amount of unused stock owned by a company.

27. Which of the following is the best definition of ‘spending’ time?

Answers:

  1. Using time unproductively.
  2. Using time productively, but without delivering future improvements.
  3. Using time to develop relationships with colleagues.
  4. Using time to source suppliers for procurement.

28. Conducting a ‘time and motion study’ is primarily a means of:

Answers:

  1. identifying where a process can be made more efficient.
  2. charting where employees are at a given time.
  3. identifying underperforming workers.
  4. identifying unprofitable products to be discontinued.

29. Which of the following may affect your ability to handle stress?

i)Illness
ii)Hormones
iii)Tiredness

Answers:

  1. None of the above
  2. Only i
  3. Only ii
  4. Only iii
  5. Only i and ii
  6. Only i and iii
  7. Only ii and iii
  8. All of the above

30. Which of the following statements is/are true?

i)Some types of tasks are better suited to certain times of the day than others.
ii)It is always better to prioritize ‘urgent’ tasks above ‘important’ ones.

Answers:

  1. Both are true
  2. Only i is true
  3. Only ii is true
  4. Neither is true

31. According to the ‘5S’ approach, which of the following implies keeping your environment clean and clear?

Answers:

  1. Sorting
  2. Setting in Order
  3. Shine
  4. Standardizing

32. Who proposed the Pareto principle?

Answers:

  1. Joseph M. Juran
  2. Vilfredo Pareto
  3. Julie Morgenstern
  4. Henry Kissinger

33. A/an ________ is an organized set of schedules which lists the time and the task/s to be executed.

Answers:

  1. timetable
  2. pareto chart
  3. affinity diagram
  4. to-do list

34. In which of the following situations is ‘Nominal Group Technique’ used?

i)When the group has new members
ii)When some members are not participating
iii)When tasks are allotted scores according to their importance
iv)When the manager wants to reduce his workload

Answers:

  1. Only i and ii
  2. Only i and iii
  3. Only i and iv
  4. Only ii and iii
  5. Only ii and iv
  6. Only iii and iv

35. ‘Pareto Analysis’ is also known as the ________ rule.

Answers:

  1. 20/80
  2. 70/30
  3. 30/70
  4. 80/20

36. Using __________ is an easy and fast way to achieve consensus on an issue.

Answers:

  1. Action Priority Matrix
  2. Nominal Group Technique
  3. Pareto Charts
  4. Delegation

37. Which of these techniques is usually associated with the Nominal Group Technique?

Answers:

  1. Time Charts
  2. Pareto Charts
  3. Affinity Diagrams
  4. Delphi Method

38. Which of the following statements is/are true?

i)Time should not be invested in training unskilled staff.
ii)Investing time incurs short-term opportunity costs.

Answers:

  1. Both are true
  2. Only i is true
  3. Only ii is true
  4. Neither is true

39. ‘Load-smoothing’ is best defined as:

Answers:

  1. ensuring that work is evenly-distributed across a time period.
  2. giving a mixture of tasks to different people.
  3. minimising risk by using multiple suppliers.
  4. minimising the amount of unused supplies being stored.

40. Which of the following is NOT a sensible way of handling stress?

Answers:

  1. Exercise.
  2. Relaxation techniques.
  3. Increased alcohol consumption.
  4. Setting aside time to focus on other things.
  5. Eating healthily.
  6. These are all sensible ways of handling stress.

41. What do the lengths of the bars in a Pareto chart indicate?

Answers:

  1. Frequency
  2. Time Stealers
  3. Important Tasks
  4. Urgent Tasks

42. Which of the following is NOT an effect associated with a ‘Just-In-Time’ approach to production?

Answers:

  1. Improved cash flow.
  2. Reduced storage costs.
  3. Reduced motivation among workers.
  4. Increased vulnerability to the reliability of suppliers.

43. Which of these does not get increased when you adopt a Time Management schedule?

Answers:

  1. Efficiency
  2. Time
  3. Ability to monitor
  4. Productivity

44. Which of the following exacerbates rather than actually causes stress?

Answers:

  1. Time pressure.
  2. Lack of skills or knowledge to be able to execute tasks.
  3. Excess workload.
  4. Illness.

45. Which of these is a time stealer?

Answers:

  1. Red Tape
  2. Sickness
  3. Unclear communication
  4. All of the above

46. On what basis are the scores allotted in an Action Priority Matrix?

i)The effect of the activity that is undertaken
ii)The time that gets wasted in procrastination
iii)The effort involved in doing the work

Answers:

  1. None of the above
  2. Only i
  3. Only ii
  4. Only iii
  5. Only i and ii
  6. Only i and iii
  7. Only ii and iii
  8. All of the above

47. Which of the following statements is/are true?

i)A complicated task is best decomposed into a series of discrete, manageable tasks.
ii)It is better to switch frequently between concurrent tasks rather than complete them sequentially.

Answers:

  1. Both are true
  2. Only i is true
  3. Only ii is true
  4. Neither is true

48. What are ‘displacement activities’?

Answers:

  1. Prioritizing an activity above another.
  2. Activities undertaken to put off starting something more difficult.
  3. A means of calculating the amount of time wasted.
  4. An important stage in the planning process.

49. Every item is allotted a/an _________ in Time Charts.

Answers:

  1. room
  2. house
  3. abode
  4. home

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Upwork General Management

Six Sigma Green Belt Certification 2016

Published by:

1. Analysis can be done in which of the following ways?

Answers:

  1. By analyzing the data collected
  2. By analyzing the process through process maps
  3. By analyzing the problems listed
  4. By analyzing the voice of the customer

2. Which of the following are the objectives of the Improve Phase?

Answers:

  1. Generating a number of plausible solutions
  2. Selecting the best solutions that would improve the process
  3. Measuring the process capability
  4. Quantifying the opportunity for the project

3. Point out the symbol that represents variability in a process in Six Sigma, from the given figure:

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

4. What is the main purpose of brainstorming?

Answers:

  1. Brainstroming acts as a solution-finder
  2. Brainstorming is used to keep all the solution-seekers indulged in searching the solution
  3. Brainstorming helps the data-collectors in collecting the required data
  4. Brainstroming acts as a tool for idea collection

5. Which tool is used to depict the changes that occur in one set of variables while changing the values of the other set of variables?

Answers:

  1. Risk Priority Number
  2. HiroHotu
  3. Poka Yoke
  4. Scatter Diagram

6. A table shows the comparison of survey results obtained from existing and new process. Which method should be employed to determine the effect of the new process on customer satisfaction?

Answers:

  1. Pareto Analysis
  2. Process Map
  3. T-Test
  4. Chi-Square Test

7. ________ is a statistical method to define how much variation exists in a set of data.

Answers:

  1. Variance
  2. Standard Deviation
  3. Mean
  4. Average

8. Which control chart deals with the proportion or fraction of defective products?

Answers:

  1. C-Charts
  2. P-Charts
  3. U-Charts
  4. Gantt Chart

9. Which of the following is used to implement process control to ensure that the same problems do not recur?

Answers:

  1. Activity Chart
  2. Control Plan
  3. Project Management Summary
  4. Statistical Process Controls

10. Which of the following is used to eliminate an identified problem by proposing appropriate solutions?

Answers:

  1. Risk Priority Number
  2. Poka Yoke
  3. Corrective Action Metrics
  4. Gantt chart

11. A/An _________ chart plots the probability of a certain event occurring at different places within a given time period.

Answers:

  1. X-bar
  2. attribute
  3. run
  4. probability

12. ___________ are constructed from the frequency table.

Answers:

  1. Process Maps
  2. Flowcharts
  3. Histograms
  4. Trend charts

13. A systematic process to identify the needs of the customers is known as:

Answers:

  1. Process Decision Program Chart
  2. Quality Function Deployment
  3. Pareto Analysis
  4. Gantt Analysis

14. The process capability index, denoted as ‘Cp’, is preferred when:

Answers:

  1. Cp>1
  2. Cp<1
  3. Cp=1
  4. None of the above

15. Which of the following tools is used while illustrating a process map?

Answers:

  1. Flowcharts
  2. Barcharts
  3. Runcharts
  4. Piecharts

16. Which was the first company to implement Six Sigma methodology?

Answers:

  1. General electric
  2. Honeywell
  3. Motorola
  4. Cannon

17. ___________ charts are used to display different trends in data over time.

Answers:

  1. Affinity
  2. Pareto
  3. Matrix
  4. Run

18. Which of the following is the best definition for Define phase?

Answers:

  1. The Define Phase comprises of base lining and benchmarking the process that needs improvement
  2. The Define phase invloves mentioning of the various mathematical definitions
  3. The Define phase defines the present state of the company
  4. The Define phase involves defining the standards followed by other companies

19. The product attributes which delight the customer and lead to high levels of satisfaction are ________, but do not cause any dissatisfaction if the product lacks this feature.

Answers:

  1. Performance
  2. Threshold
  3. Linear
  4. Delighters

20. A/An ____ shaped matrix can relate one set of elements with itself.

Answers:

  1. T
  2. L
  3. Y
  4. X

21. The process of calculating the total expected costs versus the total expected benefits of the actions that are performed, to choose the most profitable options is known as____________.

Answers:

  1. Experimental Design
  2. Design of Experiments
  3. Cost-benefit Analysis
  4. Contingency Planning

22. For any company to reach a ‘level 6’ sigma, there should only be _______ defects per 1 million processes or opportunities.

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2.2
  3. zero
  4. 3.4

23. Six Sigma is used to measure the ___________ of a company.

Answers:

  1. performance
  2. feasibility of projects
  3. growth rate
  4. processes

24. Why is the term “Voice of the Customer” in Six Sigma methodology used?

Answers:

  1. To know the customers involved in the project
  2. To get feedback from the customers
  3. To know the stakeholders involved in the project
  4. To define the needs of the customer

25. The fishbone diagram is used to identify the _______ variables that are causing problems.

Answers:

  1. input
  2. output
  3. continuous
  4. discrete

26. ___________ is a kind of control chart that is used to display process performance over time. It is also used for interpreting the trends that occur in the data.

Answers:

  1. Scatter Diagram
  2. Run Chart
  3. Poka Yoke
  4. Gantt Chart

27. Which of the following is not a tool used in the open-narrow-close approach?

Answers:

  1. Clarification
  2. Duplication
  3. Multi-voting
  4. Pareto Analysis

28. Which of the following steps are used to quantify an oppurtunity in the analyze phase?

Answers:

  1. Determining the performance gap
  2. Redefining the problem statement
  3. Looking at the cost of poor quality
  4. Only a,b
  5. a,b,c
  6. Only a,c

29. Which of the following is one of the fastest methods of arriving at the root cause of any problem?

Answers:

  1. Process Map
  2. Process Analysis
  3. Sub Process Mapping
  4. Synopsis of Analysis Table

30. What is monitored by the Process Management Chart?

Answers:

  1. Process improvements
  2. Feedback system
  3. Process standardization
  4. Critical process outputs

31. Which of the following is used to compare opposites, actions, consequences and different points of view?

Answers:

  1. Bar Diagram
  2. Scatter Diagram
  3. Pareto Diagram
  4. Force Field Diagram

32. Which of the following is a tool used to determine how precise the collected data are, or how precisely the survey measures the true feelings of the whole population?

Answers:

  1. Sample Survey
  2. Margin of Error
  3. Questionnaires
  4. Brainstorming

33. The Kano model of customer satisfaction depicts the relationship between:

Answers:

  1. customer satisfaction and quantity
  2. customer satisfaction and time
  3. customer satisfaction and quality
  4. customer satisfaction and money

34. What is the main objective of Analyze Phase?

Answers:

  1. To define the project at hand
  2. To arrive at the root cause of the problem
  3. To estimate the cash flow of the project
  4. To offer a viable solution to the problem

35. This plan states the critical parameters that require corrective action. It also contains restorative actions for known causes to problems that might surface. What is it called?

Answers:

  1. Response Plan
  2. Process Control Plan
  3. Critical process outputs
  4. Risk Priority Number

36. Which of the following statements is false about SIPOC?

Answers:

  1. SIPOC stands for Supplier, Input, Process, Output, Customer
  2. SIPOC diagrams are used to define the sub-processes in a business process
  3. Various examples of SIPOC software tools are iGrafx, SigmaFlow, etc
  4. SIPOC does not define the customer’s requirements

37. Statistical Process Control is a method of _________, ________ and _________ a process through statistical analysis.

Answers:

  1. monitoring, controlling, improving
  2. monitoring, defining, solving
  3. monitoring, improving, solving
  4. monitoring, defining, controlling

38. The Japanese name for Error-proofing is___________

Answers:

  1. Poka Yoke
  2. O shin
  3. HiroHotu
  4. Hara Kiri

39. Which of the following statements is true about Multivoting?

Answers:

  1. Multivoting allows the ranking of options
  2. Multivoting helps choose the options for further analysis
  3. Multivoting places the ideas found out in a structured order
  4. Multivoting is a tool for statistical process control

40. Arrange the Six Sigma methodology in chronological order:

Answers:

  1. Define, Analyze, Measure, Improve, Control
  2. Define, Measure, Improve, Control, Analyze
  3. Define, Analyze, Control, Measure, Improve
  4. Define, Measure, Analyze, Improve, Control

41. What does the Diamond symbol in flowcharts depict?

Answers:

  1. Start of the process
  2. Process flow
  3. Inputs of the process
  4. Decision point

42. Six Sigma process is implemented by organizations to reduce __________.

Answers:

    1. defects in their processes
    2. costs of poor quality
    3. infrastructure defects
    4. process improvements
    5. employees

 

43. Failure modes are ranked by using the RPN. What does RPN stand for?

Answers:

      1. Risk Priority Notice
      2. Revenue Priority Notice
      3. Risk Priority Number
      4. Revenue Priority Number

44. A flowchart is a _________ representation of the flow in a process.

Answers:

      1. mathematical
      2. tabular
      3. pictorial
      4. none of the above

45. What defines the range of output which the process must meet, also known as specification range?

Answers:

      1. Corrective Action Metrics
      2. Control charts
      3. Difference between USL and LSL
      4. Critical Process Outputs

46. Why are affinity diagrams used?

Answers:

      1. To represent the ideas that are liked by all the solution-seekers
      2. To represent the brainstormed ideas
      3. To represent the data that is troublesome
      4. All of the above

47. What are Gantt Charts used for?

Answers:

      1. To keep track of the time frame of a project
      2. To keep track of the expenditure of a project
      3. To keep track of the man power used for a project
      4. To keep track of the resources utilized for a project

48. Which is the tool that helps in identifying every potential failure mode of a process or a product?

Answers:

      1. FMEA
      2. RPN
      3. PDPC
      4. SPC

49. C-charts, P-charts and U-charts are types of _________ control charts.

      1. Answers:
      2. attribute
      3. variable
      4. trend
      5. pareto

50. Which tool is used to identify the relevant factors of a process improvement project before work begins?

Answers:

      1. Pareto Diagram
      2. Bar Chart
      3. Histogram
      4. SIPOC

51. A _____________ is an important tool for establishing performance objectives.

Answers:

      1. Bar Chart
      2. Histogram
      3. Process Map
      4. Trend chart

52. The _______ chart monitors the process location over time, based on the average of a series of observations, called a subgroup.

Answers:

  1. attribute
  2. X-bar
  3. trend
  4. histogram

53. In a scatter diagram, what kind of correlation is indicated when almost all the points fall along an imaginary straight line with either a positive or negative slope?

Answers:

      1. Strong correlation
      2. Moderate correlation
      3. No correlation
      4. None of the above

54. A graphical tool usually employed to help recognize opportunities for improvement is known as:

Answers:

      1. Bar Chart
      2. Pareto Analysis
      3. Process Map
      4. ANOVA

55. The main purpose of preparing a Project Charter in the Define phase is ______________.

Answers:

      1. to list the vital features of the project
      2. to mention the date of completion of the project
      3. to list the customers involved in the project
      4. None of the above

56. Which of the following statements is true about Analyze phase?

Answers:

      1. In the Analyze phase, all the processes are re-defined
      2. In the Analyze phase, all the processes that are yet to be completed are analyzed and the steps to be followed to complete the processes are written in a step-wise manner
      3. In the Analyze phase, the gaps between current process performance and the business goals are identified
      4. None of the above

57. ___________ is an instrument which assists the team to prioritize the root causes.

Answers:

      1. Multivoting
      2. Five Why Diagram
      3. Scatter Diagram
      4. Hypothesis Testing

58. ____________ defines all possible failures and their effects on a system.

Answers:

      1. FMEA
      2. PDPC
      3. ANOVA
      4. Control chart

59. Defects Per Unit (DPU) is defined as:

Answers:

      1. A measurement of the average number of units showing a single defect
      2. A measurement of the average number of defects in a single unit
      3. A measurement of the total number of defects in a single unit
      4. A measurement of the total number of units showing a single defect

60. _______ data cannot be broken down into smaller units.

Answers:

      1. Attribute
      2. Continuous
      3. Quantitative
      4. Qualitative

61. Which of the following belongs to hierarchical diagrams?

Answers:

      1. Sequence Diagram
      2. Cause and Effect Diagrams
      3. Scatter Diagram
      4. Bubble Chart

62. Prioritization matrices are a combination of:

Answers:

      1. Affinity Chart and Matrix Chart
      2. Pareto Chart and Tree Diagram
      3. Tree Diagram and Matrix Chart
      4. Tree Diagram and Affinity Chart

63. Which of the following is used to control the critical process inputs?

Answers:

      1. Critical process outputs
      2. Process Control Plan
      3. Feedback system
      4. Statistical Process Controls

64. The analysis by an Interrelationship Diagram helps in making a distinction between:

Answers:

      1. elements which are unwanted in the project and those which are necessary for the project
      2. elements which operate as the root cause and those which are the outcomes of the root cause
      3. elements which are continuous in nature and those which are discrete in nature
      4. All of the above

65. CTQ means:

Answers:

    1. Customer-Time-Quality
    2. Critical-Time-Quality
    3. Critical-to-Quality
    4. Customer-Time-Quantity

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Upwork General Management

Operation Management Test 2016

Published by:

1. If a company is commissioned to build a bridge, it will use computer modeling as part of the design process. Which of the following would be benefits of computer modeling in this scenario?

i)It is cheaper than building physical models.
ii)It allows parameters to be rapidly adjusted and tested.
iii)It guarantees that the finished product will perform as intended.

Answers:

  1. None of the above
  2. i only
  3. ii only
  4. iii only
  5. i and ii only
  6. i and iii only
  7. ii and iii only
  8. All of the above

2. Which of the following is NOT an element in the ‘Waterfall Model’?

Answers:

  1. Requirements
  2. Design
  3. Implementation
  4. Verification
  5. Modification
  6. Maintenance

3. Which of the following statements is/are true?

i)The ‘Six Sigma’ methodology developed by Motorola is about reducing time to market.
ii)The ‘Capability Maturity Model’ relates specifically to software engineering.

Answers:

  1. Both (i) and (ii) are true.
  2. Only (i) is true.
  3. Only (ii) is true.
  4. Neither is true.

4. The phenomenon where, in the log run, unit costs increase as the production volume increases is known as:

Answers:

  1. Disparity of costs
  2. Economy of scale
  3. Diseconomy of scale
  4. Elastic pricing

5. Which of the following refers to an approach to reducing production costs developed by Toyota?

Answers:

  1. Raw production
  2. Lean production
  3. Base production
  4. Mass production

6. What does the term ‘kaizen’ refer to?

Answers:

  1. Continuous improvement
  2. Introducing a flatter management structure
  3. Work ethics
  4. Up-skilling employees

7. Which of the following statements is/are true?

i)A manufacturing organization’s responsibility for its product ceases once it has been delivered to a retailer.
ii)’Service integration’ refers to organizations forming partnerships to link their services.

Answers:

  1. Both (i) and (ii) are true.
  2. Only (i) is true.
  3. Only (ii) is true.
  4. Neither is true.

8. Which of the following elements of ‘marketing mix’ relates to distribution?

Answers:

  1. Product
  2. Place
  3. Pricing
  4. Promotion

9. The extent to which a company owns its suppliers and its buyers is known as:

Answers:

  1. monopolization
  2. specialization
  3. vertical integration
  4. diversification

10. Which of the following statements is/are true?

i)Systems engineering relates only to the technical aspects of projects.
ii)IDEF0 is a modeling language for software engineering.

Answers:

  1. Both (i) and (ii) are true.
  2. Only (i) is true.
  3. Only (ii) is true.
  4. Neither is true.

11. Under’ Principles of Organization’, what is meant by the expression ‘Unity of Control’?

Answers:

  1. That there should be a limit to the number of persons that can be supervised effectively by one boss.
  2. That the activities of the enterprise should be divided according to functions and assigned to persons according to their specialization.
  3. That the line of authority from the chief executive at the top to the first line supervisor at the bottom must be clearly defined.
  4. That each subordinate should have only one superior whose orders he has to obey.

12. What process would a design engineer use to ensure a product meets the user’s specifications?

Answers:

  1. Stakeholder Mapping
  2. Customer Relationship Management
  3. Product Attribute Verification
  4. Requirements Management

13. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of a primary industry?

Answers:

  1. Products tend to be sold directly to consumers.
  2. It often has a significant impact on the local environment.
  3. A low percentage of people in developed countries tend to be engaged in it.
  4. Productivity can be dramatically increased through mechanization.

14. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of monitoring performance?

Answers:

  1. Identifying problems becomes easier.
  2. Assessing the impact of new initiatives becomes easier.
  3. It helps the managers take appropriate decisions.
  4. It reduces administrative costs

15. Which of the following initiatives would a company expect to reduce its defect rate?

i)Increased training of staff
ii)Introducing simultaneous engineering

Answers:

  1. Both (i) and (ii)
  2. Only (i)
  3. Only (ii)
  4. Neither (i) nor (ii)

16. Comparing performance with high-performing competitors is known as:

Answers:

  1. benchmarking
  2. rival measurement
  3. market analysis
  4. status check

17. A ‘Just-In-Time’ approach to production involves ________.

Answers:

  1. closely monitoring the employees’ hours.
  2. faster delivery of products to customers.
  3. minimising the amount of unused stock.
  4. prioritising ‘schedule’ above other variables.

18. Which of the following is the best characterization of a decentralized organization?

Answers:

  1. The staff are no longer managed.
  2. The staff work unsupervised.
  3. The staff enjoy significant discretion.
  4. The staff are permitted only limited discretion.
  5. The staff do not have any discretion.

19. For targets to be effective, they should be ‘SMART’. Which of the following is not part of the acronym ‘SMART’?

Answers:

  1. Specific
  2. Measurable
  3. Achievable
  4. Rigid
  5. Time-bound
  6. They are all parts of the acronym.

20. Which of the following is an example of a secondary industry?

Answers:

  1. Mining
  2. Farming
  3. Fishery
  4. Oil refining

21. Which of the following statements is/are true?

i)’Economies of scale’ can be used to increase market share without cutting profit margins.
ii)’Diseconomies of scale’ may enable a company to achieve higher profit margins.

Answers:

  1. Both (i) and (ii) are true.
  2. Only (i) is true.
  3. Only (ii) is true.
  4. Neither is true.

22. Which of the following statements is/are true?

i)Increasing quality inevitably leads to higher production costs.
ii)Pareto charts show the values being plotted arranged in the ascending order

Answers:

  1. Both (i) and (ii) are true.
  2. Only (i) is true.
  3. Only (ii) is true.
  4. Neither is true.

23. The term ‘cell production’ refers to a situation in which:

Answers:

  1. manufacture takes place on an automated assembly line.
  2. workers work alongside others with the same skills.
  3. production is divided into self-contained units undertaken by separate teams.
  4. workers work individually on a particular stage of the production process.

24. A situation where there is one intermediary organization between the manufacturer and the consumer is known as:

Answers:

  1. three-level channel
  2. two-level channel
  3. one-level channel
  4. zero-level channel

25. Which of the following statements is/are true?

i)’Job’ production is associated with low unit costs.
ii)’Job’ production permits customers to request a particular specification.

Answers:

  1. Both (i) and (ii) are true.
  2. Only (i) is true.
  3. Only (ii) is true.
  4. Neither is true.

26. Who developed the fourteen key principles for transforming business effectiveness?

Answers:

  1. W. Edwards Deming
  2. Frederick Winslow Taylor
  3. Walter Shewhart
  4. Malcolm Baldridge
  5. Woodrow Wilson

27. Which of the following is a potential problem /are potential problems associated with benchmarking?

i)It leads to increased production costs.
ii)Necessary information is difficult to obtain.
iii)Organizations may not be directly comparable.

Answers:

  1. None of the above
  2. i only
  3. ii only
  4. iii only
  5. i and ii only
  6. i and iii only
  7. ii and iii only
  8. All of the above

28. Which of the following would be a sensible response/sensible responses to a situation where a company finds that demand for its product is outstripping supply?

i)Start a waiting list.
ii)Decrease prices.
iii)Attempt to boost capacity.

Answers:

  1. None of the above
  2. i only
  3. ii only
  4. iii only
  5. i and ii only
  6. i and iii only
  7. ii and iii only
  8. All of the above

29. Which of the following is a standard indicating a company’s approach to ‘quality’?

Answers:

  1. ISO 6000
  2. ISO 7000
  3. ISO 8000
  4. ISO 9000

30. To what does the term ‘purchasing economies of scale’ refer?

Answers:

  1. Where improved equipment is bought to enhance efficiency.
  2. Where costs are reduced through bulk buying.
  3. Where customers benefit from reduced prices.
  4. Where outside expertise is imported to boost productivity.

31. Which of the following is NOT part of the role of an industrial engineer?

Answers:

  1. Making processes more efficient.
  2. Improving the consistency of manufacturing quality.
  3. Making products easier to manufacture.
  4. Monitoring productivity

32. Which of the following products would be most suited to transportation by an airplane?

Answers:

  1. Canned goods
  2. Mail
  3. Electrical items
  4. Books

33. Which of the following would NOT be addressed as part of a ‘Quality’ improvement initiative?

Answers:

  1. Waste
  2. Target market
  3. Defect levels
  4. Delivery time

34. Organizations often outsource elements of their operations in order to improve profitability. Which of the following activities may NOT be outsourced�?

Answers:

  1. Marketing
  2. Project management
  3. Human Resources
  4. Core business
  5. Sales

35. Which of the following is NOT a stage in the product life cycle?

Answers:

  1. Development
  2. Introduction
  3. Infancy
  4. Growth
  5. Maturity
  6. Decline

36. Which of the following is a statistical measure of the ability of a process to deliver within the specification limits?

Answers:

  1. Capability Maturity Model
  2. Process Capability Index
  3. Production Output Norm
  4. Quality Assurance

37. Which of the following concepts developed by Dr Eliyahu Goldratt asserts that at any given time, there will be at least one factor hindering an organization’s performance?

Answers:

  1. Barriers to entry
  2. Hurdle hypothesis
  3. Problem analysis
  4. Theory of constraints

38. Which of the following statements is/are true?

i)Companies should always seek to hold large quantities of unused stock to ensure that production is not interrupted.
ii)Service-based companies generally hold more stock than manufacturing-based ones.

Answers:

  1. Both (i) and (ii) are true.
  2. Only (i) is true.
  3. Only (ii) is true.
  4. Neither is true.

39. Which of the following statements is/are true?

i)Distribution channels refer only to physical products.
ii)Under ‘selective distribution’, only a very limited number of retailers are allowed to sell a product in order to maintain exclusivity.

Answers:

  1. Both (i) and (ii) are true.
  2. Only (i) is true.
  3. Only (ii) is true.
  4. Neither is true.

40. Which one of the Maslow’s hierarchy of needs would primarily be addressed by introducing ‘team-based management’?

Answers:

  1. Physiological
  2. Social/belonging
  3. Security
  4. Self-actualization

41. Which of the following is an example of ‘job’ production?

Answers:

  1. A print run of 1,000 magazines
  2. Personalized birthday cakes
  3. Soup canning
  4. An order for 100 chairs

42. Which of the following is an alternative term for the ‘Scalar Principle’?

Answers:

  1. Chain of Command
  2. Personal ability
  3. Unity of Command
  4. Span of Control
  5. Unity of Direction

43. Which of the following statements is/are true?

i)A capital intensive production process is one that involves a relatively-high proportion of labor.
ii)Training staff can be an effective method of boosting productivity.

Answers:

  1. Both (i) and (ii) are true.
  2. Only (i) is true.
  3. Only (ii) is true.
  4. Neither is true.

44. Which of the following factors must be balanced against ‘schedule’ to assess the effectiveness of a process?

i)Quality
ii)Scale
iii)Cost

Answers:

  1. None of the above
  2. i only
  3. ii only
  4. iii only
  5. i and ii only
  6. i and iii only
  7. ii and iii only
  8. All of the above

45. Which of the following statements is/are true?

i)Implementing ‘team-based management’ may reduce output.
ii)’Team-based management’ is associated with the ‘Theory X’ approach.

Answers:

  1. Both (i) and (ii) are true.
  2. Only (i) is true.
  3. Only (ii) is true.
  4. Neither is true.

46. Which of the following is/are a benefit/benefits of introducing the ‘kaizen’ techniques?
Business
i)Increased staff motivation
ii)Reduced wastage
iii)More efficient processes

Answers:

  1. None of the above
  2. i only
  3. ii only
  4. iii only
  5. i and ii only
  6. i and iii only
  7. ii and iii only
  8. All of the above

47. What is the correct expansion of the acronym KPI?

Answers:

  1. Kinds of Product Information
  2. Key Performance Indicator
  3. Keen Productivity Implementation
  4. Keeping People Interested

48. A factory can produce 1000 units per day but has only been able to produce 800 units due to a lack of skilled staff. What will its capacity utilization be after a 10% productivity increase?

Answers:

  1. 880 units
  2. 900 units
  3. 960 units
  4. 88%
  5. 90%
  6. 96%

49. Which of the following is/are a disadvantage/disadvantages of gaining a quality award?

i)Loss of administrative time required to prepare and apply for certification.
ii)Increased requirement for record-keeping.
iii)Decreased brand image with customers.

Answers:

  1. None of the above
  2. i only
  3. ii only
  4. iii only
  5. i and ii only
  6. i and iii only
  7. ii and iii only
  8. All of the above

50. Which of the following statements is/are correct?

i)’Time and Motion’ studies seek to improve a process by increasing the number of steps involved.

ii)Decisions should be made only on the basis of quantitative data.

Answers:

  1. Both (i) and (ii) are true.
  2. Only (i) is true.
  3. Only (ii) is true.
  4. Neither is true.

51. Which of the following situations would NOT cause ‘diseconomies of scale’?

Answers:

  1. Increased communication costs
  2. Scarcity of raw materials
  3. Increased management costs
  4. Increased manufacturing output

52. What is meant by the term ‘industrial design’?

Answers:

  1. Making a mass-produced product aesthetically pleasing.
  2. Planning the machinery that will be required to manufacture a product.
  3. Ensuring that a product is simple enough to be suited to mass production.
  4. The visible use of metals in a product to accentuate its high-technology image.

53. Which of the following statements is NOT true?

Answers:

  1. Because errors creep in more easily when decisions are made on the basis of subjective judgement or past experience, using ‘Operations Research Techniques’ improves the likelihood of a good decision.
  2. ‘Operations Research Techniques’ can be effectively applied in many situations where the underlying variables cannot be quantified, e.g. situations involving human qualities and interpersonal relations.
  3. ‘Operations Research Techniques’ permit experimentation to take place without interfering with actual operations.
  4. ‘Operations Research Techniques’ make it possible to break down a complex large-scale problem into smaller parts that can be more easily diagnosed and manipulated.

54. Why would a design engineer perform ‘structural analysis’?

Answers:

  1. To assess whether the manufacturing process is optimized.
  2. To test what causes materials to fail.
  3. To determine whether a product can be simplified.
  4. To identify the individual components of a product.

55. Which of the following terms refers to the comprehensive management of the flow of goods from the producer to the consumer?

  1. Answers:
  2. Supply channel
  3. Logistics
  4. Transportation
  5. Warehousing

56. If a company invests in new equipment to make its production process more efficient, which of the following will be considered ‘opportunity costs’?

i)The cost of the new equipment.
ii)The anticipated additional revenue.
iii)The alternative improvements for which the capital might have been used.
iv)The interest that could have been earned on the capital.

Answers:

  1. i and ii only
  2. i and iii only
  3. i and iv only
  4. ii and iii only
  5. ii and iv only
  6. iii and iv only

57. Which of the following is/are typically qualitative measures?

i)Profit margin
ii)Oral customer feedback
iii)Share price

Answers:

  1. None of the above
  2. i only
  3. ii only
  4. iii only
  5. i and ii only
  6. i and iii only
  7. ii and iii only
  8. All of the above

58. A factory currently produces 1000 units at a unit cost of $3. If doubling output will decrease production costs by 20%, how much would it cost to produce 2000 units then?

Answers:

  1. $4,800
  2. $6,000
  3. $5,000
  4. $5,200

59. Which of the following distribution methods would be best suited to reach the customers who are unable to visit shops and want a broad range of products?

Answers:

  1. Door-to-door
  2. Wholesale
  3. Retail
  4. Catalogue

60. Which of the following is/are a variety/varieties of a ‘prototype’?

i)Visual prototype
ii)Form study prototype
iii)Proof-of-principle prototype

Answers:

  1. None of the above
  2. i only
  3. ii only
  4. iii only
  5. i and ii only
  6. i and iii only
  7. ii and iii only
  8. All of the above

61. Which of the following terms relates to ensuring that different elements of product development are undertaken at the same time rather than consecutively?

Answers:

  1. ‘Just-in-time’ production
  2. ‘Lean production’
  3. ‘Simultaneous engineering’
  4. ‘Concurrent development’

62. Which of the following methods would be used for the production of gas?

Answers:

  1. Batch
  2. One-off
  3. Continuous
  4. Cell

63. A company with 12 employees used to produce 600 units per week. Now with 16 employees, it produces 960 units per week. How much has each employee’s productivity increased?

Answers:

  1. 10%
  2. 15%
  3. 20%
  4. 25%

64. Which of the following is NOT a reason for selling products via wholesalers?

Answers:

  1. Higher prices can be charged by doing so than by selling directly to consumers.
  2. Transport costs for the manufacturer are reduced.
  3. The wholesalers have greater sales expertise.
  4. The manufacturer does not have to store unsold stock.

65. Which of the following statements is/are true?

i)Prototypes should be constructed using the same manufacturing processes as are intended for the final product.
ii)The cost of producing a prototype will generally be higher than the unit cost of the final product.

Answers:

  1. Both (i) and (ii) are true.
  2. Only (i) is true.
  3. Only (ii) is true.
  4. Neither is true.

66. A ‘balanced ________’ is a tool for evaluating organisational performance across the full range of factors.

Answers:

  1. scorecard.
  2. ledger.
  3. matrix.
  4. healthcheck.

67. Which of the following is an ‘output’-related measure?

Answers:

  1. The number of units produced per day
  2. The cost of raw materials
  3. Staff turnover
  4. The amount of investment in a plant

68. Which of the following statements are true?

i)It is not necessary for all measures to be presented to the senior management.
ii)The more KPIs an organization has, the more effective its performance measurement system will be.

Answers:

  1. Both (i) and (ii) are true.
  2. Only (i) is true.
  3. Only (ii) is true.
  4. Neither is true.

69. What is reducing the number of levels within an organization’s hierarchy known as?

Answers:

  1. Smoothing
  2. Delayering
  3. De-verticalization
  4. Simplifying

70. Which of the following describes the term ‘time-based management’?

Answers:

  1. Monitoring staff productivity with a stop-watch.
  2. Using IT-based tools to manage diaries.
  3. Prioritizing schedule above cost and quality.
  4. Reducing the time taken to develop, launch and manufacture a product.

71. Which of the following courses of action would NOT be a sensible response where capacity is being under-utilized due to lack of demand for products?

Answers:

  1. Increase production.
  2. Attempt to boost demand through marketing.
  3. Sell off unused capacity.
  4. Diversify into new products.

72. Which of the following statements is/are true?

i)A firm may choose to subcontract where its capacity exceeds demand.
ii)Subcontracting is an effective way of ensuring a high-quality product.

Answers:

  1. Both (i) and (ii) are true.
  2. Only (i) is true.
  3. Only (ii) is true.
  4. Neither is true.

73. Which two of the following are used to calculate an ‘efficiency ratio’?

i)profit margin
ii)expenses
iii)output
iv)revenue

Answers:

  1. i and ii only
  2. i and iii only
  3. i and iv only
  4. ii and iii only
  5. ii and iv only
  6. iii and iv only

74. Which of the following is NOT a feature of an effective organizational structure?

Answers:

  1. Clear line of authority
  2. Adequate delegation of authority
  3. More managerial levels
  4. Proper span of control
  5. Simple and flexible structure

75. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of ‘hub and spoke’ distribution?

Answers:

  1. Complicated operations can be carried out at the central hub.
  2. It generally leads to higher capacity utilization for the vehicles involved.
  3. It reduces the total number of routes traveled compared to a ‘point-to-point’ network.
  4. It reduces the number of miles traveled by each item.

76. Which of the following is/are a reason/reasons for undertaking ‘reverse engineering’?

i)To check that a product functions properly.
ii)To determine interoperability.
iii)To examine rival products.

Answers:

  1. None of the above
  2. i only
  3. ii only
  4. iii only
  5. i and ii only
  6. i and iii only
  7. ii and iii only
  8. All of the above

77. Which of these is NOT generally associated with a ‘Just-In-Time’ approach to production?

Answers:

  1. Reduced motivation among workers.
  2. Reduced storage costs.
  3. Improved cash flow.
  4. Increased vulnerability to the reliability of suppliers.

78. Which of the following is NOT a stage in the ‘Business Process Re-engineering Cycle’?

Answers:

  1. Identifying processes
  2. Reviewing, updating, analyzing ‘as-is’
  3. Designing ‘to-be’
  4. Testing and implementing ‘to-be’
  5. Reviewing, updating, analyzing ‘to-be’

79. What does the term ‘distribution chain’ refer to?

Answers:

  1. A way of organizing staff to make distribution more effective.
  2. A series of organizations involved in taking a product from the manufacturer to the consumer.
  3. The retail outlets at which a product is sold.
  4. A factor that hinders distribution.

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Upwork General Management

Management Skills Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which one of the following is not the function of Personnel Management?

Answers:

  1. Procurement of the right kind and number of persons.
  2. Training and development of employees.
  3. Integration of the interests of the personnel with that of the enterprise.
  4. Management of customer requirements

2. Which of the following is generally an inappropriate reason for delegation?

Answers:

  1. It relieves the manager of his/her heavy workload.
  2. It frees the manager to address more complex, higher-level needs.
  3. Someone else is better qualified to do the task that needs to be done.
  4. It helps create a formal organizational structure.

3. Which of the following is a current liability of a business?

Answers:

  1. Cash
  2. Debtors
  3. Bank overdraft
  4. Work in progress

4. Which of the following is not a financial statement?

Answers:

  1. Statement of Financial Loss
  2. Income Statement
  3. Balance Sheet
  4. Statement of Retained Earnings
  5. Statement of Cash Flow

5. Long-term budgets are useful for those industries where the gestation period is long. Which of the following is not relevant to the above statement?

Answers:

  1. Machinery
  2. Electricity
  3. Textile
  4. Engineering

6. A tool to plot the duration of activities in a project and its dependencies is named after:

Answers:

  1. Robert George
  2. Toby Williams
  3. Henry Gantt
  4. Samuel Edwards

7. Which of the following is not included in calculating working capital?

Answers:

  1. Stock of work in progress
  2. Plant
  3. Debtors
  4. Creditors

8. Which of the following characterise a ‘differentiation’-based business model?
1.High sales volume
2.High profit margin
3.Well-regarded brand
4.High-quality manufacture

Answers:

  1. 1,2 and 4
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 3
  5. All of the above

9. Which item appears in both the balance sheet and the profit and loss account?

Answers:

  1. Suppliers
  2. Heating
  3. Sales
  4. Closing stock

10. A manager is seeking to introduce new working conditions. Which of the following is the best way to gain employees’ cooperation?

Answers:

  1. Send an email to the entire staff informing them of the new conditions.
  2. Post the new instructions on a notice board.
  3. Organize a briefing for the entire staff.
  4. Discuss the proposals with staff representatives.

11. A tool for evaluating organizational performance across the full range of a business is known as a ‘balanced ________’.

Answers:

  1. scorecard.
  2. ledger.
  3. matrix.
  4. healthcheck.

12. What is the main advantage of employing staff on a temporary basis?

Answers:

  1. Greater flexibility in responding to customer requirements
  2. Improved productivity
  3. Enhanced customer satisfaction
  4. Lower staff turnover

13. Which of the following statements is false?

Answers:

  1. Decision-making should be based on evidence.
  2. Decision-making should take into account a range of factors.
  3. Decision-making should involve key stakeholders.
  4. Decision-making should be rapid.

14. Which of the following can be used as a term for Supervisor?

Answers:

  1. Area manager
  2. Specialty manager
  3. Front-line manager
  4. Technical manager

15. Which of the following is not a feature of a good organizational structure?

Answers:

  1. Clear line of authority
  2. Adequate delegation of authority
  3. Proper span of control
  4. More managerial levels
  5. Simple and flexible structure

16. Which ratio shows an organization’s effectiveness in minimizing production costs?

Answers:

  1. Gross profit ratio
  2. Current ratio
  3. Efficiency ratio
  4. Selling ratio

17. A member of the Board of Directors of a company who is not an employee of the company is called a——————– .

Answers:

  1. consultant
  2. inside director
  3. non-executive director
  4. corporate officer

18. Which one of the following best completes the sentence: “Division of work promotes ____________.”

Answers:

  1. Effective management
  2. Efficiency
  3. Experience
  4. Equality

19. What does the term ‘Unity of Control’ stand for under Principles of Organizing?

Answers:

  1. That there should be a limit to the number of persons that can be supervised effectively by one boss.
  2. That each subordinate should have only one superior whose orders he has to obey.
  3. That the line of authority from the chief executive at the top to the first line supervisor at the bottom must be clearly defined.
  4. That the activities of the enterprise should be divided according to functions and assigned to persons according to their specialization.

20. The degree to which a company owns its upstream suppliers and its downstream buyers is known as—————- .

Answers:

  1. monopolization
  2. vertical integration
  3. specialization
  4. diversification

21. Which of the following is not a key function of leadership?

Answers:

  1. Enthusing and inspiring staff.
  2. Setting strategic direction.
  3. Being accountable for performance.
  4. Closely monitoring the execution of tasks.

22. Which two factors are combined to evaluate the size of risks facing an organization?

Answers:

  1. Probability and Scale.
  2. Impact and Importance
  3. Probability and Impact
  4. Scale and Importance.

23. If a company’s productivity is rising, it means ———— .

Answers:

  1. costs are rising at a faster rate than output.
  2. output is rising at a faster rate than costs.
  3. output and costs are increasing at the same rate.
  4. output and costs are decreasing at the same rate.

24. Which of the following best completes the sentence: “Repetitive decisions are known as _____________ .”

Answers:

  1. operational decisions
  2. programmed decisions
  3. routine decisions
  4. standard decisions

25. If a manager is attempting to establish motivational goals for his employees, which of the following should he do?

Answers:

  1. Involve subordinates in the goal-setting process
  2. Set goals that are stated in very general terms
  3. Set conflicting goals so employees can accomplish one goal or another as they choose
  4. Set goals that are easy to achieve

26. Jack Smith was reviewing the performance of his employees and was trying to decide which of them could profit the most from some additional managerial involvement. Listed below are the four employees he is considering. Everything else being equal, which of the following employees will benefit from the additional managerial involvement as a result of his/her performance being most appreciated?

Answers:

  1. Johnson, who has successfully worked independently for several years.
  2. Marko, who has recently been assigned a highly-challenging, but relatively-unstructured task.
  3. Baker, who has been employed with the firm in a variety of related positions for nearly fifteen years.
  4. Louis, who recently received recognition for outstanding service.

27. Which one of the following is not the purpose of Performance Appraisal?

Answers:

  1. It can serve as a basis for job change or promotion.
  2. It serves as a guide for formulating a suitable training and development program.
  3. It provides the rational foundation for the payment of piece work, wages, bonuses, etc.
  4. It makes the worker committed and loyal to the organization.
  5. It serves as feedback to the employee.

28. Delegation takes place when ______________.

Answers:

  1. a superior abrogates responsibility for a task.
  2. one person gives another the right to do a piece of work.
  3. a subordinate is given orders.
  4. the manager closely monitors the subordinate’s execution of a task.

29. Which of the following is an external source of recruitment?

Answers:

  1. Promotion from within
  2. Transfer of employees
  3. Unsolicited applicants
  4. Staff returning from maternity leave

30. Selling stock not actually owned in the expectation that the price will fall is known as———————– .

Answers:

  1. going long
  2. flotation
  3. short-selling
  4. divestment

31. Why does a business analyze its financial accounts to assess its solvency?

Answers:

  1. To check whether it can meet its current financial obligations.
  2. To monitor depreciation.
  3. To confirm customers are making prompt payments.
  4. To assess the efficiency of the manufacturing process.

32. A Mission Statement: ——————- .

Answers:

  1. provides information as to what the organization is trying to achieve.
  2. outlines a task to be undertaken by a team.
  3. summarizes the outcome of a project.
  4. sets out the high-level structure of the organization.

33. Which of the following is neither a cash in-flow nor cash out-flow?

Answers:

  1. Rents received
  2. Payments from debtors
  3. Payments to creditors
  4. Mortgage repayments
  5. Depreciation

34. Which of the following is not a function of a ‘transactional’ leader?

Answers:

  1. Moving resources from areas of lesser productivity to areas of greater productivity.
  2. Working within a culture and competently supervising and coordinating the day-to-day management.
  3. Maintaining the system through control of current procedures.
  4. Recognizing and clarifying roles and task requirements.
  5. Maintaining an organization’s operation rather than changing it.

35. In which of the following circumstances is the directive method of introducing planned change inappropriate?

Answers:

  1. When the manager enjoys sufficient position power (e.g.: he/she has significant control over rewards and punishments).
  2. When the employees are achievement-motivated and willing to accept the change.
  3. If organization communication pattern is ‘star-type’, which favors the change agent as a leader over his subordinates.
  4. When the driving forces far outweigh the restraining forces.

36. Budgetary control systems involve ______________.

Answers:

  1. Estimation of control
  2. Setting of targets
  3. Monitoring of performance
  4. Preparation of budgets

37. Which of the following are incorrect?
1.Policies are established after a thorough study and analysis of work. Procedures are often established without any study and analysis.
2.Policies help us in fulfilling the objectives of the enterprise. Procedures show us the way to implement policies.
3.Policies are specific and lay down the sequence of definite acts. Procedures are generally broad and allow some discretion.
4.Policies are general guides to both thinking and action of people at higher levels. Procedures are general guides to action only, usually at lower levels.

Answers:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 1 and 3
  3. 2 and 3
  4. 2 and 4
  5. 3 and 4
  6. 1 and 4

38. Which is not a characteristic of a ‘democratic leader’ as identified by Lewin, Lippitt and White?

Answers:

  1. Involving subordinates in decision-making.
  2. Acknowledging that he/she cannot know everything.
  3. Devolving ultimate decision-making authority.
  4. Earning subordinates’ respect by listening to advice.

39. Which of the following is incorrect?

Answers:

  1. Because errors creep in more easily when decisions are made on the basis of subjective judgment or past experience, using Operations Research Techniques improves the likelihood of a good decision.
  2. Operations Research Techniques make it possible to break down a complex large-scale problem into smaller parts that can be more easily diagnosed and manipulated.
  3. Operations Research Techniques permit experimentation to take place without interfering with actual operations.
  4. Operations Research Techniques can be effectively applied in many situations where the underlying variables cannot be quantified, e.g. situations involving human qualities and interpersonal relations.

40. Which of the following activities should not be outsourced?

Answers:

  1. Core business
  2. Project management
  3. Human Resources
  4. Marketing
  5. Sales

41. Self-regulation, one of the characteristics of an effective leader, is defined as the ability to —–.

Answers:

  1. understand one’s own reactions and the effect of one’s behavior on other team members.
  2. control oneself and to reflect in complex situations.
  3. maintain an ongoing commitment to a goal in often turbulent and chaotic times.
  4. understand the complexities of other people’s situations.
  5. maintain teamwork in situations where uncertainty can isolate and drive people apart.

42. Which of the following characterizes the difference between Managers and Leaders?

Answers:

  1. Leaders are concerned with strategic issues; managers are concerned with tactical issues
  2. Managers are concerned with the vision of the company; leaders are concerned with the contingency plans
  3. Managers are concerned with concepts; leaders are concerned with details
  4. Managers are concerned with order and stability; leaders are concerned with change
  5. Managers are concerned with directing others; leaders tend to do the work themselves

43. According to the team roles identified by Belbin, a ‘plant’ is someone who is————- .

Answers:

  1. highly-specialized
  2. good at turning ideas into action
  3. creative and unorthodox
  4. adept at handling inter-personal relationships

44. Which term refers to a document that sets out an organization’s ‘rules’ regarding a particular issue?

Answers:

  1. Process
  2. Policy
  3. Procedure
  4. Practice
  5. Paradigm

45. An employee’s desire and commitment to perform that is manifested in job related effort defines his/her———————– .

Answers:

  1. aptitude
  2. motivation
  3. performance
  4. ability

46. Which term refers to an activity or a series of activities that transform inputs into outputs?

Answers:

  1. Process
  2. Policy
  3. Practice
  4. Paradigm

47. Computers have helped immensely in the design and development of products for the manufacturing sector. With reference to this statement, which computer-related technology supports the above statement?

Answers:

  1. CAD
  2. CAM
  3. Decision Tree Analysis
  4. Artificial Intelligence
  5. CAP

48. In the ‘situational’ leadership style, the manager is concerned with ___________.

Answers:

  1. task accomplishment
  2. human relations and teamwork
  3. giving free rein to his/her staff
  4. prompt, orderly performance
  5. growth for staff and himself/herself

49. Which of the following would help a company manufacture products to the standard required by the customer?

Answers:

  1. Performance appraisal
  2. Stock control
  3. Quality control
  4. Strategic planning approach

50. If the financial year starts in January, the Fixed Budget will be prepared ———— .

Answers:

  1. a month or two earlier
  2. in January
  3. at the end of that year
  4. as and when the Financial Manager decides

51. Which term refers to an internal framework for ensuring that an organization behaves responsibly?

Answers:

  1. Performance monitoring
  2. Governance
  3. Strategy
  4. Watchdog
  5. Stakeholder

52. Which of the following statements is not likely to characterize a planning approach to strategy development?

Answers:

  1. Strategies are the outcome of rational, sequential, and methodical practices
  2. Definite and precise objectives are set
  3. Strategies are developed by negotiation and bargaining between interest groups
  4. Defined procedures for the implementation and achievement of strategic objectives are developed
  5. None of the above

53. Which of the following is correctly ordered as a Management Process?

Answers:

  1. Staffing, Planning, Organizing, Directing, Co-ordinating, Controlling
  2. Planning, Staffing, Organizing, Directing, Co-ordinating, Controlling
  3. Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Co-ordinating, Controlling
  4. Planning, Organizing, Staffing, Directing, Controlling, Co-ordinating

54. What is a ‘stakeholder map’?

Answers:

  1. A means of plotting the location of customers.
  2. A means of identifying all those affected by the organization.
  3. A means of targeting your intended market.
  4. A means of predicting sales growth.

55. According to the Myers-Briggs classification of personality types, the opposite of ‘perception’ is————— .

Answers:

  1. judgment
  2. intuition
  3. sensing
  4. feeling
  5. thinking

56. According to Bruce Tuckman’s model of group development, which is the second stage through which a team passes?

Answers:

  1. Storming
  2. Forming
  3. Performing
  4. Norming

57. There are some important measures which a company can use to determine the effects of training. Which of the following is not one of them?

Answers:

  1. Production
  2. Changes in specific results, such as turnover
  3. Job applications
  4. Profit of the company
  5. Overall growth

58. Which one of the following best completes the sentence:
The principle of ‘Unity of Command’ is concerned with —————— .

Answers:

  1. activities
  2. persons
  3. remuneration
  4. respect of authority

59. Set-up costs that make it difficult for new companies to enter a particular market are known as——————— .

Answers:

  1. hurdles to entry
  2. barriers to entry
  3. obstacles to entry
  4. impediments to entry

60. Which one of the following is another term for the Scalar Principle?

Answers:

  1. Span of Control
  2. Unity of Direction
  3. Unity of Command
  4. Chain of Command
  5. Personal ability

61. Which of the following defines ‘apprenticeship’ training?

Answers:

  1. A method of training meant to give the trainee sufficient knowledge and skill in those trades and crafts in which a long period of training is required for gaining complete proficiency.
  2. A method of training which is generally provided to the skilled and technical personnel.
  3. A method involving the creation of a separate training centre within the plant itself for the purpose of providing training to new employees.
  4. A method of training designed to help new staff rapidly to acquire simple skills.

62. In decentralization, subordinates —————– .

Answers:

  1. enjoy significant powers
  2. are permitted limited powers
  3. Do not get any powers
  4. work unsupervised
  5. are no longer managed

63. If a subordinate is having difficulty carrying out a delegated task, what should a manager do?

Answers:

  1. Take over the task for the employee so he or she will not become demoralized.
  2. Be available as a role model and resource in identifying alternative solutions.
  3. Give the employee a written warning.
  4. Give the employee a second delegated task so he or she has another opportunity to prove his worth.

64. Which of the following are not legitimate risk management options?
1.Terminate
2.Turn
3.Tolerate
4.Treat
5.Test
6.Transfer

Answers:

  1. 1 and 4
  2. 2 and 3
  3. 5 and 6
  4. 2 and 5
  5. 1 and 6
  6. 3 and 4

65. Which motivation strategy is characterized by a high emphasis on performance and a low emphasis on satisfaction?

Answers:

  1. Indulging
  2. Imposing
  3. Integrating
  4. Ignoring

66. Which of the following represents the implementation of a ‘Just-in-Time’ production approach?

Answers:

  1. The installation of a new computer system.
  2. Receiving materials as and when they are required for production.
  3. Having a large supply of materials ready to be processed.
  4. Implementing process controls to improve quality.
  5. Introducing monitoring tools to assess efficiency

67. Which of the listed management functions involves creating an environment where everyone works together to achieve the common goals of the organization?

Answers:

  1. Planning
  2. Controlling
  3. Leading
  4. Recruiting
  5. Organizing

68. Which of the following statements regarding the five core job dimensions is true?

Answers:

  1. The less feedback individuals receive, the more autonomy they feel and the more committed they will be to the job.
  2. The less variety in the skills a person can use in performing work, the more the person perceives the task as meaningful or worthwhile.
  3. The more the work has a direct effect on the work or lives of other people, the less the employee will view the job as meaningful.
  4. The more autonomy in the work, the more responsibility the workers feel for their success and failures and the more committed they are to their work.

69. Recruitment, selection, and training is a function of————– .

Answers:

  1. organizing
  2. directing
  3. leadership
  4. staffing

70. The ‘Principle of Order’ applies to————– .

Answers:

  1. one head and one plan
  2. right person in right job
  3. issuing instructions
  4. justice and kindness

71. Operations can be classified according to their volume and variety of production, as well as the degree of variation and visibility. Which of the following operations would be classified as high-volume, low-variety?

Answers:

  1. A cashier’s
  2. A carpenter’s
  3. A family doctor’s
  4. A front-office bank’s

72. In which order would the following strategic planning activities take place?
1.Evaluating performance
2.Devising strategy
3.Documenting plans
4.Executing plans

Answers:

  1. 2, 4, 3, 1
  2. 4, 3, 1, 2
  3. 3, 2, 1, 4
  4. 4, 1, 3, 2
  5. 2, 3, 4, 1

73. Which of the following constitutes a fixed asset in a business?

Answers:

  1. Creditors
  2. Debtors
  3. Stock
  4. Fixtures and fittings

74. ‘Span of Control’ relates to the ———— .

Answers:

  1. division of responsibility
  2. delegation of authority
  3. number of persons to be supervised
  4. the physical area managed by a person

75. In which context are the terms Unfreezing and Refreezing used?

Answers:

  1. Management of Change
  2. Management of Order
  3. Dimensions of Order
  4. Resistance to Change
  5. Dimensions of Control

75.Why do businesses use cash-flow forecasts as part of the internal planning process?

Answers:

  1. To estimate the value of their assets at the year end.
  2. To assess potential profit or loss.
  3. To allocate the marketing budget.
  4. To predict future borrowing requirements.

76. Which of the following reveals whether or not a company is earning a profit?

Answers:

  1. Income statement
  2. Statement of cash reconciliation
  3. Balance statement
  4. Statement of cash flows
  5. Statement of owners’ equity

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Upwork General Management

Lean Management Certification 2016

Published by:

1. The various kinds of Kanban include:

Answers:

  1. Supplier Kanban
  2. In-Factory Kanban
  3. Customer Kanban
  4. In-House Kanban
  5. All of the above

2. What are the three C’s essential for Supply Chain Management?

Answers:

  1. Cooperation
  2. Communication
  3. Coordination
  4. Customer Satisfaction

3. Why did Ford begin to lose its hold in the market?

Answers:

  1. There were clashes between the laborers and the Ford system
  2. There was a sudden rise in the product variety
  3. Annual changes in models and multiple colors and options suited the Ford factories
  4. All of the above

4. Which of the following is necessary for the success of Lean implementation?

Answers:

  1. There needs to be a total cultural change in the organization
  2. The command-and-control approach needs to be imbibed
  3. The people have to be downsized
  4. The value stream has to be mapped
  5. The senior mangement need not be active participants in the Lean implementation program

5. Which of the following are true regarding value stream mapping?

Answers:

  1. It is a tool to look at how value flows into and through a process to the customer
  2. It cannot be applied to service processes because the value stream cannot be traced in these processes
  3. It helps to locate the wastes in the value chain
  4. It cannot be used to map information flows

6. Which principle of Lean makes use of spaghetti charts?

Answers:

  1. Value
  2. Flow
  3. Value Stream
  4. Pull

7. Where was the first TPM conference held?

Answers:

  1. Canada
  2. Japan
  3. The United Kingdom
  4. The United States

8. Pull System is another name for ______.

Answers:

  1. Poka-Yoke
  2. Kanban
  3. Standard Work
  4. SMED

9. Which method helps in the optimization of machinery?

Answers:

  1. FMEA
  2. Total Productive Maintenance
  3. Kanban
  4. Cycle Time Reduction

10. Cycle Time Reduction is:

Answers:

  1. the time needed to complete a task within a process
  2. the time needed to manufacture a product
  3. the time needed to design a product
  4. the time needed to deliver a product to the customer

11. State whether true or false:

Applying Lean to Supply Chain Management helps to certify the suppliers.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

12. Which of these need not be a feature of Lean metrics?

Answers:

  1. They are fundamental for decision-making purposes
  2. Building a Lean enterprise is an important basis for good metrics
  3. They should be made keeping in mind the goals of the competitor
  4. They should be simple to understand and presented in a clear manner

13. Which of the following losses does not eliminate TPM?

Answers:

  1. Breakdown losses
  2. Production losses
  3. Speed losses
  4. Quality losses

14. What is the main reason for the occurrence of waste?

Answers:

  1. Single Unit Processing
  2. Inventory
  3. Cycle Time
  4. Lean Manufacturing

15. Which of the following is not done by poka-yoke?

Answers:

  1. It easily recognizes flaws in a product and thwarts the manufacturing of incorrect parts
  2. It signals and specifies a trait in a product or a process
  3. It helps in the optimization of resources in an organization
  4. It is the first step in proofing a system

16. What is the function of SMED?

Answers:

  1. To increase output and quality losses
  2. To reduce the changeover in a process
  3. To improve supplier relations
  4. All of the above

17. Who is known as the “father of scientific management”?

Answers:

  1. Henry Ford
  2. Shigeo Shingo
  3. Frank Gilbreth
  4. Frederick Winslow Taylor

18. Whom did the four locations on the large board of the Beer Game not represent?

Answers:

  1. The Factory
  2. The Distributor
  3. The Customer
  4. The Wholesaler

19. Which of the following is not a Lean Tool?

Answers:

  1. Standardization
  2. 5s-Cando
  3. Kanban
  4. Design of Experiments

20. Which of the following cannot be considered a waste?

Answers:

  1. Waiting time
  2. Overproduction
  3. Skilled plant workers
  4. Long process setup

21. What is the formula to calculate cycle time?

Answers:

  1. [Inventory (units)] / [Demand (units/time)]
  2. Available work time / Customer required volume
  3. Customer required volume / Available work time
  4. None of the above

22. What does Kanban mean?

Answers:

  1. A card-signal
  2. A go ahead signal
  3. A warning-signal
  4. None of the above

23. For any company to reach a ‘level 6’ sigma, there should only be _______ defects per million opportunities.

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2.2
  3. zero
  4. 3.4

24. What is the similarity between Lean and Six Sigma?

Answers:

  1. Both view waste as anything that does not produce value
  2. Both focus on process flow
  3. Both deliver higher quality of service with greater speed
  4. None of the above

25. Synchronous Flow Manufacturing plans inventory around:

Answers:

  1. Capacity Enhancing Resources
  2. Capacity Defining Resources
  3. Capacity Constraint Resources
  4. capacity Cutting resources

26. The data that does not need to be communicated in a Visual Factory environment are:

Answers:

  1. process metrics
  2. the name of the employees
  3. work instructions
  4. general plant information

27. What is also known as ‘law zero’ in Lean Six Sigma?

Answers:

  1. The Law of Waste
  2. The Law of the Market
  3. The Law of Focus
  4. The Law of Competition

28. Which of the following is not synonymous with Lean Manufacturing?

Answers:

  1. World Class Manufacturing
  2. Wasteless Manufacturing
  3. Continuous Flow Manufacturing
  4. Stockless Production

29. Who introduced the concept of mass production?

Answers:

  1. Frank Gilbreth
  2. Henry Ford
  3. Benjamin Franklin
  4. Frederick Winslow Taylor

30. What is Takt Time?

Answers:

  1. The time required to manufacture a product
  2. The consideration of customer demands and the time of the demands
  3. The time between the order and the delivery of the product
  4. None of the above

31. Which of the following is true with regard to Synchronized Flow Manufacturing?

Answers:

  1. It means coordination between plant workers and management
  2. It means processes and related decisions in the management must be synchronous with each other
  3. It improves the manufacturing system by setting off an increase in operating costs
  4. It means that all parts of the system must be continuous and in harmony with each other to avoid inventory pileups and stoppages.

32. A flexible process is:

Answers:

  1. an expensive and time consuming process because it requires change of equipment and tools for different customer demands
  2. one which can be reconfigured to give different output for different customer demands
  3. a ‘push’ system
  4. one that generates a level and consistent schedule

33. Which of these features does not describe the features of the Ford system?

Answers:

  1. Materials do not go from “dock to stock” but from dock to the factory floor
  2. Inventory binds capital and getting rid of inventory frees capital
  3. Pull system
  4. Reducing the cycle time also frees capital

34. Who among the following is involved in the implementation of Kaizen?

Answers:

  1. Top Management
  2. Suppliers
  3. Workers
  4. Customers

35. How many wastes are identified by Lean?

Answers:

  1. Only 1
  2. 10
  3. 8
  4. 100

36. What is not an advantage of SMED?

Answers:

  1. It helps to achieve consistency in the process
  2. It helps in continuous improvement of the process
  3. It increases elasticity in the process
  4. It is a measure of performance

37. Six Sigma processes are implemented by organizations to reduce __________.

Answers:

  1. defects in their processes
  2. costs of poor quality
  3. infrastructure defects
  4. process improvements
  5. employees

38. What is the main function of Lean?

Answers:

  1. Eliminating muda
  2. Increasing cycle time
  3. Downsizing personnel
  4. Improving process capability

39. According to the Theory of Constraints, ______________________.

Answers:

  1. every process or system has a constraint that acts as an impediment in attaining less of its goal
  2. the manufacturing process is enhanced by its capacity constraint resource
  3. every process or system has a constraint that acts as an impediment in attaining more of its goal
  4. time lost at a constraint can be gained back

40. _________ means to clear the work area.

Answers:

  1. Sort
  2. Set in Order
  3. Shine
  4. Standardize

41. What are the advantages of applying Lean to a supply chain?

Answers:

  1. It helps speed up the expansion and execution operations
  2. It turns the organization into a major customer of all the suppliers they have dealt with
  3. It helps to decrease the number of variables with which the production, quality and dependability has to cope with
  4. All of the above
  5. None of the above

42. State whether true or false:

Single unit manufacturing cannot be approximated to continuous flow manufacturing.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

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Upwork General Management

Kaizen Certification 2016

Published by:

1. The various kinds of Kanban include:

Answers:

  1. Supplier Kanban
  2. In-Factory Kanban
  3. Customer Kanban
  4. In-House Kanban
  5. All of the above

2. What does the 80/20 principle state?

Answers:

  1. 20% of the results are produced from 80% of the efforts
  2. 80% of the results are produced from 20% of the efforts
  3. 80% of the business defects are caused by only 20% of the errors
  4. 20% of the business defects are caused by 80% of the errors

3. A process decision program chart should be prepared before implementing any plan especially when:

Answers:

  1. the plan is sizeable and complex
  2. the proposed plan has to be finished on schedule
  3. there is high cost of failure
  4. when there low cost of failure
  5. All of the above

4. Which of these are the two main functions of Kaizen that an organization has to perform apart from the other goals like removal of waste and quality management?

Answers:

  1. Maintenance
  2. Cutting down on the workforce
  3. Improvement
  4. To increase the pressure on the employees

5. ________works well where short term changes and individual cultures need a modification.

Answers:

  1. Kaizen
  2. Lean
  3. BPR
  4. Six Sigma

6. Which of these is an intensive approach to carry out improvements in the process?

Answers:

  1. Kaizen blitz
  2. Kaizen workshop
  3. Kaizen event
  4. Gemba Kaizen

7. Which among the following is created in the following manner?

1.First, decide the importance of each criterion, assign numerical weights.
2.Then rate each option according to the intensity of the correlation with the criteria or according to how well it meets the criterion.
3. Finally, combine all ratings for a final ranking of the options numerically.

Answers:

  1. Interrelationship Diagraph
  2. Matrix Diagram
  3. Tree Diagrams
  4. Prioritization matrix

8. ________is a tool used for establishing a correlation between two sets of variables.

Answers:

  1. A scatter diagram
  2. A histogram
  3. A PDPC
  4. A matrix diagram

9. State whether True or False.

Kaizen also amends and upgrades product quality, communications, production competence and employee holding.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

10. Which of these is an example of the prevention cost?

Answers:

  1. Process audits
  2. Reinspection
  3. Product replacements
  4. Quality planning

11. State whether True or False.

Lean is made of a lot of ‘Kaizens’ put together.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

12. When different departments within an organization are compared, it is referred to as ___________.

Answers:

  1. brainstorming
  2. internal benchmarking
  3. pareto analysis
  4. kanban

13. State whether True or False.

A Kanban is a label or a card which is affixed on a container of a stock or lot and carries a message attached to it regarding the requirements needed in the workplace

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

14. Which of the following is not done by poka-yoke?

Answers:

  1. It easily recognizes flaws in a product and thwarts the manufacturing of incorrect parts
  2. It signals and specifies a trait in a product or a process
  3. It helps in the optimization of resources in an organization
  4. It is the first step in proofing a system

15. Which among the following tools makes use of symbols?

Answers:

  1. Matrix diagrams
  2. Control charts
  3. Flowcharts
  4. Check sheets

16. _________ means to clear the work area.

Answers:

  1. Sort
  2. Set in Order
  3. Shine
  4. Standardize

17. State whether True or False.

Just in Time Management believes in holding buffer stocks.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

18. The data that does not need to be communicated in a Visual Factory environment are:

Answers:

  1. process metrics
  2. the name of the employees
  3. work instructions
  4. general plant information

19. Which of the following is also known as the hierarchy diagram?

Answers:

  1. Tree diagram
  2. Affinity diagram
  3. PDPC
  4. Pareto chart

20. Kaizen is a tool applied in all _______ systems.

Answers:

  1. safety
  2. Lean
  3. Six Sigma
  4. PDCA Cycle

21. JIT manufacturing is best suited for regular and simple production systems because it is primarily a ___________ manufacturing process.

Answers:

  1. singular
  2. constant
  3. repetitive
  4. unchangeable

22. The Shewhart Cycle has been used in Lean, TQM (Total Quality Management) and _______________.

Answers:

  1. Six Sigma Programs
  2. MBA Programs
  3. Personal Trainer Programs
  4. Project Management Certification

23. Which among the following tools shows the ‘critical path’ of the ‘critical’ tasks; those tasks that must be completed on time to maintain the project’s deadline?

Answers:

  1. Affinity Diagrams
  2. Matrix Diagrams
  3. PDPC
  4. Arrow Diagrams

24. What does Kanban mean?

Answers:

  1. A card-signal
  2. A go ahead signal
  3. A warning-signal
  4. None of the above

25. State whether True or False.

Process oriented thinking answers ‘what’ before ‘how’.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

26. How many wastes are identified by Lean?

Answers:

  1. Only 1
  2. 10
  3. 8
  4. 100

27. Which among the following tools is used for problem solving?

Answers:

  1. Tree diagram
  2. Cause and effect diagram
  3. Pareto analysis
  4. Histogram

28. State whether True or False.

Kaizen is a function which when done correctly, modifies the workplace, reduces the three MU’S namely Muda, Muri and Mura and adds value to each system.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

29. What are the key principles of all the Kaizen Models?

Answers:

  1. Quality, effort, willingness to change, involvement of all employees and communication
  2. Consistency, stubborness and individual work
  3. Quantity, short term projects and competitiveness
  4. None of the above

30. ________is a process that is followed by understanding the Voice of the Customer (VOC).

Answers:

  1. Implementation of Kaizen
  2. 5S
  3. Development of a pull system
  4. Quality Function Deployment

31. State whether True or False

Result oriented thinking is preferred in the West.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

32. Which Kaizen model is also called Lean Production or Stockless production?

Answers:

  1. Just In Time Management
  2. Total Quality Management
  3. Total Production Management
  4. PDCA Cycle

33. When the performance of the organization is compared to organizations in the same industry but which cater to different markets other than the organization’s, it is known as _____.

Answers:

  1. competitive benchmarking
  2. generic benchmarking
  3. functional benchmarking
  4. internal benchmarking

34. ________are used as a graphic tool to display continuous occurrence of data values.

Answers:

  1. Pareto charts
  2. PDPC
  3. Matrix diagrams
  4. Histograms

35. What does SOP stand for?

Answers:

  1. Standard Operations Program
  2. Standard Operating Procedure
  3. Standard Operations Procedure
  4. Standardize Operating Procedures

36. Which of the following are the features of a Lean enterprise?

Answers:

  1. No waiting time, no stocks, reduction in the processing time, line balancing
  2. Institute training, institute leadership, drive out of fear, break down barriers between staff areas
  3. Plan, do, check, act
  4. None of the above

37. Which of the following techniques was created by Japanese anthropologist Jiro Kawakita?

Answers:

  1. Pareto Charts
  2. PDPC
  3. Kanban
  4. Affinity Diagrams

38. By whom was the word Lean coined?

Answers:

  1. Dr.D.Edwards Deming
  2. Massachusetts Institute of Technology (MIT) researchers
  3. JOseph Juran
  4. Masaaki Imai

39. State whether True or False.

‘Poka Yoke’ is the tools and methods used to prevent any defect during the production process.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

40. State whether True or False.

A guide acts as a link between the top management and the lower level employees.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

41. State whether True or False.

A check sheet is a diagrammatic representation of the nature and the flow of work in a process.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

42. __________helps to locate the wastes in the value chain.

Answers:

  1. QFD
  2. Value Stream Mapping
  3. A histogram
  4. Kanban

43. Which of the following cannot be considered a waste?

Answers:

  1. Waiting time
  2. Overproduction
  3. Skilled plant workers
  4. Long process setup

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