Category Archives: Upwork Miscellaneous Certifications

Upwork Miscellaneous Certifications

Photography Certification 2016

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1. What two processes had to be “discovered” before the art of Photography was truly born?

Answers:

  1. Optical
  2. Digital
  3. Chemical
  4. Studio

2. What does “Framing” an image refer to?

Answers:

  1. Following the rule of thirds
  2. Positioning of the subject in relation to other image elements
  3. Centering the subject in the frame
  4. Adding lights to the subject

3. Which lens would be considered “normal” on a 35mm film or equivalent full frame digital camera?

Answers:

  1. 85mm
  2. 50mm
  3. 24mm
  4. 105mm

4. If the proper exposure at ISO 800 is f5.6 at 1/250, the proper exposure at ISO 100 would be f5.6 at __________.

Answers:

  1. 1/2000
  2. 1/30
  3. 1/125
  4. 1/1000

5. Copal is a type of __________.

Answers:

  1. lens
  2. camera
  3. flash
  4. shutter

6. What does the guide number of a flash describe?

Answers:

  1. How many f stops it can be used with
  2. Its output with a set reflector
  3. How close it can be placed to the subject
  4. What shutter speeds it can be used with

7. A butterfly is a name for __________

Answers:

  1. an A clamp.
  2. a grid for a soft box.
  3. a light stand with a boom arm.
  4. a large diffusion frame and fabric.

8. The “circle of confusion” is a term related to determining the __________.

Answers:

  1. angle of view
  2. shutter speed setting
  3. maximum aperture
  4. depth of the field

9. Images saved as jpegs are saved with lossless compression.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

10. Which is the hardest type of light to achieve pleasing images in?

Answers:

  1. Early evening light
  2. Diffused light
  3. Midday light
  4. Early morning light

11. A reversal film is also referred to as a __________

Answers:

  1. negative film.
  2. slide or transparency film.
  3. black and white film.
  4. lithographic film.

12. A color that can’t be reproduced in the final image is called __________.

Answers:

  1. saturated
  2. high key
  3. process
  4. out of gamut

13. When using a flash on most cameras, using too high a shutter speed will result in_________.

Answers:

  1. stopping the action.
  2. overexposed images.
  3. dark cut off section.
  4. excess noise/grain.

14. Chromatic aberration is the inability of a lens to focus __________ on a single point.

Answers:

  1. gradations.
  2. edges.
  3. images.
  4. colors.

15. In a 300mm 2.8 lens, the number 2.8 refers to __________

Answers:

  1. the aperture range of the lens.
  2. the number of glass elements in the lens.
  3. the maximum aperture for the lens.
  4. the size of the filter thread for that lens.

16. A scrim is used to __________

Answers:

  1. lower the intensity of the light.
  2. concentrate the light.
  3. diffuse the light.
  4. reflect the light.

17. What does shallow depth of field mean?

Answers:

  1. That there is a limited area of focus in which to place items.
  2. That items are placed close together on the set.
  3. That all items are blurry, showing action.
  4. That items in both the background and foreground are in focus.

18. When shooting with a view camera at infinity, the bellows extension factor would be __________.

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 1.5
  3. 0
  4. .75

19. Another name for a medium format camera would be __________.

Answers:

  1. 6×6
  2. 120 mm
  3. 6×7
  4. Any of the three

20. Which lens is generally considered the best for taking high quality, natural looking portraits on a 35mm film or “full frame” digital camera?

Answers:

  1. 24mm f 2
  2. 300mm f2.8
  3. 85mm f1.8
  4. 35-70 f 2.8-4

21. On a zoom lens, 3.5-5.6 means it has __________

Answers:

  1. only two levels of zoom.
  2. a variable maximum aperture.
  3. it’s a prime lens.
  4. it stops down to 5.6.

22. Moire is caused when there is an interaction between __________ in a subject and the pixels that make up the digital image.

Answers:

  1. colors
  2. curves
  3. patterns
  4. skin tones

23. Using a longer lens will __________

Answers:

  1. make the subject smaller in the frame.
  2. exaggerate the features of the subject.
  3. compress the features of the subject.
  4. show more of the background in the frame.

24. A lighting ratio of 1:1 will produce an image that is __________.

Answers:

  1. dramatic
  2. dark
  3. flat
  4. bright

25. Vignetting is __________

Answers:

  1. low key lighting
  2. dark corners on an image.
  3. high key lighting
  4. soft edges on an image.

26. A “catchlight” is __________

Answers:

  1. a highlight in a subject’s eye.
  2. the main light.
  3. the fill light.
  4. red eye.

27. The smallest element in a digital image is ______.

Answers:

  1. a megabyte
  2. a pixel
  3. a grain
  4. a color array

28. Bit depth refers to __________

Answers:

  1. the value difference between adjacent pixels.
  2. the total number of pixels of a certain color that are in an image.
  3. the amount of color that can be rendered by averaging pixels.
  4. the amount of color that can be rendered by a single pixel.

29. The coatings on a lens are designed to increase image quality by __________

Answers:

  1. polarizing the light.
  2. reducing reflections from the surface of the glass.
  3. reducing the amount of blue light.
  4. redirecting the light in uniform wavelengths.

30. RAW means that when an image is saved to the camera’s memory, it is saved_____________

Answers:

  1. is saved as a JPEG and a TIFF.
  2. is saved as a TIFF with lossless compression.
  3. remains unprocessed by the camera software.
  4. is saved as a TIFF without compression.

31. The amount of energy a capacitor in a power pack can store is called watt seconds.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

32. A shutter speed of ½ of a second or longer should be used when hand holding a camera.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

33. If you change your shutter speed from 1/60 to 1/250, you need to change your aperture from f11 to _____ to keep your exposure the same.

Answers:

  1. f2.8
  2. f16
  3. f1.4
  4. f5.6

34. A lens that focuses light using concentric glass rings is called a/an __________ lens.

Answers:

  1. elemental
  2. compound
  3. linear
  4. fresnel

35. Images that are considered editorial can be described as __________

Answers:

  1. images that are edited.
  2. images that are not designed to sell a particular item or idea.
  3. images that need to be edited.
  4. images that will impress the editor.

36. Bracketing is a term used to describe __________

Answers:

  1. shooting multiple images to make a panorama.
  2. shooting multiple exposures of the same image.
  3. shooting multiple angles of a subject.
  4. None of the above.

37. What problem can you often have when a subject is backlit?

Answers:

  1. Underexposed subjects
  2. Blurry photos
  3. Oversaturated subjects
  4. Overexposed subjects

38. In architectural Photography it is important to __________

Answers:

  1. shoot the whole room.
  2. keep the building centered.
  3. keep verticals parallel.
  4. place people in the room.

39. In order to prevent red eye that often happens in flash photography, it is best to__________

Answers:

  1. move your light off the camera axis.
  2. shoot in a darkened room.
  3. use a ring light.
  4. set the flash to a lower power setting.

40. Each photodiode or pixel on a standard digital chip can record all three of the colors used in digital photography.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

41. A candid approach to wedding Photography can also be called the photojournalistic style.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

42. Kelvin degrees represent the __________ of a source of light.

Answers:

  1. color temperature
  2. light intensity
  3. watt second rating
  4. flash duration

43. Extension tubes will change __________

Answers:

  1. the number of apertures on a lens.
  2. the focal length of a lens.
  3. the number of glass elements a lens has.
  4. how close to a subject a lens can focus.

44. What do F-stops really refer to?

Answers:

  1. How much light you let into the camera
  2. How tightly you focus your camera
  3. Your use of action and how it affects your photos
  4. Nothing.

45. Computer monitors use both the RGB and CMYK color spaces.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

46. Sharpening settings used when processing images should vary depending on the subject.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

47. A gray card used to determine proper exposure reflects __________ of the light that strikes it?

Answers:

  1. 18%
  2. 6%
  3. 45%
  4. 63%

48. What effect does putting a grid or honeycomb on a light source have?

Answers:

  1. It diffuses the light.
  2. It intensifies the light.
  3. It narrows the spread of the light.
  4. It reflects the light.

49. What does the Rule of Thirds refers to?

Answers:

  1. Bracketing in 1/3rd stops
  2. Placement of elements in the image
  3. Distance of the subject from the background
  4. All of the above

50. Incident light meters work by reading the light that reflects off of a subject.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

51. The higher the f-stop number, the more the light allowed into the camera.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

52. What does saturated color refer to?

Answers:

  1. Hazy, dark colors
  2. Bright, brilliant colors
  3. Colors in blush tones
  4. Colors that are false and are brought on through the use of lights and filters

53. To get the most accurate colors, you should __________

Answers:

  1. set your white balance setting to auto.
  2. use a gray card or diffusion filter to set the correct balance.
  3. use the camera’s preset for a given light source.
  4. shoot only in one type of light.

54. When undiffused, a strobe light and a tungsten light will generally produce the same quality of light.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

55. Light travels in a straight line until it is __________

Answers:

  1. refracted.
  2. curved.
  3. reflected.
  4. refracted or curved.

56. Diffused light is created in a photo studio through the use of screens and large light sources.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

57. When working in digital editing software, sharpening is achieved by increasing the contrast between __________

Answers:

  1. adjacent pixels.
  2. the subject and the background.
  3. distinct colors.
  4. the background and the foreground.

58. What might you do to add drama and interest to an image taken in snow?

Answers:

  1. Find a source of bright color
  2. Move the subject into some shade
  3. Shoot mainly in the middle of the day
  4. Place your subject between the sun and yourself

59. The inverse square law is used in reference to __________

Answers:

  1. the depth of the field.
  2. shutter speed settings.
  3. the intensity of light that reaches a subject.
  4. aperture settings.

60. A prime lens is also called a __________.
Answers:

  1. zoom lens
  2. telephoto lens
  3. fixed focal length lens
  4. wide angle lens

61. The step pattern seen on an enlarged digital photographic image is called __________.

Answers:

  1. Vectorization
  2. Aliasing
  3. Axis lines
  4. Anti-aliased

62. What do polarizing filters help you to remove from or reduce in your photos?

Answers:

  1. Infrared light
  2. Dark shadows
  3. Reflections
  4. Sunlight

63. Flash or strobe is considered an artificial light.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

64. The features called swing and tilt are available on most high end 35mm and equivalent digital cameras.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

65. Fake walls used on Photography sets are often referred to as __________.

Answers:

  1. screens
  2. scrims
  3. gobos
  4. flats

66. A view camera differs from other cameras in that it can control __________.

Answers:

  1. perspective
  2. the depth of the field
  3. neither perspective or the depth of the field
  4. both perspective and the depth of the field

67. Where is the final image in a digital camera stored?

Answers:

  1. In the buffer
  2. In the acetate
  3. In the memory card or stick
  4. In the CCD

68. If an image is overexposed, which of the following would most likely be the cause?

Answers:

  1. Shooting at the aperture setting of 5.6
  2. Moving to a higher aperture number
  3. Shooting at a shutter speed of 1/125
  4. Moving to a lower aperture number

69. Images produced by digital cameras are __________.

Answers:

  1. vector based
  2. halftone
  3. duotone
  4. raster based

70. Using a larger aperture will result in _________

Answers:

  1. more depth of field.
  2. longer exposures.
  3. less depth of field.
  4. all of the above.

71. In lighting, modeling means you are __________

Answers:

  1. keeping the light close to the axis of the camera.
  2. turning the lights on and off to see the effect a light will have.
  3. creating a three dimensional effect or depth in your image.
  4. having your subject pose in a particular manner.

72. TTL stands for __________.

Answers:

  1. Table Top Lighting
  2. Through the Lens
  3. Traditional Tungsten Lighting
  4. Temporary Time Lag

73. The word noise is to digital Photography as __________ is to a film.

Answers:

  1. hue
  2. grain
  3. pixel
  4. saturation

74. Another name for a key light is __________.

Answers:

  1. hot light
  2. back light
  3. main light
  4. ring light

75. Aerial perspective is __________

Answers:

  1. shooting from a high vantage point
  2. shooting up from a low vantage point.
  3. the effect of atmosphere on distant subjects.
  4. shooting from a plane.

76. Digital Photography has eliminated the need to get a good exposure.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

77. Banding or posterization in a digital image is caused when there isn’t enough information to reproduce different shades of color.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

 

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Upwork Miscellaneous Certifications

Mechanical IQ Test 2016

Published by:

1. Consider the diagram above. If the box that contains the vase and flower is moved in the direction of the arrow and is then stopped suddenly, which way will the vase fall?

Answers:

  1. P
  2. Q
  3. In a direction other than P or Q

2. A bus, a jeep, a scooter, and a bicycle are thrown off a mountain at an altitude of 5000 meters. All four items are thrown at the same time, from the same height, with the same velocity, and under the same atmospheric pressure and temperature. The bus weighs the most, followed in descending order of weight by the jeep, the scooter, and the bicycle. Which of the four items will be the last to hit the ground?

Answers:

  1. The bus
  2. The scooter
  3. The jeep
  4. The bicycle

3. Consider the first diagram above. Which of the given choices (1 to 4) will correctly complete the sequence?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

4. Consider the diagram above. If the drive wheel rotates in a clockwise direction, in which direction will the rod’s speed of movement be faster?

Answers:

  1. While moving toward the right side
  2. While moving toward the left side
  3. The speed of movement will be the same in both directions.

5. If drive wheel A in the above diagram rotates in a clockwise direction, then drive wheel B will __________________.

Answers:

  1. rotate faster in a clockwise direction
  2. rotate slower in a counterclockwise direction
  3. rotate slower in a clockwise direction
  4. rotate faster in a counterclockwise direction

6. Consider the first diagram above. Which of the given choices (1 to 4) would correctly fill the missing space?

Answers:

  1. 3
  2. 4
  3. 2
  4. 1

7. The diagram above shows four flags on four flag posts secured in four weighted bases. The construction of the flags and the flag posts in all the four cases is the same. Analyze the given weights and calculate which flag is the easiest to balance on the flag post.

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 3
  3. 2
  4. 4

8. In the above diagram, the weight of man A is 250 lbs and the weight of man B is 200 lbs. Which man must exert more effort in order to hold the 100 lb load?

Answers:

  1. Man A
  2. Man B
  3. Both men must exert the same effort.

9. Which of the given pictures (1 to 4) above will result in Cube A once folded?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

10. The diagram above represents a tractor. Which wheel of the tractor rotates faster?

Answers:

  1. P
  2. Q
  3. Both rotate at the same speed.

11. In the first diagram above, a force of 15 lbs compresses springs arranged in a linear series of 24 cm each. If the same force of 15 lbs is applied to parallel springs, the springs will be compressed by _____________________.

Answers:

  1. 30 cm
  2. 75 cm
  3. 15 cm
  4. 4 cm

12. Refer to the diagram of a box above. If the force of friction is greater than the force applied in the given direction, then in which direction will the box move?

Answers:

  1. In the direction of the applied force
  2. In the direction away from the applied force
  3. The box will not move.
  4. In an upward direction

13. If pulley A in the above diagram moves in a clockwise direction, which weight will it move in an upward direction?

Answers:

  1. The 60-lb weight
  2. The 50-lb weight
  3. Both weights
  4. Neither weight

14. Consider the diagram above. If the cam (projecting part of a rotating wheel or shaft that strikes a lever at one or more points on its circular path) rotates in a counterclockwise direction, the bird will _______________________.

Answers:

  1. move forward
  2. rotate
  3. move backward
  4. not move at all

15. In the above diagram of a power-supplying pulley system, which pulley will rotate the fastest?

Answers:

  1. 3
  2. 2
  3. 4
  4. 1

16. The letters P, Q, R, and S represent four type of tires.

Tire P is 10 inches wide.
Tire Q is 20 inches wide.
Tire R is 30 inches wide.
Tire S is 40 inches wide.

These tires are fitted in pairs on a motorcycle. Consider that all four tire types are manufactured of the same material, have the same air pressure and radius, and are fitted to the same motorcycle. The motorcycle is driven on the same road every time the tires are changed. Given this information, which tire, when fitted in pairs on a motorcycle, will help prevent high fuel consumption?

Answers:

  1. Tire P
  2. Tire Q
  3. Tire R
  4. Tire S

17. Consider the first diagram above. Which of the given choices (1 to 5) will correctly complete the sequence?

Answers:

  1. 4
  2. 1
  3. 3
  4. 2
  5. 5

18. Which arrow in the above diagram will have the maximum mechanical advantage (ratio of load lifted to effort applied) of lifting the load of 30 lbs most efficiently?

Answers:

  1. P
  2. Q
  3. R
  4. S

19. If each arrow in the above diagram represents an equal number of students moving on a path, then which path is the most crowded?

Answers:

  1. X
  2. V
  3. Y
  4. Z

20. If gear A in the above diagram rotates at a speed of 20 RPM in a clockwise direction, then the direction of rotation and speed of gear F will be ___________________.

Answers:

  1. clockwise at 20 RPM
  2. counterclockwise at 20 RPM
  3. clockwise at 10 RPM
  4. counterclockwise at 10 RPM

21. Given the information in the above diagram,how much force is required at Point C in order to lift the weight at Point B?

Answers:

  1. 100 lbs
  2. 50 lbs
  3. 25 lbs
  4. 30 lbs

22. There are two slides P and Q which slide in the guide-ways A, B, C and D. P slides from A to C and vice versa. Q slides from D to B and vice versa. The clockwise rotating device R is attached to the two slides P and Q in such a way that the rotary motion R is converted to the reciprocating motion of the two slides.
When the slide Q reaches the centre and slide P reaches the top i.e. point A as shown in the figure the device R faces towards C. The slides travel half the distance in their respective guide-ways to make the rotating device face any of the four points A, B, C and D.
If the device R faces towards Point D, then what shall be the position of the slide P.

Answers:

  1. Point A
  2. Point B
  3. Point C
  4. Point D
  5. At the centre

23. In the above diagram, a load of 100 lbs is kept on four different measuring scales at different positions. Which scale will show the maximum deflection?

Answers:

  1. 3
  2. 2
  3. 1
  4. 4

24. A person weighing 200 lbs jumps from a ten-story building carrying a load of 100 lbs. How much load will the person experience while falling?

Answers:

  1. 9.8 lbs
  2. 100 lbs
  3. 0 lbs
  4. 300 lbs

25. Given the information in the above diagram, how much weight must be placed at point B in order to balance the lever?

Answers:

  1. 10 lbs
  2. 20 lbs
  3. 15 lbs
  4. 40 lbs

26. Which of the above groups of shapes can be assembled to make shape A? The direction of the shapes can be changed as necessary.

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

27. The pendulums of each wall clock in the above diagram weigh the same. If the clocks strike 12 and the pendulums start swinging, which pendulum will complete one full stroke in the shortest amount of time?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

28. A bolt or a nut is tightened by turning it in a clockwise direction and loosened by turning it counterclockwise. What type of threads do bolts or nuts have?

Answers:

  1. Right-handed threads
  2. Left-handed threads

29. Consider the first diagram above. Which of the given choices (1 to 4) would correctly fill the missing space?

Answers:

  1. 4
  2. 3
  3. 2
  4. 1

30. The above diagram shows five boxes (A, B, C, D, and E) attached to each another. The area of each box is as follows:

A- 300 square meters
B- 250 square meters
C- 100 square meters
D- 150 square meters
E- 270 square meters

If the forces P and Q are applied in the directions represented by the arrows, which box will experience the most amount of stress?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. E

31. Which of the above cubes will be formed when Picture A is folded?

Answers:

  1. 4
  2. 2
  3. 1
  4. 3

32. If gear A in the above diagram rotates in a clockwise direction, then in which direction does the slide Q move?

Answers:

  1. to the left
  2. to the right
  3. It does not move.

33. From which of the beakers shown in the diagram above will water flow out faster?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. Water will flow out at the same speed from each beaker.

34. With which of the screwdrivers in the diagram above will it be possible to unscrew the screw most efficiently such that equal amount of force is exerted on the handle of the screwdriver.

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3

35. The above diagram shows the trajectories of four balls 1, 2, 3, 4 thrown from point O. If all four balls are thrown with equal force and travel with the same velocity but in different directions, which ball will fall farthest from point O. Considering that the wind resistance is constant. The maximum height of the trajectory of the balls from the ground level is also indicated?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

36. Consider the first diagram above. Which of the given choices (1 to 4) will correctly complete the sequence of shapes?

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 1
  3. 4
  4. 3

37. Use your mechanical measurement skills to visually judge which combination of hooks in the above diagram will hold the board A properly on board B.

Answers:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 4
  3. 1 and 4
  4. 2 and 5

38. Four blocks of steel all having equal weight and equal volume, but different surface areas, are thrown in a pond 50 meters deep. The surface area of the first block is 100 square meters, the second block is 200 square meters, the third block is 300 square meters, and the fourth block is 400 square meters. Which block will require the most time to reach the bottom of the pond?

Answers:

  1. The first block
  2. The second block
  3. The third block
  4. The fourth block
  5. All four blocks will require the same amount of time.

39. What is the name of a flat shape comprised of eight corners and eight straight edges?

Answers:

  1. Octagon
  2. Hexagon
  3. Pentagon
  4. Rectangle

40. In the above diagram, a circular portion of the 20 cm radius is cut from a rectangular steel sheet of 50 cm x 60 cm. What is the area of the remaining portion of the sheet?

Answers:

  1. 1644 cm2
  2. 1744 cm2
  3. 1544 cm2
  4. 1444 cm2

41. Which of the above battery circuit diagram shows batteries coupled in series?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. None of the above

42. Which of the two pulley systems in the given diagram will require more force to lift the load?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. Both require the same force.

43. The diagram above shows four slides made of the same material. The same kind of ball is thrown down each slide at the same time and at the same velocity. From which slide will the ball reach the ground the fastest?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

44. Given the information in the above diagram,how much weight must be placed at point D in order to balance the lever?

Answers:

  1. 100lbs
  2. 200lbs
  3. 160lbs
  4. 260lbs

45. Which of the above Venn diagrams shows the proper relationship between cutting tools, tools made of high-speed steel, and the tool room?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

46. When a car turns left, what is the speed of rotation of the rear wheels?

Answers:

  1. The wheel on the left side rotates faster than the wheel on the right side.
  2. Both rear wheels rotate at the same speed.
  3. The rear wheel on the right side rotates faster than the rear wheel on the left side.

47. Calculate the approximate value of the angle in the above diagram.

Answers:

  1. 90º
  2. 45º
  3. 120º
  4. 180º

48. If drive wheel A in the above diagram rotates in a clockwise direction, then drive wheel B will _______________.

Answers:

  1. rotate in a counterclockwise direction at a faster speed
  2. rotate in a clockwise direction at a slower speed
  3. rotate in a counterclockwise direction at the same speed
  4. rotate in a clockwise direction at the same speed

1,133 total views, 4 views today

Upwork Miscellaneous Certifications

Mechanical Engineering Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which among the following is also known as croning process in which cast parts are produced with dimensional tolerances as low as ±0.2 millimeters.

Answers:

  1. Centrifugal casting
  2. Investment casting
  3. Slush casting
  4. Shell casting

2. Calculate the moment of a 20 newtons force at 10 meters perpendicular distance from the point about which the moment is required.

Answers:

  1. 200 newton meters
  2. 100 newton meters
  3. 150 newton meters
  4. 250 newton meters

3. Which of the following devices is used for atomizing and vaporizing the fuel before mixing it with air in varying proportions?

Answers:

  1. Spark plug
  2. Carburetor
  3. Flywheel
  4. Governor

4. If Q is energy, W is external work done and E is internal energy then, According to the first law of thermodynamics, energy Q is equal to:

Answers:

  1. Q = W + E
  2. Q = W – E
  3. Q = W / E
  4. Q = W x E

5. Which branch of engineering mechanics deals with the force which acts upon bodies at rest?

Answers:

  1. Statics
  2. Dynamics
  3. Kinetics
  4. Kinematics

6. Calculate the centrifugal force for a body moving in a circular path, given that the mass of the body is 10 kilogram, its angular velocity is 10 radians per second and the radius of the circular path is 10 meters.

Answers:

  1. 30000 newtons
  2. 10000 newtons
  3. 20000 newtons
  4. 15000 newtons

7. Which among the following is the correct range of value for the included angle of a V-belt?

Answers:

  1. 10º to 20º
  2. 30º to 40º
  3. 70º to 80º
  4. 100º to 120º

8. Which among the following is a spring controlled governor?

Answers:

  1. Watt governor
  2. Porter governor
  3. Hartnell governor

9. Which among the following plant layout is known as ‘functional layout’ or ‘analytical layout’?

Answers:

  1. Process layout
  2. Product layout
  3. Fixed position layout

10. Which among the following types of chips is usually produced during the machining of brittle materials?

Answers:

  1. Discontinuous chips
  2. Continuous chips with no built up edges
  3. Continuous chips with built up edges

11. According to the Boyle’s law:

Answers:

  1. pressure is directly proportional to volume.
  2. pressure is inversely proportional to volume.
  3. temperature is directly proportional to volume.
  4. temperature is inversely proportional to volume.

12. The compression ratio of a diesel engine is:

Answers:

  1. 10 to 15
  2. 15 to 25
  3. 40 to 50
  4. 50 to 60

13. Calculate the specific heat of a gas at constant volume, given that the mass of the gas is 100 kilograms, the initial temperature of the gas is 20 kelvins and the final temperature of the gas is 50 kelvins. The total heat supplied to the gas is 105 kilojoules.

Answers:

  1. 30 joules per kg per kelvin
  2. 35 joules per kg per kelvin
  3. 40 joules per kg per kelvin
  4. 45 joules per kg per kelvin

14. The petrol engine works on ___________.

Answers:

  1. Rankine cycle
  2. Otto cycle
  3. Diesel cycle

15. In which, among the following systems, does no heat or work cross its boundary?

Answers:

  1. Closed system
  2. Isolated system
  3. Open system

16. A couple of two bodies produces which type of motion?

Answers:

  1. Rotational motion
  2. Translatory motion
  3. Rotational and translatory motion

17. Up to which point in a stress-strain curve is Hooke’s law applicable?

Answers:

  1. Yield point
  2. Elastic limit
  3. Plastic limit
  4. Breaking point

18. A solar collector receiving solar radiation at the rate of 0.6 kW/m2 transforms it into the internal energy of a fluid at an overall efficiency of 50%. The fluid heated to 350 K is used to run a heat engine which rejects heat at 313 K. If the heat engine is to deliver 2.5 kW power, the minimum area (in sq. meters) of the solar collector required would be:

Answers:

  1. 8.33
  2. 16.66
  3. 39.68
  4. 79.36

19. In which type of welding is a mixture of Iron oxide and Aluminum used?

Answers:

  1. Metal inert gas welding
  2. Tungsten inert gas welding
  3. Submerged arc welding
  4. Thermit welding
  5. Stud arc welding

20. The forces which meet at one point but whose lines of action lie on different points are known as ______________.

Answers:

  1. Co-planar concurrent forces
  2. Co-planar non-concurrent forces
  3. Non co-planar concurrent forces
  4. Non co-planar non-concurrent forces

21. Calculate the value of crippling load of a specimen, given that the crushing stress is 160 newtons per square meter, cross sectional area is 80 square millimeters, Rankine’s constant is 1, length of column is 1 millimeter and the value of radius of gyration is also 1.

Answers:

  1. 7000
  2. 6400
  3. 8000
  4. 8500

22. How many revolutions of crankshaft does it take to complete one working cycle in a four stroke engine?

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 8

23. Which type of thread is used in bench vices in manufacturing units?

Answers:

  1. Acme thread
  2. Buttress thread
  3. Knuckle thread
  4. Square thread

24. Which type of sand is used on the face of the pattern before molding?

Answers:

  1. Parting sand
  2. Core sand
  3. Loam sand
  4. Floor sand
  5. Backing sand

25. In which, among the following governing methods, is a control valve fitted in the fuel delivery pipe in order to control the quantity of fuel mixed in the charge?

Answers:

  1. Hit and miss governing
  2. Qualitative governing
  3. Quantitative governing
  4. Combination system of governing

26. In which among the following wage incentive plans is the worker paid according to the number of units of work produced by him?

Answers:

  1. Straight piece work system
  2. Halsey plan
  3. Rowan plan
  4. Gantt plan

27. In which, among the following engine strokes, is the firing of the vaporized fuel carried out?

Answers:

  1. suction stroke
  2. expansion stroke
  3. exhaust stroke
  4. compression stroke

28. The process to improve the fatigue resistance in metals by producing compressive stresses in its surface is known as ________.

Answers:

  1. cold peening
  2. cold bending
  3. cold spinning
  4. cold extrusion

29. Due to which of the following properties does molding sand adhere to the sides of the molding box?

Answers:

  1. Permeability
  2. Plasticity
  3. Adhesiveness
  4. Cohesiveness

30. Calculate the number of joints in a chain if the number of links is 5.

Answers:

  1. 3.5
  2. 4.5
  3. 5.5
  4. 6.5

31. Calculate the strain in a material whose original length before undergoing strain is 10 centimeters and the length after undergoing strain is 100 centimeters.

Answers:

  1. 9
  2. 110
  3. 90
  4. 0.1

32. What is the significance of the above given symbol in work study technique?

Answers:

  1. Inspection of materials
  2. Transport of materials
  3. Storage of materials
  4. Operation of materials

33. In which, among the following scavenging methods, are the inlet and the outlet ports situated on the same side of the engine cylinder?

Answers:

  1. Loop scavenging method
  2. Uniflow scavenging method
  3. Crossflow scavenging method

34. The resultant of two forces A and B is Q. If A is doubled and the new resultant is perpendicular to A, then:

Answers:

  1. A=B
  2. A=Q
  3. A=2Q
  4. B/2=Q

35. Calculate the mechanical efficiency of an engine whose brake power is 20 watts and indicated power is 40 watts.

Answers:

  1. 40%
  2. 50%
  3. 60%
  4. 70%

36. ___________ is an opening through the cope.

Answers:

  1. Gate
  2. Riser
  3. Core
  4. Refractory

37. If the motion between a pair takes place in more than one direction, then this kind of motion is termed as ___________.

Answers:

  1. completely constrained motion
  2. incompletely constrained motion
  3. successfully constrained motion

38. The work measurement technique is concerned with:

Answers:

  1. the time during which maximum production is done.
  2. the time during which no production is done.
  3. the processes to simplify the production work.
  4. the development of economical methods of carrying out production work.

39. What is the value of universal gas constant in SI units?

Answers:

  1. 8.314 joules per kilogram mole kelvin
  2. 83.14 joules per kilogram mole kelvin
  3. 831.4 joules per kilogram mole kelvin
  4. 8314 joules per kilogram mole kelvin

40. A process in which gas is heated such that the product of its pressure and volume remains constant is known as _______.

Answers:

  1. isochoric process
  2. isobaric process
  3. isothermal process
  4. hyperbolic process

41. Which type of welding is obtained if there is an excess of acetylene?

Answers:

  1. Neutral flame
  2. Oxidizing flame
  3. Reducing flame

42. In a simple harmonic motion, number of cycles produced per second is known as:

Answers:

  1. velocity.
  2. acceleration.
  3. frequency.
  4. amplitude.
  5. periodic time.

43. Calculate the frictional power of an engine if the indicated power is 10 watts and the brake power is 5 watts.

Answers:

  1. 5 watts
  2. 2 watts
  3. 0.5 watts
  4. 15 watts

44. The allowance provided on patterns which are used for castings in which contraction is not uniform is known as _________.

Answers:

  1. shaking allowance
  2. camber allowance
  3. machining allowance
  4. contraction allowance
  5. draft allowance

45. If we have to choose a grinding wheel having the least hardness, which grade of grinding wheel should be chosen?

Answers:

  1. Grade A to H
  2. Grade I to P
  3. Grade Q to Z

46. Calculate the torque for a solid shaft having a radius of 10 millimeters and torsional shear stress of 112 newtons per square millimeter.

Answers:

  1. 175000 newton millimeters
  2. 175840 newton millimeters
  3. 174840 newton millimeters
  4. 176800 newton millimeters

47. _____________ is the operation of enlarging a previously drilled hole.

Answers:

  1. Reaming
  2. Tapping
  3. Boring
  4. Lapping

48. Two springs having stiffness 5 and 10 respectively are connected in series. Calculate the combined stiffness of the two springs.

Answers:

  1. 20/3
  2. 30/4
  3. 10/3
  4. 15/2

49. What is the value of entropy of a substance at absolute zero temperature?

Answers:

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. -1

50. If M – bending moment, I – moment of inertia, E – young’s modulus of elasticity and R – radius of curvature then, which of the following is the correct bending equation for a beam?

Answers:

  1. M/I = R/E
  2. I/M = R/E
  3. M/I = E/R

51. The milling operation of producing surfaces of irregular shape is known as:

Answers:

  1. Plain milling
  2. Side milling
  3. End milling
  4. Form milling
  5. Gang milling

52. What effect does the grain size of a cutting tool have on the tool life?

Answers:

  1. Tool life increases
  2. Tool life decreases
  3. Grain size has no effect on tool life

53. Within which angular range is the shear stress maximum if a body is subjected to tensile stress in one plane?

Answers:

  1. 45º and 135º
  2. 50º and 175º
  3. 40º and 130º
  4. 55º and 180º

54. _______________ is a beam having its end portion extended beyond the support.

Answers:

  1. Cantilever beam
  2. Simply supported beam
  3. Overhanging beam
  4. Continuous beam

55. ___________ is that type of motion in which there is reduction in amplitude over every cycle of vibration.

Answers:

  1. Forced vibration
  2. Damped vibration
  3. Longitudinal vibration
  4. Transverse vibration

56. Calculate the circular pitch of a gear whose pitch circle diameter is 12.74 millimeters and the number of teeths on gear wheel are 20.

Answers:

  1. 2 millimeters
  2. 3 millimeters
  3. 4 millimeters
  4. 5 millimeters

57. The shortest time in which an activity can be completed is known as:

Answers:

  1. optimistic time
  2. most likely time
  3. pessimistic time

58. Which type of organization among the following has a straight flow of authority within a single unit?

Answers:

  1. Line organization
  2. Functional organization
  3. Line and staff organization
  4. Line, staff and functional organization

59. The smallest circle drawn to the cam profile is known as ________.

Answers:

  1. base circle
  2. pitch circle
  3. prime circle

60. Calculate the coefficient of friction of a body whose limiting friction of which is 10 newtons and the value of the normal reaction is 5.

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 50
  3. 0.5
  4. 15

61. Calculate the angular velocity of a body whose rotations per minute is 60.

Answers:

  1. 6 radians per second
  2. 8 radians per second
  3. 7.60 radians per second
  4. 5.68 radians per second

62. In a programmed evaluation and review technique, if the slack of an activity is negative, then what can be stated for the project completion?

Answers:

  1. Completion of the project is not delayed.
  2. Additional resources are required to complete the project in time.
  3. Completion of the project is delayed.

63. __________ is the angle made by the face of the tool and the parallel plane to the base of the cutting tool.
Answers:

  1. Lip angle
  2. Rake angle
  3. Side relief angle
  4. End relief angle

64. What type of gear is used to transmit power at constant velocity ratio between two shafts the axes of which intersect at an angle?

Answers:

  1. Helical gear
  2. Bevel gear
  3. Worm gear
  4. Rack and pinion gear

65. Which technique among the following is known as ‘time phase of loading’.

Answers:

  1. routing
  2. scheduling
  3. dispatching

66. The process of heating the metal to the plastic state followed by application of pressure to form the molten metal into desired shape is known as ________.

Answers:

  1. hot forging
  2. hot piercing
  3. hot drawing
  4. hot extrusion

67. The radius of a shaft is 5 millimeters. The shear stress on that shaft is 50 newtons per square millimeter and the polar moment of inertia is 10 (millimeters)4. Calculate the twisting moment on that shaft.

Answers:

  1. 100 newton millimeters
  2. 200 newton millimeters
  3. 150 newton millimeters
  4. 250 newton millimeters

68. If L is the length of the journal and d is the diameter of the journal then, in a square bearing:

Answers:

  1. L = d
  2. L ≠ d
  3. L + d = 1
  4. L = 1 + d

69. The bolt and nut is an example of a:

Answers:

  1. turning pair
  2. rolling pair
  3. screw pair
  4. spherical pair

70. In involute gears the pressure angle __________ as the gear engages or disengages.

Answers:

  1. decreases
  2. increases
  3. remains constant

71. The broaching operation in which the workpiece moves across the stationary tool is known as _______.

Answers:

  1. surface broaching
  2. continuous broaching
  3. pull broaching
  4. push broaching

72. Calculate the coefficient of friction of a body whose limiting friction is 10 newtons and the value of the normal reaction is 5.

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 50
  3. 0.5
  4. 15

73. The ability of a material to embed small particles of dust, grit etc. is known as ___________.

Answers:

  1. conformability
  2. bondability
  3. embeddability
  4. compressibility

74. A jig is a device which is used to:

Answers:

  1. hold a workpiece.
  2. hold and locate a workpiece.
  3. hold and locate a workpiece as well as guide and control cutting tools.
  4. hold a workpiece as well as guide and control cutting tools.

75. What is the value of the point angle of a twist drill?

Answers:

  1. 118º
  2. 150º
  3. 106º
  4. 100º

76. Calculate the economic order quantity of a plant in which the total raw material utilized per year is 1600 tonnes, procurement cost per order is $1000 and the annual inventory carrying cost per item is $10.

Answers:

  1. 428.68
  2. 565.68
  3. 636.68
  4. 700.68

2,323 total views, 10 views today

Upwork Miscellaneous Certifications

Data Sufficiency Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which one of the following operations does the operator # represent: addition, subtraction, multiplication or division?

(1)For all S, 10 # S = S # 10
(2)For all S, 10S # 3S = 30S2

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

2. How is Mary related to Jack?
1)Peter, the husband of Mary’s only sister Rosy is a doctor.

2)Jack is Peter’s sister-in-law’s husband.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

3. In the figure above, is PQ parallel to RS?
1)Angle PRS and angle QSR are equal.

2)PR = QS

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

4. In a fair, a lady bought a purse and a pair of sandals. Which item did she buy at a lower price?

1)The lady bought the purse at a 15% discount.
2)She bought the sandals at a 25% discount.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

5. Does Peter have more coins in his pocket than Sam?

1)Mary has more coins in her pocket than Sam.
2)Peter has less coins in his pocket than Mary.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

6. What is the value of A, if A and B are two distinct integers and their difference is 50?

1)A is an even integer.
2)A < B

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

7. Which employee got a bigger salary raise in absolute terms?

1)Jack got a 10% raise.
2)Mark got a 25% raise.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

8. If the average of the marks obtained by three students of a class is 75, are the minimum marks obtained less than 50?

1)The highest marks obtained are 90.
2)One student has scored more than 75 marks.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

9. If x and y are both positive integers, how much greater is x than y?

Statement (1): x + y = 20
Statement (2): x = y2

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement is sufficient by itself to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

10. What is the area of the circle?

1)The radius of the circle is 5.
2)The circumference of the circle is 5π.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

11. Students in a school speak only English or only French or both the languages. How many students speak only English?

1)1/5th of the students in the school speak both English and French.
2)200 students in the school speak only French.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

12. Is w an integer?

1)3w is an odd number.
2)2w is an even number.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

13. Suppose 7A + 8B = 11. What is the value of B?

1)A is prime.
2)B = -5A

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

14. Is P > 0?

Statement (1): P2 > 0
Statement (2): P3 > 0

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

15. Which company reported to be the largest exporter of cotton in the year 2002?

1)Company A reported that its cotton consumption in the year 2002 increased by 10%.
2)Company B reported that its cotton consumption in the year 2002 increased by 20%.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

16. If p and q do not equal 0, is p/q an integer?

1)p is prime.
2)q is even.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

17. In the figure above, what is the value of AC?

1)Angle CBA = 900
2)CB + BA = 14

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

18. What is the value of x?

1)x2=4
2)x<0

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

19. What is the duration of the solar eclipse?

1)A solar eclipse begins at 10:00 a.m. on Monday and ends at 10:00 a.m. on Sunday.
2)The solar eclipse is 6 days long.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

20. What was the percentage decrease of a company’s production between 1st December and 31st December 2008?

1)The production reduced by $2000 in value during December 2008.
2)The production reduced by 15% from 2nd December 2008 to 20th December 2008.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

21. What is the value of P?

1)P2 – 1 = 0
2)P = (10)0

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

22. What is the fifth term in the sequence S?

1)The seventh term of S is 5.
2)The sixth term of S is four times the fifth, and the seventh term is eight times the sixth.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

23. Three persons have a combined weight of 500 pounds. What is the weight of the heaviest person?

1)One person weighs 150 pounds.
2)One person weighs 250 pounds.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

24. What percentage of the items inspected in a unit are defective?

(1)The total production of items in the unit is 300.
(2)The ratio of the defective items to the non defective items is 12:35.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

25. How many marbles are kept in a container?

1)If 5 marbles are taken out from the container, the number of marbles remaining in the container will be less than 15.
2)If 8 more marbles are put into the container, the total number of marbles in the container will rise to more than 20.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

26. What is the value of P?

1. P + 20 = 100
2. P3 = 45

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

27. In the triangle ABD, BD is a straight line. What is the measure of angle CAB?

1)x = 800
2)y = 400

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

28. What is the value of 3×2 + 2x – 1?

1) x2 + 2x = 0
2) x = -2

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

29. How many cows in a herd of 50 cattle are black?

1)There are 12 oxen in the herd.
2)Forty two percent of the animals are black.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

30. What is the value of even integers?

(1)3 < a < 21
(2)3√a is also an even integer.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

31. If P is a positive number, what is 30% of P?

(1)50% of (50 / P) is less than 10.
(2)10% of (50 x P) is 225.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

32. Is xy > 0 ?

1)x/y < 0
2)x + y < 0

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

33. If P is a cube of an integer and is between 5 and 100, what is the value of P?

1)P is odd.
2)P is the square of an integer.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

34. What is the sum of A, B and C?

(1)A, B and C are odd numbers.
(2)The average of A, B and C is 5.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

35. Is A greater than 0?

1)A3 is less than 0.
2)10A = -10

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

36. How many people in a city go to the office by car?

1)The total population of the city is 125000.
2)The total number of people going to the office by bus and train is1/3rd of the total population.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

37. Is a > b?

1)a/3 > b/3
2)-a + c < -b + c

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

38. Is the product of A and B smaller than 100?

1)The sum of A and B is smaller than 100.
2)Both the numbers are smaller than 10.

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

39. What is the area of the square ABCD?

1)AB=10 yards
2)Diagonal BD = √128

Answers:

  1. Statement (1) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (2) alone is not.
  2. Statement (2) alone is sufficient to answer the question, but statement (1) alone is not.
  3. Both statements together are sufficient to answer the question, but neither statement alone is sufficient.
  4. Either statement by itself is sufficient to answer the question.
  5. Even both the statements together are not sufficient to answer the question.

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Upwork Miscellaneous Certifications

Data Interpretation Test 2016

Published by:

1. The table above shows the number of stationery items used by different sections of a class over a period of time.

What is the ratio of pens used by the last three sections of the class to the pens used by the first three sections of the class?

Answers:

  1. 15:22
  2. 13:24
  3. 16:25
  4. 14:23

2. What is the difference between the market shares of BMW and Ferrari, if the total market share of cars is $200 million?

Answers:

  1. $76 million
  2. 20%
  3. $4 million
  4. 80%
  5. 82%

3. If the total market share of cars is $200 million, what is the contribution of Ford?

 

Answers:

  1. $50 million
  2. $48 million
  3. $49 million
  4. $51 million

4. What is the difference between the market shares of BMW and Ferrari?

Answers:

  1. $76 million
  2. 20%
  3. $4 million
  4. 80%
  5. 82%

5. If a Ford car is 20% costlier than a BMW car, then which of the two cars has the greater volume sale of the cars?

Answers:

  1. Ford
  2. BMW
  3. Volume sale of both the cars is equal.
  4. Cannot be determined.

6. The table above shows the production for three types of fruit over a four month period. Use this information to answer the following question.What is the percentage of mangoes produced in four months?

Answers:

  1. 31.11%
  2. 41.11%
  3. 51.11%
  4. 21.11%

7. The table above shows the production for three types of fruit over a four month period. Use this information to answer the following question.

What is the ratio of the production of oranges to mangoes produced in the four months?

Answers:

  1. 31:28
  2. 28:31
  3. 27:23
  4. 23:27
  5. 30:31

8. The table above shows the production of three types of fruit over a four month period. Use this information to answer the following question.

Which month shows the maximum increase in total production of all three fruits over the production of all the three fruits produced in the previous month?

Answers:

  1. January
  2. February
  3. March
  4. April

9. In an organization, there are three departments: Production, Accounts and Sales. The above graph shows numerical data of the number of absent workers for the months January till May, for the respective departments.

The total numbers of workers in the three departments (Production, Accounts and Sales) are 70, 20 and 50 respectively.

Which department has the highest absenteeism in the month of May?

Answers:

  1. Accounts
  2. Production
  3. Sales

10. The graph depicts the impact of giving three different grades of salary on the absenteeism of workers from three different departments in an organization.

What was the percentage increase in the absenteeism of workers in the production department from February to May?

Answers:

  1. 50%
  2. 33.33%
  3. 40%
  4. 45.33%
  5. 75%

11. The two pie charts depict the percentage of various types of schools constructed over a period of five years.
If 150 more schools of Type-A are constructed in year 2005, what will be the percentage of Type-A schools?

Answers:

  1. 33.33%
  2. 55.00%
  3. 40.00%
  4. 30.33%

12. The graph depicts the number of politicians in a country over the given years along with their ages.

What was the percentage increase in the number of politicians between 30-40 years of age from 2001 to 2003?

Answers:

  1. 23.3%
  2. 33.3%
  3. 35%
  4. 30%

13. The graph depicts the number of politicians in a country over the given years with respect to their ages.

What is the difference in the ratio of all candidates in the year from 2002 to 2003 collectively and year from 2000 to 2001 collectively?

Answers:

  1. 0.22
  2. 0.38
  3. 0.15
  4. 0.42

14. The graph depicts the marks scored by girls and boys in a class.

What is the percentage increase in the marks obtained by both boys and girls from July to August?

Answers:

  1. 50%
  2. 45%
  3. 30%
  4. 25%

15. The graph depicts the marks scored by girls and boys in a class.

Calculate the difference between the total marks obtained by boys and girls in October and the average marks obtained by boys in all the 6 months?

Answers:

  1. 20
  2. 30
  3. 40
  4. 50

16. The graph depicts the yearly production of rice in a country.

By what percentage did the production of rice increase in the last four years as compared to the production in the first four years?

Answers:

  1. 22%
  2. 33%
  3. 40%
  4. 50%

17. The graph depicts the yearly production of rice in a country.

Calculate the maximum increase in the production of rice (in tons) as compared to the previous year among all of the above given years?

Answers:

  1. 20 tons
  2. 25 tons
  3. 30 tons
  4. 35 tons

18. The graph depicts the yearly production of rice in a country.

What is the ratio of the combined production in the year 2000-2001 over the combined production in the year 1997-1998?

Answers:

  1. 11/12
  2. 13/14
  3. 17/22
  4. 19/23

19. The graph depicts the number of sales made by a bank in a particular week. Study the given information and answer the following question correctly.

During which day in the week was the increase in sales minimum over the previous day?
Answers:

  1. Tuesday
  2. Friday
  3. Sunday
  4. Monday
  5. Saturday

20. The graph depicts the number of sales made by a bank in a particular week. Study the given information and answer the following question correctly.

What is the ratio of the average sales achieved between Monday and Thursday to the average sales between Friday and Sunday?

Answers:

  1. 3:4
  2. 5:6
  3. 7:8
  4. 11:12

21. The table above shows the number of stationery items used by different sections of a class over a period of time.In which section was the increase in the use of pencils over the preceding section maximum?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. E

22. The table above shows the number of stationery items used by different sections of a class over a period of time.Which section among the following is the third highest user of erasers in terms of percentage, calculated individually for each section?

Answers:

  1. A
  2. B
  3. C
  4. D
  5. E

23. During which of the following months does the loss of revenue by Unit-B trail the loss of revenue by Unit-A by 25%?

Answers:

  1. February
  2. March
  3. April

24. What is the average monthly loss of revenue suffered by Unit-A and Unit-B, taken together in the months during which the loss of revenue suffered by Unit-C was more than $1000 but less than $3000?

Answers:

  1. $5000
  2. $9000
  3. $4500
  4. $6000

25. What is the total number of defective samples of Type-P and Type-S during the year 2005?

Answers:

  1. 8
  2. 9
  3. 10
  4. 11
  5. 12

26. What is the ratio of the average number of items inspected of Item-P and Item-T in all the years given above?

Answers:

  1. 73:42
  2. 67:40
  3. 57:29
  4. 63:37
  5. 61:35

27. During the year 1990, what percentage of houses was constructed in City-B, out of the total houses constructed during that year?

Answers:

  1. 8%
  2. 10%
  3. 12%
  4. 15%
  5. 18%

28. What was the percentage increase in the construction of houses in all the cities from 1991 to 1993?

Answers:

  1. 25.42%
  2. 34.24%
  3. 30.55%
  4. 28.45%

29. What is the ratio of the production of Unit-5 on Thursday to the total production of all units on Sunday?

Answers:

  1. 20:85
  2. 20:91
  3. 21:87
  4. 21:95

30. On which day does unit two make 28% contribution to the total production on that day?

Answers:

  1. Thursday
  2. Saturday
  3. Monday
  4. Wednesday

31. What is the percentage increase in the sales target achieved in the year 2007 over that achieved in the year 2006?

Answers:

  1. 15.43%
  2. 22.75%
  3. 32.65%
  4. 42.75%

32. In which year was the total target achieved by the accounts department, the sales department and the production department minimum in terms of percentage?

Answers:

  1. 2004
  2. 2005
  3. 2006
  4. 2007

33. By how much is the percentage increase in the fare for carrying more than ten pounds of luggage in a taxi higher than that for carrying it in a bus?

Answers:

  1. 90%
  2. 120%
  3. 150%
  4. 175%

34. What is the ratio of the transport fares of an aero-plane to those of a taxi for carrying a cargo weighing 9 pounds?

Answers:

  1. 1:3
  2. 5:2
  3. 1:5
  4. 5:1

35. The diagram represents the speed of four vehicles at four different points hat is the ratio of speed of car at Point-C to the total speed of bus at all four points?

Answers:

  1. 6/19
  2. 5/18
  3. 7/19
  4. 4/17

36. In an organization, there are 100 male members but no female members. If 25 male members are replaced by 25 female members, what will be the ratio of the male members to the female members in the organization?

Answers:

  1. 3:1
  2. 3:2
  3. 4:1
  4. 2:1

1,402 total views, 2 views today

Upwork Miscellaneous Certifications

Civil Engineering Test 2016

Published by:

1. In a joint, the number of rivets required is calculated by using the formula ____________.

Answers:

  1. force / bearing strength of rivet
  2. force – bearing strength of rivet
  3. force / rivet value
  4. force – rivet value

2. The volume of a specimen of soil is 20 cubic centimeters and its weight is 50 grams. Calculate the volumetric shrinkage if the volume of dry specimen is 10 cubic centimeters.

Answers:

  1. 40%
  2. 70%
  3. 90%
  4. 100%

3. Which grade of brick can withstand below freezing temperatures in moist climate?

Answers:

  1. Grade SW
  2. Grade MW
  3. Grade NW

4. Which type of surveying method is used to ascertain the quantities of dredged material?

Answers:

  1. Topographic surveying method
  2. Transit surveying method
  3. Route surveying method
  4. Hydrographic surveying method

5. __________ is used/done to check the strength of the concrete by virtue of the sound it makes.

Answers:

  1. Le chatelier apparatus
  2. Compression test
  3. Shores test
  4. Vicat apparatus
  5. Sieve analysis

6. __________ is a line which joins subsidiary stations with the main line.

Answers:

  1. Base line
  2. Power line
  3. Tie line
  4. Auxiliary line

7. ____________ when water is added to the cement.

Answers:

  1. Heat is absorbed
  2. Heat is generated
  3. All impurities are washed out

8. __________ is the portion of a wall which is used to support an arch.

Answers:

  1. Lintel
  2. Jamb
  3. Abutment
  4. Foot back

9. The most effective method of curing of concrete is :

Answers:

  1. ponding method.
  2. covering the concrete with moist cloth.
  3. honey combining method.
  4. covering the concrete with moist sand.

10. Which type of joint is used to make wooden floors?

Answers:

  1. Lap joint
  2. Tongue & Groove joint
  3. Dovetail joint

11. ___________ is the branch of hydrology which deals with the moisture content in the soil.

Answers:

  1. Geohydrology
  2. Potamology
  3. Pedohydrology
  4. Limnology

12. The beams which support the stair steps are known as:

Answers:

  1. headers
  2. jointers
  3. girts
  4. stringers
  5. spandrels

13. Which of the following equipments are used for distance measurement.

Answers:

  1. Geodimeter
  2. Tellurometer
  3. Theodolite
  4. Planimeter

14. Which form of lime among the following hardens due to the absorption of carbon dioxide in the atmosphere?

Answers:

  1. Lump lime
  2. Quick lime
  3. Fat lime
  4. Hydraulic lime
  5. Hydrated lime

15. Which type of cement among the following is capable of withstanding high temperatures?

Answers:

  1. Refractory cement
  2. Super sulfated cement
  3. Expanding cement
  4. Rapid hardening cement

16. The _________ helps in reducing the shrinkage of concrete.

Answers:

  1. reduction in temperature
  2. sand content of the mixture
  3. water content of the mixture
  4. cement in the mixture

17. ___________ is the extension of the wall above the roof level.

Answers:

  1. Retaining wall
  2. Post wall
  3. Chock wall
  4. Parapet wall

18. The strap efficiency of a reservoir is a function of:

Answers:

  1. Reservoir capacity / total inflow
  2. Reservoir capacity – total inflow
  3. Reservoir capacity + total inflow
  4. Total inflow / reservoir capacity

19. In a constant head parameter test of 5 minutes duration, the quantity of water collected is 450 milliliters. Calculate the discharge per unit time.

Answers:

  1. 1 milliliter per second
  2. 2 milliliters per second
  3. 1.5 milliliters per second
  4. 2.5 milliliters per second

20. The slenderness ratio of a compression structural member is :

Answers:

  1. moment of inertia – actual length
  2. effective length – least radius of gyration
  3. effective length / least radius of gyration
  4. moment of inertia / actual length

21. The re-designing of an RC beam is usually done when its shear stress exceeds _________.

Answers:

  1. 10 kilograms per square centimeter
  2. 20 kilograms per square centimeter
  3. 30 kilograms per square centimeter
  4. 40 kilograms per square centimeter

1,373 total views, 1 views today

Upwork Miscellaneous Certifications

Business Writing Skills Certification 2016

Published by:

1. To keep emails sounding friendly, you should use contractions.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

2. What is a “dateline” in a press release?

Answers:

  1. A separate line that includes the date you wrote the press release
  2. A line at the beginning of the press release that includes the city you are based in and the date of the press release
  3. It’s another word for a caption on a picture you might include in the press release
  4. The city you are based in

3. How long should your memo be?

Answers:

  1. Ideally, no longer than 1 page
  2. 2-3 pages is standard
  3. Just one or two paragraphs
  4. As long as you need it to be

4. In business writing you should try to use gender neutral terms as often as possible.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

5. What should you always include when writing a business email?

Answers:

  1. Date
  2. Long list of recipients
  3. Salutation
  4. Signature

6. Ideally, how long should your resume be?

Answers:

  1. 2 pages
  2. 1 page
  3. As long as it needs to be
  4. Less than one page if possible

7. Never consider your resume to be _____.

Answers:

  1. A foot in the door
  2. Akin to a phone call
  3. A job application
  4. Complete

8. What piece of information should you always include in a resume, a thing which job seekers often forget?

Answers:

  1. A job objective
  2. Your email
  3. Your cell phone number
  4. The best time to reach you

9. When you write a press release, you should think like what?

Answers:

  1. A public relations person
  2. A journalist
  3. A CEO so you sound dignified and intelligent
  4. Yourself

10. You should always include a date by which you want a reply in a fundraising letter.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

11. What one thing is more important than all others when writing for business?

Answers:

  1. Proofreading your work
  2. Writing specifically to your reader
  3. Having perfect grammar and spelling
  4. Knowing how to “sell” through your words

12. Which of the following is the best use of active verbs?

Answers:

  1. We tried to get the best deal
  2. We will try to get the best deal
  3. We sure tried to get the best deal
  4. We should try to get the best deal

13. In what kind of business letter should you include a catchy headline?

Answers:

  1. Fundraising letter
  2. Complaint letter
  3. Sales letter
  4. “Seal a deal” letter

14. In the rough draft of your business report, you shouldn’t worry about what?

Answers:

  1. How strong your voice is throughout
  2. Spelling and grammar
  3. Your facts
  4. Who your audience might be

15. What does “PAR” stand for?

Answers:

  1. Problem-action-results
  2. Problem-activity-re-do
  3. Participation-achieves-results
  4. Problems-about-results

16. It’s perfectly OK to mix fonts and point sizes when writing a sales letter.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

17. A mailing list for email is almost always preferable to sending an email to each person individually.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

18. When is it appropriate to send lewd jokes or pictures in a business email?

Answers:

  1. Never
  2. When you know your office atmosphere encourages it
  3. When it’s sent to you from someone in the office, then it’s OK to forward it on
  4. Always, if your boss approves

19. It’s perfectly acceptable to have more than one resume, each targeted to different kinds of jobs you are looking for.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False
  3. 20. Which of the following is NOT a way in which a job objective is useful?

Answers:

  1. It helps human resources workers appropriately direct your resume.
  2. You tell your potential employer which job you are best suited for
  3. You get a chance to highlight your relevant experience and training
  4. You have a chance to present yourself as capable, confident and employable

21. What should be your “voice” in a business letter?

Answers:

  1. First person
  2. Third person
  3. There should not be a discernible voice
  4. Angry

22. What should you do if you are asked to include your opinion or interpretation in a business report?

Answers:

  1. Refuse
  2. Include it in a separate section right after the table of contents or executive summary
  3. Keep that part separate from the main body of the report
  4. Leave it out; your opinion doesn’t matter

23. If your memo is very long, you should include what?

Answers:

  1. A table of contents
  2. A summary at the bottom of the memo
  3. A second page
  4. An elevator summary at the top

24. A business memo should always start how?

Answers:

  1. The date
  2. With pertinent business right at the top
  3. A greeting or salutation
  4. With a little introductory paragraph

25. What are you appealing to while writing a fundraising letter?

Answers:

  1. Your recipient’s wallet
  2. Your recipient’s charitable spirit
  3. The bottom line
  4. The heart

26. What is a comma splice?

Answers:

  1. When you place a comma where a semicolon or period should be
  2. When you place a comma in the wrong place, between a verb and noun, for example
  3. When you use a semicolon where a comma should be
  4. When you don’t use a comma at all when one clearly should be used

27. What kind of letter does not follow a standard business letter format?

Answers:

  1. Fundraising letter
  2. Sales letter
  3. Complaint letter
  4. Any letter to a customer or client

28. Under no circumstances should you fire someone in email.
Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

29. In the block business letter format, all writing is flush left, even your return address information.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

30. What is the best approach while including an attachment with your email?

Answers:

  1. Keep it short, under 2 pages
  2. Inform the reader in the body of the email that you are including an attachment
  3. Make sure it’s in Word or other format everyone can read
  4. Send it in a separate email

31. Memos can save ____

Answers:

  1. Money
  2. Aggravation and unhappiness in an office
  3. Time spent going to meetings
  4. On postage

32. Where does a memo rank in formality?

Answers:

  1. Memos should always be formal and professional
  2. Memos are always the least formal of all business writing
  3. More formal than a business letter
  4. Less formal than a business letter but more formal than an email

33. In the first complaint letter you write (and you might end up writing more than one on the same topic), what should you keep out of it?

Answers:

  1. A suggestion as to how you want to be compensated for your loss, trouble, etc.
  2. Anger and frustration
  3. Supporting details.
  4. Any personal information

34. You should always sign your business memos.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

35. “He ran.” is considered a complete sentence.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

36. Which of these is an optional item to include in a business report?

Answers:

  1. Title page
  2. Table of contents
  3. Appendices
  4. References

37. Why should you always send your emails in text format?

Answers:

  1. It’s easier and faster for you
  2. It looks more professional
  3. Some people don’t like html formats
  4. Some email programs “read” html formatted emails differently

38. What should you avoid when sending emails to a group of people on a mailing list?

Answers:

  1. A very long email
  2. Discussion of personal issues
  3. Attachments
  4. Addressing anyone by name

39. What one action should you perform again and again when writing for business?

Answers:

  1. Good quality research
  2. Let others read your writing
  3. Proofread
  4. Say “thank you” many times

40. It’s never appropriate to use the body of an email as your cover letter.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

41. What is an elevator summary when referring to email?

Answers:

  1. A brief, one-line summary of the basic facts
  2. A small box you create in the text of the email to give the facts
  3. It’s a summary of the email – basically the amount of information you’d be able to give someone during a ride in an elevator
  4. A bulleted list that moves through the email

42. You should always keep your verbs in the _____ tense.

Answers:

  1. Same
  2. Present
  3. Past
  4. Determined

43. A run-on sentence is always incorrect.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

44. You should always try to read your writing out loud if you can.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

45. Which is the most popular format for business letters?

Answers:

  1. Block
  2. Indent
  3. Summary format
  4. Attached

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