Category Archives: Upwork Networking

Upwork Networking

Windows Server 2008 Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which of the following file systems fully utilizes all the features of Windows Server 2008 such as domains and active directory?

Answers:

  1. FAT
  2. FAT32
  3. NTFS
  4. All of the above

2. Which of the following commands will you use to take the backup of BCD in a “C:Backup” folder?

Answers:

  1. Bcdedit /backup “C:BackupBCD-backup”
  2. Bcdedit /copy “C:BackupBCD-backup”
  3. Bcdedit /export “C:BackupBCD-backup”
  4. Bcdedit /import “C:BackupBCD-backup”

3. Which of the following methods will you use to remove the outdated DNS records from the DNS zone automatically?

Answers:

  1. Disable updates of DNS records
  2. Enable scavenging through zone properties
  3. Remove outdated records manually
  4. None of the above

4. State whether true or false.

An internet connection sharing and using the Windows Server 2008 as a router with NAT can be enabled on the same computer at the same time.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

5. Which of the following commands will you use to convert an NTFS drive to FAT or FAT32?

Answers:

  1. convert.exe
  2. fsconvert.exe
  3. format
  4. None of the above

6. For which of the following does the Network Policy Server in Windows Server 2008 allow you to create and enforce organization wide network access policies?

Answers:

  1. Connection request authentication
  2. Connection request authorization
  3. Client health
  4. All of the above

7. State whether true or false.

Windows 2000 Professional supports IPv6.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

8. Which of the following are requirements for data compression in Windows Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. The volume must be the NTFS volume
  2. The cluster size must not be less than 2 KB
  3. The cluster size must not be larger than 4 KB
  4. None of the above

9. What will you do to allow peer-to-peer communication between all branch office computers where each branch office is protected by a firewall that performs symmetric NAT?

Answers:

  1. Remove access list from the firewall
  2. Configure the firewall to perform PAT (Port Address Translation) instead of NAT
  3. Configure the firewall to allow the use of Teredo
  4. None of the above

10. Your company’s head office has a Windows Server 2008 based DNS server. You are told to install a DNS server in the branch office. You have to make sure that the DNS server in the branch office is able to query the DNS server in the head office and only a limited number of DNS records are transferred to the DNS server in the branch office. Which of the following options will you choose to accomplish this?

Answers:

  1. Only install the DNS server in the branch office
  2. Install the DNS server in the branch office and configure a secondary zone on it
  3. Install the DNS server in the branch office and configure a primary zone on it
  4. Install the DNS server in the branch office and configure a stub zone on it

11. To record all inbound DNS queries to the DNS server, which of the following would you configure in the DNS Manager Console?

Answers:

  1. Enable query logging
  2. Enable info logging
  3. Enable debug logging
  4. Enable event logging

12. For which of the following protocols is support available in Windows Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. IPv4
  2. IPv6
  3. NetBEUI
  4. a and b
  5. a, b and c

13. State whether true or false.

There can be only one schema master in the whole forest.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

14. In Windows Server 2008, which of the following replaced the ‘Manage Your Server’ present in Windows Server 2003?

Answers:

  1. Control Panel
  2. System Configuration
  3. Server Manager
  4. None of the above

15. Your company opened a new branch office with 32 computers. You are asked to assign an appropriate subnet scheme to the new network. Which of the following subnets will accomplish this task without wasting IP addresses?

Answers:

  1. 192.168.10.0/25
  2. 192.168.10.0/26
  3. 192.168.10.0/27
  4. 192.168.10.0/30

16. Which of the following configuration file settings apply to the whole server and are inherited by all .NET and IIS configuration files?

Answers:

  1. Machine.config
  2. ApplicationHost.config
  3. Web.config (root-level)
  4. web.config (application-level)

17. How many logical drives can you create in an extended partition?

Answers:

  1. 4
  2. 16
  3. 23
  4. Unlimited

18. Which of the following should you use on a DHCP server to make sure that the DHCP server does not assign to the DHCP clients, the IP addresses which are currently in use on the network?

Answers:

  1. Set Conflict Detection value to 0.
  2. Reboot the DHCP server.
  3. Set Conflict Detection value to 2.
  4. None of the above

19. Which of the following roles are required to be installed on the server to configure a server as a VPN server?

Answers:

  1. Routing and Remote Access Services role
  2. Network Policy Server Services role
  3. Windows Deployment Services role
  4. Network Policy and Access Services role

20. Which of the following commands will you use to test IPv6 communication to a server?

Answers:

  1. ping followed by the IP address of the server
  2. ping followed by the site-local address of the server
  3. ping followed by the link-local address of the server
  4. Any of the above

21. How many primary partitions can be made on a single drive?

Answers:

  1. Up to one
  2. Up to two
  3. Up to four
  4. Unlimited

22. What is/are the number of RAID levels that Windows Server 2008 supports?

Answers:

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. Four

23. How many roles does Microsoft support in the Server Core installation?

Answers:

  1. Five
  2. Eleven
  3. Sixteen
  4. All the roles

24. Which of the following commands will you use to configure the Windows core installation server to accept the remote connection and to designate a port for the remote connection?

Answers:

  1. netsh
  2. IPSec
  3. set port status
  4. None of the above

25. Which of the following EAP methods are supported by Windows Server 2008 by default?

Answers:

  1. PEAP-MS-CHAP v2
  2. EAP-TLS
  3. PEAP-TLS
  4. All of the above

26. Which of the following would you use to transfer all forest-wide operation master roles to another domain?

Answers:

  1. Forest-wide server master roles
  2. Secondary domain master
  3. Primary domain controller master
  4. Domain naming master
  5. Schema master

27. What is the full form of RADIUS?

Answers:

  1. Remote Access Dial-in User Service
  2. Remote Authentication Dial-in User Service
  3. Remote Access Directory User Service
  4. Remote Authentication Directory Update Service

28. What is the maximum length of a password for either a domain or a local user account on Windows Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. 8 characters
  2. 32 characters
  3. 127 characters
  4. 255 characters

29. You want VPN connection between your company’s head office and branch offices to use end-to-end encryption to encrypt data transmission. You also want VPN connection to use only computer-level authentication instead of usernames and passwords. Which of the following will you use to accomplish this?

Answers:

  1. Use an IPsec connection
  2. Use an L2TP/IPsec connection and MS-CHAP v2 authentication
  3. Use a PPTP connection and MS-CHAP 2 authentication
  4. Use an L2TP/IPsec connection and EAP-TLS authentication

30. Which of the following utilities will you use to convert basic disks to dynamic disks?

Answers:

  1. Fdisk.exe
  2. Fsutil.exe
  3. Convdisk.exe
  4. Diskpart.exe

31. Which of the following can be used by administrators to enforce health requirements for all the computers that are connected to an organization’s private network?

Answers:

  1. IPsec (Internet Protocol Security)
  2. GPO (Group Policy Object)
  3. NAP (Network Access Protection)
  4. Any of the above

32. Which of the following is true regarding volumes on Windows Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. You can delete volumes.
  2. You can extend volumes.
  3. You can shrink volumes.
  4. All of the above

33. State whether true or false.

You cannot uncompress a volume once it is compressed.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

34. Which of the following commands will enable Automatic Updates on Windows Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. Cscript Scregedit.wsf /AU 1
  2. Cscript Scregedit.wsf /AU 2
  3. Cscript Scregedit.wsf /AU 3
  4. Cscript Scregedit.wsf /AU 4

35. State whether true or false.

There can be more than one domain naming masters in the whole forest.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

36. What is the maximum memory that is supported by the Windows Server 2008 Enterprise Edition running on a 64-bit processor?

Answers:

  1. 4 GB
  2. 32 GB
  3. 64 GB
  4. 1 TB

37. Which of the following parameters will you use in the ‘route’ command so that Windows will keep and retain the newly added route in the IP routing table even if the server is rebooted?

Answers:

  1. route add
  2. route -f
  3. route add -p
  4. route static

38. Which of the following tools would you use to reset the Directory Services Recovery Mode (DSRM) password on a single domain controller?

Answers:

  1. ntdsutil
  2. passwd
  3. netsh
  4. None of the above

39. What is the maximum length of a username for either a domain or a local user account in Windows Server 2008?

Answers:

  1. 16 characters
  2. 20 characters
  3. 32 characters
  4. 128 characters

40. Which of the following can you use to create, configure, and manage volumes?

Answers:

  1. Provision Storage Wizard
  2. Provision a Shared Folder Wizard
  3. Provision Volume Wizard
  4. None of the above

41. State whether true or false.

The jetpack.exe command is used to reduce the size of DHCP database.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

42. With which of the following TCP ports is the Remote Desktop Protocol designed to work?

Answers:

  1. 3389
  2. 5901
  3. 5902
  4. None of the above

43. In a Windows Server 2008 based DHCP server, what is the default value of the Lease duration for DHCP clients?

Answers:

  1. 6 hours
  2. 8 hours
  3. 6 days
  4. 8 days

44. What is the full form of ADLDS?

Answers:

  1. Active Directory Lightweight Data Services
  2. Active Directory Lightweight Domain Services
  3. Active Directory Lightweight Directory Services
  4. None of the above

45. Which command will you use to remove an NT Loader from the boot sequence completely?

Answers:

  1. Bcdedit {ntldr} /bootsequence /remove
  2. Bcdedit {ntloader} /boot sequence /remove
  3. Bcdedit /bootsequence {ntloader} /remove
  4. Bcdedit /bootsequence {ntldr} /remove

46. Which of the following can be used to perform database maintenance of Active Directory, manage and control single master operations and create application directory partitions?

Answers:

  1. Ldp.exe
  2. Dsdbutil.exe
  3. Ntdsutil.exe
  4. None of the above

47. Which of the following commands will you use to take the backup of IIS Global Configuration?

Answers:

  1. APPCMD.EXE backup <backup file name>
  2. APPCMD.EXE copy backup <backup file name>
  3. APPCMD.EXE add backup <backup file name>
  4. APPCMD.EXE export backup <backup file name>

48. Which of the following features are available under the NTFS file system, but not under the FAT or FAT32 file systems?

Answers:

  1. File encryption
  2. File compression
  3. Disk quotas
  4. All of the above

49. Which of the following will you use to see the logon attempts (including the IP address and the user account) on the domain controller?

Answers:

  1. Check the log viewer
  2. Check the security tab on the domain controller computer object
  3. Check the event viewer
  4. Any of the above

50. What is the full form of AIA?

Answers:

  1. Accounting Information Authority
  2. Audit Information Authority
  3. Authority Information Access
  4. Active directory Information Access

991 total views, no views today

Upwork Networking

Voice Over IP Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which of the following are the major VoIP protocols?

Answers:

  1. SIP
  2. H.323
  3. SMTP
  4. MGCP
  5. FTP
  6. RTP
  7. RTCP

2. What are the three main steps required in the analog-to-digital conversion process?

Answers:

  1. Compression
  2. Encoding
  3. Filtering
  4. Recording
  5. Sampling
  6. Quantization

3. What are the three elements of a security policy necessary for a VoIP network?

Answers:

  1. Transport Security
  2. Data Security
  3. Network Security
  4. Intrusion Detection

4. Which of the following are types of address signaling?

Answers:

  1. TDM
  2. Pulse dialing
  3. DTMF
  4. FDM

5. Which of the following signaling protocols can be used with gateways over a VoIP network?

Answers:

  1. SIP
  2. H.264
  3. H.323
  4. MGCP

6. Which of the following provide transport security by using encryption, data integrity and data authentication?

Answers:

  1. VPNs
  2. Firewalls
  3. Antivirus
  4. IPSec

7. Which of the following protocols are assigned ports for each voice call?

Answers:

  1. RTP in transmit direction
  2. RTCP in transmit direction
  3. RTP in receive direction
  4. RTCP in receive direction

8. Through which protocols can VPNs be implemented at layer 2?

Answers:

  1. NTP
  2. PPTP
  3. RTCP
  4. L2TP

9. Which of the following are the major framing standards used for Channel Associated Signaling (CAS) by T1?

Answers:

  1. Super Frame (SF)
  2. Multi Frame (MF)
  3. Super Extended Frame (SEF)
  4. Extended Super Frame (ESF)

10. Which of the following services are provided by Real-time Transfer Protocol(RTP)?

Answers:

  1. Time stamping
  2. Acknowledgements
  3. Sequence numbering
  4. Delivery monitoring

11. Which of the following are voice compression techniques?

Answers:

  1. Waveform algorithms
  2. Frequency algorithms
  3. Source algorithms
  4. Encoding algorithms

12. Which of the following is used by an exchange to convert analog audio to digitized audio?

Answers:

  1. SS7
  2. PCM
  3. ISDN
  4. DSL

13. Which of the following signaling protocols is based on the ISDN Q.931 standard?

Answers:

  1. Q.933A
  2. DPNSS
  3. QSIG
  4. SS7

14. How many voice conversations are possible on an E1 line simultaneously?

Answers:

  1. 16
  2. 24
  3. 30
  4. 32

15. What is the full form of 3DES?

Answers:

  1. Triple Decoding Encoding Standard
  2. Triple Data Encryption Standard
  3. Triple Data Encoding Standard
  4. Triple Digital Encryption Service

16. According to the OSI model, which layer performs the function of transforming bits of data into electrical signals and sending those signals across the media?

Answers:

  1. Network
  2. Data Link
  3. Transport
  4. Physical

17. What is the full form of BGP?

Answers:

  1. Border Gateway Protocol
  2. Border Gateway Police
  3. Border Global Position
  4. Border Global Protocol

18. How many bits are there in a Class B address in Net ID (Network portion) and Host ID (Host Portion) fields by default?

Answers:

  1. Net ID=8 bits & Host ID=24 bits
  2. Net ID=16 bits & Host ID=16 bits
  3. Net ID=24 bits & Host ID=8 bits
  4. None of the above

19. What is the full form of POTS?

Answers:

  1. Public Old Telephone Service
  2. Plain Old Telephone Service
  3. Plain Old Telecommunication System
  4. Protocols Of Telecommunication System

20. What is the full form of L2TP?

Answers:

  1. Level 2 Technology Protocol
  2. Level 2 Transmission Protocol
  3. Layer 2 Transport Protocol
  4. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol

21. Which of the following is responsible for electrical echo on telephone networks?

Answers:

  1. Speakerphones
  2. Impedance mismatch
  3. Incorrect voltage
  4. All of the above

22. State whether true or false:
Stateful firewalls do not remember the previous traffic that has occurred earlier in the session

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

23. What are the functions of Call Control?

Answers:

  1. Call setup
  2. Call maintenance
  3. Call termination
  4. All of the above

24. Which of the following is the most common trunk signal type used by E&M signaling?

Answers:

  1. Wink-start
  2. Immediate-start
  3. Delay-start
  4. Loop-start

25. What is the range of the frequency of a telephone channel?

Answers:

  1. 10 Hz to 9000 Hz
  2. 300 Hz to 3400 Hz
  3. 200 Hz to 20000 Hz
  4. 16 Hz to 1600 Hz

26. What is the full form of CCS?

Answers:

  1. Conditional Channel Signaling
  2. Combined Channel Signaling
  3. Common Channel Signaling
  4. Collective Channel Signaling

27. Which of the following is one of the most important things common in all IP phones?

Answers:

  1. Global Positioning System (GPS)
  2. Bluetooth
  3. Network Interface Card (NIC)
  4. None of the above

28. What do you call a medium which allows multiple channels?

Answers:

  1. Multi mode
  2. Single mode
  3. Broadband
  4. Baseband

29. Which of the following methods is most commonly used to remove echo in telephone networks these days?

Answers:

  1. Echo Avoidance
  2. Echo Suppression
  3. Echo Cancellation
  4. All of the above

30. What is the minimum bandwidth required for VoIP to deliver high quality services?

Answers:

  1. 32 kbps
  2. 64 kbps
  3. 128 kbps
  4. 256 kbps

31. According to the ITU standard G.114, what is the maximum delay acceptable for high quality voice?

Answers:

  1. 100 ms
  2. 125 ms
  3. 150 ms
  4. 200 ms

32. Which of the following classes are used for host addressing?

Answers:

  1. Class A
  2. Class B
  3. Class C
  4. Class D
  5. Class E
  6. All of the above

33. What is the function of D (Data) channel in ISDN?

Answers:

  1. It is used for carrying data
  2. It is used for carrying voice
  3. It is used for carrying signaling information
  4. All of the above

34. Which TCP port number is used by H.323 protocol for call setup?

Answers:

  1. 5060
  2. 1720
  3. 1718
  4. 2727

35. What is the path of wires that connect the subscriber’s telephone to the telephone company’s switch located at the latter’s central office known as?

Answers:

  1. Trunk
  2. Local Loop
  3. Demarcation Point
  4. Point of Presence

36. Which of the following can be used to hide internal network addresses and allow several computers on LAN to simultaneously share the router’s global IP address?

Answers:

  1. DHCP
  2. Firewall
  3. NAT
  4. None of the above

37. Which of the following VoIP protocols define end-to-end call signaling methods?

Answers:

  1. SIP
  2. MGCP
  3. RTP
  4. H.323

38. Which of the following is the reason for using UDP instead of TCP for voice transmission?

Answers:

  1. UDP is more reliable as compared to TCP
  2. UDP is fast as compared to TCP
  3. UDP re-transmits any packet lost during transmission whereas TCP does not
  4. All of the above

39. Which of the following has the correct sequence (from the lowest layer to the highest)?

Answers:

  1. Physical, Network, Data Link, Session, Transport, Presentation, Application
  2. Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application<>/span<
  3. Transport, Session, Data Link, Application, Presentation, Network, Physical
  4. Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Presentation, Session, Application

40. What is the full form of DSL?

Answers:

  1. Digital Subscription Line
  2. Digital Super Link
  3. Digital Speed Line
  4. Digital Subscriber Line

41. State whether true or false:
QSIG is implemented on PRI interfaces only.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

42. Which of the following protocols is used in a VoIP call at the application layer of the TCP/IP model?

Answers:

  1. NTP
  2. RTCP
  3. RTP
  4. All of the above

43. For which of the following services is SS7 responsible?

Answers:

  1. Basic call setup, management and tearing down of connections
  2. Call forwarding
  3. Calling party number display
  4. All of the above

44. State whether true or false
VoIP runs only on the internet. It cannot run on any other network.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

45. Which of the following are examples of CCS?

Answers:

  1. QSIG
  2. Q.933A
  3. SS7
  4. DPNSS
  5. All of the above

46. Which of the following devices is used to physically connect all network devices like PCs, IP phones etc. to the LAN?

Answers:

  1. Router
  2. Switch
  3. Firewall
  4. Server

47. Which of the following are ITU standards for voice compression?

Answers:

  1. G.701
  2. G.711
  3. G.726
  4. G.728
  5. G.729
  6. G.729A
  7. All of the above

48. What is a soft phone?

Answers:

  1. It is a hardware phone especially made for VoIP
  2. It is a software that works on a laptop, desktop or a pocket PC
  3. It is the traditional phone that we use these days
  4. None of the above

49. On which of the following IP enabled devices can VoIP telephone services work?

Answers:

  1. Computer
  2. Personal Digital Assistant (PDA)
  3. IP telephone
  4. All of the above

50. What is the full form of DPNSS?

Answers:

  1. Dedicated Private Network Signaling Services
  2. Digital Public Network Signaling System
  3. Dual Primary Network System Signaling
  4. Digital Private Network Signaling System

51. Which of the following VoIP protocols is an emerging standard for PSTN gateway control?

Answers:

  1. SIP
  2. MGCP
  3. RTP
  4. H.323

52. How many bits are there in a MAC address?

Answers:

  1. 32 bits
  2. 48 bits
  3. 24 bits
  4. 16 bits

53. Is it possible to transport fax and modem traffic over a VoIP network?

Answers:

  1. Yes
  2. No

54. State whether true or false:
RTP (Real-time Transport Protocol) requests retransmission if a voice packet is lost.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

55. Which of the following signaling protocols is used in a common channel to signal all other channels in ISDN?

Answers:

  1. Q.933A
  2. ANSI
  3. Q.931
  4. DPNSS

56. Between Asymmetric and Symmetric transmissions, which statement is true of Symmetric transmission?

Answers:

  1. In Symmetric transmission, the upstream data rate is more than the downstream data rate
  2. In Symmetric transmission, the upstream data rate is less than the downstream data rate
  3. In Symmetric transmission, the upstream data rate is the same as the downstream data rate
  4. Symmetric transmission is less expensive as compared to Asymmetric transmission

57. What is the full form of SS7?

Answers:

  1. Secure Signal 7
  2. Secure System 7
  3. Signaling System 7
  4. Switch Signal 7

58. Which of the following is a telephony signaling protocol suite used to set up most of the world’s PSTN calls?

Answers:

  1. PCM
  2. SS6
  3. ISDN
  4. SS7

59. Which of the following modes of delivery are supported by IPsec?

Answers:

  1. Transport
  2. Encapsulation
  3. Tunnel
  4. All of the above

60. Which of the following cables is mostly used in traditional telephones?

Answers:

  1. CAT 5 cable
  2. Copper wire
  3. Fibre Optic
  4. All of the above

61. What is the full form of TDM?

Answers:

  1. Time Division Multiplexing
  2. Telephone Domain Management
  3. Transmission Division Multiplexing
  4. Time Domain Multiplexing

62. Which protocol provides end-to-end delivery services for data that requires real-time support such as interactive voice and video?

Answers:

  1. Real-time Transport Protocol (RTP)
  2. Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP)
  3. Compressed Real-time Transport Protocol (CRTP)
  4. Real-time Transport Control Protocol (RTCP)

63. What is the full form of PSTN?

Answers:

  1. Public Switched Telephone Network
  2. Packet Service of Telephone Network
  3. Plain Switched Telephone Network
  4. Public Subscriber Trunk Network

64. On which layer of the OSI model does TCP & UDP work?

Answers:

  1. Transport Layer
  2. Session Layer
  3. Presentation Layer
  4. Network Layer

65. Which of the following protocols does VoIP use at the transport layer of the TCP/IP model?

Answers:

  1. TCP
  2. UDP
  3. SMTP
  4. None of the above

66. What is the length of IP v4 addresses (in bits)?

Answers:

  1. 16 bits
  2. 32 bits
  3. 48 bits
  4. 64 bits

67. Is it possible for a POTS line running broadband DSL service to support VoIP telephony in the home?

Answers:

  1. Yes
  2. No

768 total views, 1 views today

Upwork Networking

Virtual Private Network Test 2016

Published by:

1. Due to which of the following reasons do you need to revoke a certificate?

Answers:

  1. The private key used for authentication has been compromised
  2. The identity certificate has been compromised
  3. The certificate is no longer used
  4. The certificate has expired

2. Which of the following are the types of VPN?

Answers:

  1. GRE
  2. L2TP
  3. PPTP
  4. IPSec
  5. MPLS

3. Which of the following statements are true of IPSec?

Answers:

  1. It can encrypt/decrypt IP traffic only
  2. It can be used for authentication
  3. It can be used for Layer 2 VPN protocol
  4. It does not support multicast or broadcast
  5. It supports only multicast

4. Which of the following are advantages of an SSL VPN?

Answers:

  1. No additional software is required at the client’s side
  2. Secure application access is possible from anywhere
  3. A large number of Web browsers are supported
  4. Several methods of authentication are supported

5. Which of the following are categories of QoS?

Answers:

  1. Hybrid QoS
  2. Integrated services
  3. Best effort QoS
  4. Differentiated services

6. Which of the following are the components of the VPN?

Answers:

  1. Authentication
  2. Encapsulation Method
  3. Data Encryption
  4. Packet Integrity
  5. Key Management

7. Which of the following key lengths are supported by AES?

Answers:

  1. 128
  2. 192
  3. 256
  4. 512
  5. 1024

8. Which of the following are the security concerns while using PPTP?

Answers:

  1. Session Hijacking
  2. Data Manipulation
  3. No Header Information Protection
  4. Weak Encryption

9. Which of the following protocols are supported by PPTP?

Answers:

  1. TCP/IP
  2. AppleTalk
  3. IPX
  4. NetBEUI

10. Which of the following topologies are possible in an IPSec VPN?

Answers:

  1. Hub and Spoke Topology
  2. Bus Topology
  3. Full Mesh Topology
  4. Ring Topology

11. Which of the following are the most important issues in key management?

Answers:

  1. Key Generation
  2. Key Encryption
  3. Key Distribution
  4. Key Backup

12. Which of the following ways can be used to generate SSL certificates?

Answers:

  1. Self-generated
  2. Central SSL Certificate Authority
  3. SSL Authority
  4. Certificate Authority

13. Which of the following are IPSec modes?

Answers:

  1. Hybrid Mode
  2. Virtual Mode
  3. Tunnel Mode
  4. Transport Mode

14. Which of the following protocols can be encapsulated with GRE?

Answers:

  1. AppleTalk
  2. IP
  3. IPX
  4. DECnet

15. Which of the following are the components of a general MPLS VPN structure?

Answers:

  1. Customer Edge Router
  2. Provider Edge Router
  3. Service Provider
  4. Customer
  5. Provider Router

16. Which of the following are the best practices for VPN security?

Answers:

  1. Running virus scans on VPN servers and clients
  2. Reviewing the logs
  3. Disabling the account of the employee who leaves the organisation
  4. Scanning the VPN server for vulnerablities
  5. Using IDS

17. Which of the following are the most common VPN problems?

Answers:

  1. Inablity to connect VPN server
  2. Inablity to connect hosts beyond VPN server
  3. Inablity to browse the LAN after log in
  4. Internet Connectivity

18. Which of the following are components of L2TP Transactions?

Answers:

  1. Network Access Server
  2. L2TP access concentrator
  3. L2TP Network Client
  4. L2TP Network Server

19. Which of the following can be threats in an MPLS VPN?

Answers:

  1. Intrusions from the internet
  2. Intrusions from an attached VPN
  3. DoS attack
  4. Internal threats

20. Which of the following are PPTP vulnerabilities?

Answers:

  1. Cleartext passwords
  2. Key Management
  3. GRE Encapsulation
  4. Encryption

21. Which of the following are the best practices to choose a VPN service provider?

Answers:

  1. It should offer strong encryption mechanism
  2. It should support for Layer 2 & Layer 3 tunneling protocols
  3. It should offer system level security
  4. It should have strong network backbone

22. Which of the following measures are taken by IPSec VPN to combat man-in-the-middle attack?

Answers:

  1. Device authentication
  2. Using a firewall
  3. Integrity checking
  4. Encryption

23. Which of the following are the IPSec security protocols?

Answers:

  1. Encapsulating Security Payload
  2. Encapsulating Security Protocol
  3. Authentication Header
  4. Authorization Header

24. Which of the following are advantages of MPLS VPN?

Answers:

  1. It supports various topologies
  2. It is scalable and flexible
  3. It offers encryption
  4. It is easy to implement and configure

25. Which of the following features should be evaluated in a VPN solution?

Answers:

  1. Connectivity
  2. Protection
  3. Authentication
  4. Application Compatibility
  5. Management

26. Which of the following are advantages of DES and 3DES?

Answers:

  1. They use symmetric keys
  2. They use asymmetric keys
  3. They make encryption faster
  4. They make encryption slow

27. Which of the following protocols can use authentication protocols such as RADIUS and TACACS+?

Answers:

  1. PPTP
  2. L2TP
  3. L2F
  4. LT2P

28. Which of the following are functions of the keys?

Answers:

  1. Repudiation
  2. Encryption
  3. Integrity
  4. Authentication

29. Which of the following are the authentication methods used in IPSec?

Answers:

  1. Hashing algorithm
  2. Pre-shared keys
  3. Digital Certificates
  4. Digital Signatures

30. Which of the following sources can be used for testing interoperability between VPN vendors?

Answers:

  1. VPNC
  2. IPSec-WIT
  3. CERT
  4. ICSA Labs

31. Which of the following protocols are supported by VPDN?

Answers:

  1. PPTP
  2. PTPP
  3. L2TP
  4. L2F
  5. LF2

32. Which of the following are types of VPN attacks?

Answers:

  1. DoS attack
  2. Attack against VPN protocols
  3. Cryptanalysis attacks
  4. Security threats to VPN elements

33. Which of the following are feartures of the IPSec Technology?

Answers:

  1. Confidentiality
  2. Availability
  3. Integrity
  4. Anti-replay

34. Which of the following are widely used account databases?

Answers:

  1. Primary Domain Controller
  2. RADIUS server
  3. TACACS server
  4. LDAP
  5. Novell Directory Service

35. Which of the following are the features of an MPLS VPN?

Answers:

  1. It is connection-less
  2. It is encrypting
  3. It is non-encrypting
  4. It is scalable

36. Which of the following are the Layer 3 VPNs?

Answers:

  1. MPLS
  2. PPTP
  3. ATM
  4. IPSec

37. Which of the following measures should be taken to make a DoS resistant network

Answers:

  1. Correct Device Positioning
  2. Correct Bandwidth Planning
  3. Service Overprovisioning
  4. Anti-DoS solutions

38. Which port is used by L2TP?

Answers:

  1. 1701
  2. 1702
  3. 550
  4. 4500

39. Which of the following protocols is used for key management?

Answers:

  1. IKE
  2. L2TP
  3. PPTP
  4. IPSec

40. Which of the following statements is true of the Transport mode in IPSec?

Answers:

  1. IPSec header is inserted between IP and Lower layer header
  2. IPSec header is inserted between IP and Upper layer header
  3. There is no IPSec header
  4. Only Authentication header is inserted
  5. Only Encapsulating Security Payload is inserted

41. To which of the following attacks is IPSec vulnerable to?

Answers:

  1. Spoofing
  2. DoS attack
  3. Brute Force attack
  4. Key Management attack

42. Which of the following authorities issues Digital Certificates?

Answers:

  1. Digital Certificate Authority
  2. Certificate Authority
  3. Central Certificate Authority
  4. Central Certificate Team

43. Which of the following symmetric algorithms has variable key length?

Answers:

  1. MD5
  2. Triple DES
  3. DES
  4. Rivest Cipher 4

44. Which of the following services should be disabled on an MPLS VPN router?

Answers:

  1. Finger
  2. TCP keepalives
  3. NTP
  4. Password encryption service
  5. CDP

45. Which of the following is a Hashing algorithm?

Answers:

  1. Diffie-Hellman
  2. 3-DES
  3. DES
  4. MD5

46. Which of the following ports is used by SSL?

Answers:

  1. 80
  2. 443
  3. 550
  4. 4500

47. Which of the following port is used by L2F?

Answers:

  1. UDP 1702
  2. UDP 1701
  3. TCP 1702
  4. TCP 1701

48. How does IPSec handle the confidentiality of a message?

Answers:

  1. Through encryption
  2. Through authentication
  3. Through hashing
  4. Through sequence numbers

49. The act of learning information about the target network is called?

Answers:

  1. DoS attack
  2. Encryption
  3. Repudiation
  4. Network reconnaissance

50. What is MPLS network?

Answers:

  1. Multi Protocol Layer Switching
  2. Multi Protocol Label Switching
  3. Multi Protocol Link Switching
  4. Multi Protocol Label System
  5. Multi Protocol Layer System

51. The ability of a SSL VPN to receive user requests and relay them to internal server is_________.

Answers:

  1. Relaying
  2. Reverse Relaying
  3. Reverse Proxying
  4. Forwarding

52. Which of the following is an Asymmetric algorithm?

Answers:

  1. MD5
  2. El Gamal
  3. IDEA
  4. SHA-1

53. VPDN is a/an

Answers:

  1. Application Layer VPN
  2. Session Layer VPN
  3. Transport Layer VPN
  4. Network Layer VPN

54. Which port is used by IKE(Internet Key Exchange) ?

Answers:

  1. TCP 550
  2. TCP 500
  3. UDP 550
  4. UDP 500

55. How many modes are there in IKE Phase 1?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5

56. How many keys are required if two parties communicate using Symmetric Cryptography?

Answers:

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. Four

57. How many tunnels are supported by PPTP?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5

58. Which of the following attacks is resembled by the following statement: “Inserting the packets of same sequence number into the data stream between a source and destination computer”?

Answers:

  1. DNS poisioning
  2. Landc attack
  3. Smurf attack
  4. Replay attack

59. How many phases are there in IKE (Internet Key Exchange)?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4
  5. 5

60. Which protocol is used by L2TP?

Answers:

  1. TCP
  2. UDP
  3. RPC
  4. FTP

61. Which of the following tasks can be performed by GRE?

Answers:

  1. Encryption
  2. Authentication
  3. Integrity Check
  4. Encapsulation

62. Which port is used for NAT-Traversal?

Answers:

  1. TCP 4500
  2. TCP 4600
  3. UDP 4500
  4. UDP 4600

63. Which of the following protocols supports IKE?

Answers:

  1. L2TP
  2. PPTP
  3. PTPP
  4. IPSec

64. To which of the following attacks is Diffie-Hellman algorithm vulnerable?

Answers:

  1. Brute Force attack
  2. Dictionary attacks
  3. Spoofing attack
  4. Man-in-the-middle attack

65. How does anti-replay mechanism work in IPSec Technology?

Answers:

  1. By Encryption
  2. By Hashing
  3. By Tracking Sequence Numbers
  4. By Authenitcation

66. Which of the following protocols is used by PPTP to tunnel packets?

Answers:

  1. L2TP
  2. L2F
  3. PPP
  4. PTPP

67. What is CRL?

Answers:

  1. Certificate Return List
  2. Certificate Revised List
  3. Certificate Revocation List
  4. Certificate Registration List

68. Which of the following is stored by MPLS in the routing table?

Answers:

  1. IP address
  2. ARP
  3. Labels
  4. MAC address

69. Which of the following is a characteristic of MPLS VPN?

Answers:

  1. It can be connection-less
  2. It can be connection -oriented
  3. It can be connection -less or connection oriented
  4. It can be both connection -less and connection-oriented

70. What is VPDN?:

Answers:

  1. Virtual Private Dial-up Network
  2. Virtual Private Digital Network
  3. Virtual Personal Dial-up Network
  4. Virtual Personal Digital Network

71. How can you overcome the limitation of IPSec to support broadcast and multicast?

Answers:

  1. Through Multicast Encryption
  2. Through Broadcast Encryption
  3. It cannot support them
  4. Through GRE Encapsulation

72. By which of the following can Man-in-the-middle attack be prevented?

Answers:

  1. IKE
  2. Digital Signatures
  3. Cryptography
  4. Anti-virus

73. At which layer do SSL VPNs work in the OSI model?

Answers:

  1. At the Application Layer
  2. At the Presentation Layer
  3. At the Session Layer
  4. At the Transport Layer
  5. At the Network Layer

74. Which protocol is used by PPTP?

Answers:

  1. TCP
  2. UDP
  3. RPC
  4. FTP

75. Which port is used by PPTP?

Answers:

  1. 500
  2. 550
  3. 1723

854 total views, 2 views today

Upwork Networking

TCP/IP Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which statements are true regarding UDP?

Answers:

  1. It is a connectionless service
  2. It is less reliable as compared to TCP
  3. It uses handshaking
  4. It is slow as compared to TCP

2. Which are the two valid IP addresses in the subnets of 192.168.10.0 network with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.248?

Answers:

  1. 192.168.10.1
  2. 192.168.10.24
  3. 192.168.10.63
  4. 192.168.10.5

3. Which of the following ranges are reserved as private addresses?

Answers:

  1. 10.0.0.0 — 10.255.255.255
  2. 192.168.0.0 — 192.255.255.255
  3. 172.16.0.0 — 172.31.255.255
  4. 172.16.0.0 — 172.255.255.255

4. What is the class of IP address 128.10.15.24?

Answers:

  1. Class A
  2. Class B
  3. Class C
  4. Class D

5. What is the port number used by HTTP?

Answers:

  1. 21
  2. 23
  3. 80
  4. 112

6. Which Protocol uses port number 21?

Answers:

  1. FTP
  2. SMTP
  3. Telnet
  4. HTTP

7. If UDP receives datagrams that are not in a sequence, what will it do?

Answers:

  1. It will arrange them in a sequence using sequence numbers
  2. It will request source host to resend datagrams
  3. It will drop datagrams that are not in sequence
  4. None of the above

8. How can a host resolve an IP address of another host located on the same subnet without needing to send a broadcast?

Answers:

  1. By requesting the physical address of the destination host
  2. By requesting the physical address of the router
  3. By accessing the routing table
  4. If the entry is already in the source host’s ARP cache
  5. The host cannot resolve the IP address without sending a broadcast

9. Which file transfer Protocol uses UDP as a transport Protocol and lacks security?

Answers:

  1. TFTP
  2. FTP
  3. RPC
  4. DHCP

10. What kind of message can an SNMP agent generate?

Answers:

  1. A trace message
  2. An SNMP message
  3. An alert message
  4. A trap message
  5. A get message

11. In TCP/IP, what is the Windowing mechanism used for?

Answers:

  1. It performs error checking
  2. It enables the lost segments to be detected and retransmitted
  3. It enables TCP to control the flow of data
  4. It appends a header to the data that is received
  5. It establishes a session

12. What is the purpose of a DHCP relay agent?

Answers:

  1. To maintain the database of TCP/IP configurations
  2. To forward DHCP requests to a DHCP server from DHCP clients in a subnet that does not contain a DHCP server
  3. To provide IP configuration settings that should be applied to all DHCP clients in all subnets
  4. To create a client reservation for a DHCP client
  5. To relay messages from one DHCP client to another DHCP client

13. Which of the following is a valid host IP address?

Answers:

  1. 200.100.100.31/27
  2. 200.100.100.32/26
  3. 200.100.100.40/29
  4. 200.100.100.51/30

14. Which one of the following addresses can be used as a host address for the subnet 200.100.10.64/27?

Answers:

  1. 200.100.10.32
  2. 200.100.10.95
  3. 200.100.10.64
  4. 200.100.10.90

15. Which of the following Protocols use port number 25?

Answers:

  1. TFTP
  2. POP3
  3. SMTP
  4. HTTP

16. What is maximum number of hosts allowed on subnet 172.20.64.0/23?

Answers:

  1. 510
  2. 512
  3. 1024
  4. 256

17. What is the binary value of 157?

Answers:

  1. 11000111
  2. 10111001
  3. 11100011
  4. 10011101

18. What is the default subnet mask for a Class C network?

Answers:

  1. 255.0.0.0
  2. 255.255.0.0
  3. 255.255.255.0
  4. 255.0.0.255
  5. 0.0.255.255

19. Which of the following indicates a local class C subnet?

Answers:

  1. xxx.xxx.xxx.0
  2. xxx.0.0.1
  3. xxx.xxx.0.126
  4. xxx.xxx.xxx.256
  5. xxx.xxx.xxx.255

20. Which protocol matches the remote host’s physical address to a given IP address?

Answers:

  1. TCP
  2. IP
  3. ARP
  4. UDP
  5. ICMP

21. In which class of addresses does the first octet specify the network ID and the last three octets specify the host ID?

Answers:

  1. Class A
  2. Class B
  3. Class C
  4. Class D
  5. Class E

22. Which protocol is used to transfer information between a WWW server and a WWW browser?

Answers:

  1. FTP
  2. UDP
  3. HTTP
  4. IP
  5. ICMP

23. By default how many subnets can you create with a Class B network address using a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0?

Answers:

  1. 0
  2. 255
  3. 64
  4. 6
  5. 252

24. What TCP/IP configuration settings are required for a computer to be able to communicate outside of its local subnet?

Answers:

  1. The IP address of the computer outside the subnet
  2. A unique IP address, a subnet mask and the IP address of a default gateway
  3. The IP address of the default gateway
  4. A custom subnet mask
  5. The physical address of the destination computer

25. How is a subnet mask specified for supernetting?

Answers:

  1. The host ID portion of a class address is extended to use a portion of the network ID
  2. The host ID portion is reduced
  3. The total number of bits used for IP addressing is increased
  4. The subnet mask need not be specified for supernetting
  5. The number of hosts on the network is decreased

26. After a host name is resolved to an IP address, what does a local host need to do next to communicate with the target host if the target host resides on the same subnet?

Answers:

  1. Send an ARP broadcast to the router
  2. Send an ARP broadcast to the DHCP server and the local subnet
  3. Resolve the IP address to a physical address using ARP
  4. Update the routing table
  5. Scan the local LMHOSTS file for the requested name

27. How many subnets are available in a class B network with subnet mask of 255.255.255.0?

Answers:

  1. 256
  2. 512
  3. 64
  4. 1024

28. Which of the following is definitely a broadcast address for a class C network having Subnet Mask 255.255.255.0?

Answers:

  1. xxx.xxx.xxx.0
  2. xxx.xxx.255.1
  3. xxx.xxx.xxx.126
  4. xxx.xxx.xxx.254
  5. xxx.xxx.xxx.255
  6. None of the above

29. What is the binary value of hex 9F?

Answers:

  1. 10011111
  2. 10111000
  3. 11110001
  4. 10001111

30. How do you resolve IP addresses locally?

Answers:

  1. By typing Resolve IP address ip-address
  2. By typing ARP-s ip-address
  3. With an ARP request and an ARP reply
  4. With a RARP request and a RARP reply
  5. By sending a broadcast

31. Which IP address class does the following IP address belong to?

78.34.6.90

Answers:

  1. Class A
  2. Class B
  3. Class C
  4. Class D
  5. Class E

32. To which subnet does the IP address 10.120.100.255/18 belong to?

Answers:

  1. 10.120.96.0
  2. 10.120.100.0
  3. 10.120.64.0
  4. 10.0.0.0

33. Assuming that none of the hosts has cached the entries, how many ARP broadcasts would be required for a host on one subnet to communicate with a host on a remote subnet that is separated by a single router?

Answers:

  1. 0
  2. 1
  3. 2
  4. 3
  5. 4

34. Which utility should you use to test whether TCP/IP has been initialized on a computer?

Answers:

  1. ipconfig
  2. init
  3. trace
  4. ping

35. Which protocol does the ping command use when attempting to test whether a remote host is running?

Answers:

  1. IP
  2. UDP
  3. ICMP
  4. IGMP
  5. ARP

36. What does the HOSTS file contain?

Answers:

  1. IP addresses and NetBIOS names
  2. Physical addresses of each host
  3. IP addresses of each host
  4. IP address-to-NetBIOS name mappings
  5. An entry for each host’s IP address followed by the host name

37. Which protocols does SNMP use when sending messages between subnets?

Answers:

  1. IP and UDP
  2. TCP and IP
  3. FTP and TCP
  4. ICMP and UDP

38. Which of the following is a valid unicast IP address?

Answers:

  1. 127.0.0.1
  2. 224.50.72.10
  3. 172.30.50.15/30
  4. 192.168.1.5/30

39. State whether true or false.

TCP is less reliable but faster than UDP.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

40. Which of the following Protocols can automatically provide IP address, subnet mask, default gateway and DNS server’s IP address to a client on a network?

Answers:

  1. FTP
  2. SMTP
  3. ARP
  4. DHCP

41. How many hosts can you assign with a Class C network address using a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192?

Answers:

  1. 255
  2. 62
  3. 6
  4. 2046
  5. 0

42. Your Company has a class C network. Your company requires 6 usable subnets, with 20 hosts in each subnet. Which subnet mask will you use?

Answers:

  1. 255.255.255.0
  2. 255.255.255.240
  3. 255.255.255.224
  4. 255.255.255.192

43. What are some of the keywords that can be included in your LMHOSTS file?

Answers:

  1. #HOSTS
  2. #LM
  3. #FIRST
  4. #MH
  5. #PRE

44. Which of the following address is reserved for loopback tests?

Answers:

  1. 10.0.0.1
  2. 127.0.0.1
  3. 172.16.0.1
  4. 192.168.0.1

45. You have 350 computers spread across eight subnets with two DHCP servers. You want each workstation to receive an IP address even when one of the DHCP servers is down. What should you do?

Answers:

  1. Create eight DHCP scopes on each DHCP server
  2. Create four DHCP scopes on each DHCP server
  3. Create two global DHCP scopes on each DHCP server
  4. Create one global DHCP scope on each DHCP server
  5. Create three global DHCP scopes on each DHCP server

46. Which of the following addresses are reserved for multicasting?

Answers:

  1. Class A addresses
  2. Class B addresses
  3. Class C addresses
  4. Class D addresses
  5. Class E addresses

47. What is the binary value of hex BF?

Answers:

  1. 10100000
  2. 10111111
  3. 11111000
  4. 00111011

48. On which layer of OSI (Open Systems Interconnection) model do TCP and UDP work?

Answers:

  1. Presentation Layer
  2. Network Layer
  3. Physical Layer
  4. Transport Layer

49. Which class address has the beginning range of 192.0.0.1 and the ending range of 223.255.255.254?

Answers:

  1. Class A
  2. Class B
  3. Class C
  4. Class D
  5. Class E

50. How many hosts can a Class A network accommodate?

Answers:

  1. 24
  2. 7
  3. 126
  4. 127
  5. Over 16 million

51. Your network has an IP of 150.150.0.0 and you need to divide it into multiple subnets. You need 600 host IDs for each subnet, with the largest amount of subnets available. Which subnet mask should you assign?

Answers:

  1. 255.255.224.0
  2. 255.255.240.0
  3. 255.255.248.0
  4. 255.255.252.0
  5. 255.255.0.0

52. How many bits are used to represent an IPv4 address?

Answers:

  1. 8
  2. 16
  3. 24
  4. 32
  5. 128

53. What is the broadcast address of IP address 172.16.10.0 with a subnet mask of 255.255.252.0?

Answers:

  1. 172.16.10.255
  2. 172.16.12.255
  3. 172.16.11.255
  4. 172.16.15.255

54. How can you prevent a DHCP server from assigning an IP address to a DHCP client when that address is within the range of addresses defined in a DHCP scope?

Answers:

  1. Deny the request
  2. Redefine the DHCP scope
  3. Increase the range of IP addresses
  4. Create a client reservation for future reference
  5. Create an exclusion range containing the IP address

55. Which Protocol is used to obtain the MAC address from a given IP address?

Answers:

  1. ARP
  2. SMTP
  3. IARP
  4. RARP

56. If you have a subnet mask of /27 for a class C network, how many subnets and host per subnet will you get?

Answers:

  1. 4 networks and 62 hosts
  2. 64 networks and 4 hosts
  3. 32 networks and 8 hosts
  4. 8 networks and 30 hosts

57. You have four Class C network addresses:

203.200.5.0, 203.200.6.0, 203.200.7.0 and 203.200.8.0

You want to combine these addresses into one logical network to increase the host IDs that you can have on one subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign?

Answers:

  1. 255.255.252.0
  2. 255.255.254.0
  3. 255.255.255.252
  4. 255.255.255.254
  5. 255.255.0.0

58. What is the network ID of IP address 172.30.60.0/20?

Answers:

  1. 172.30.16.0
  2. 172.30.48.0
  3. 172.30.32.0
  4. 172.30.0.0

59. What is the purpose of the metric value in a routing table?

Answers:

  1. It specifies the number of entries in the routing table
  2. It specifies the IP address of the router
  3. It specifies the default gateway address
  4. It is used to find the best route to the desired network
  5. It specifies the subnet mask

60. Which of the following Protocols is used as a security Protocol and is also one of the secure encryption systems used in communication?

Answers:

  1. SMTP
  2. Kerberos
  3. TFTP
  4. DNS

61. What is the default time-to-live (TTL) value for an entry in the ARP cache?

Answers:

  1. 30 seconds
  2. 60 seconds
  3. 2 minutes
  4. 90 seconds
  5. 1 minute
  6. Depends on OS

62. Which address classes cannot be assigned to host computers?

Answers:

  1. Class A and Class B
  2. Class B and Class C
  3. Class D and Class E
  4. Class C and Class D
  5. Class A and Class E

63. What is the maximum life time of an entry in the Dynamic ARP cache?

Answers:

  1. 2 minutes
  2. As specified by the system administrator
  3. ARP entries are permanent
  4. 30 seconds
  5. 10 minutes

64. You have a Class A network address with 60 subnets. You need to add 40 new subnets in the next two years and still allow for the largest possible number of host IDs per subnet. Which subnet mask should you assign?

Answers:

  1. 255.240.0.0
  2. 255.248.0.0
  3. 255.252.0.0
  4. 255.254.0.0
  5. 255.0.0.0

65. At what point does a DHCP client attempt to renew its lease?

Answers:

  1. When 1/2 of the lease period has expired
  2. When 3/4 of the lease period has expired
  3. When 2/3 of the lease period has expired
  4. When 1/3 of the lease period has expired
  5. After the lease period has expired

66. When is supernetting required?

Answers:

  1. When the host address should not be partitioned for the purpose of subnetting
  2. When a single subnet needs more host IDs than provided by the class of address
  3. When a host ID has to be divided into two parts
  4. When network performance needs to be improved
  5. When a subnet needs to be isolated

67. What is the maximum number of usable subnets that you can create in a class B network?

Answers:

  1. 32768
  2. 65536
  3. 16384
  4. Infinite

68. Which Protocol is used to find the IP address from the name of a website/host?

Answers:

  1. FTP
  2. SNMP
  3. DNS
  4. POP3

69. What must be specified as part of a client reservation?

Answers:

  1. An IP address and the physical address of the network adapter used by the DHCP client
  2. Scope Options
  3. Global Options
  4. Client Options
  5. The IP address of one or more DHCP server

70. What is the maximum number of valid IP addresses in a class C network?

Answers:

  1. 256
  2. 512
  3. 65536
  4. 254

71. Which of the following is a Multicast Address?

Answers:

  1. 127.0.0.1
  2. 224.10.1.7
  3. 192.168.0.255
  4. 10.0.0.0

72. You have a Class B network and you plan to break it up into seven subnets. One subnet will be connected to the Internet, but you want all computers to have access to the Internet. How should you assign the subnet mask on the router for the networks?

Answers:

  1. By using a default subnet mask
  2. By assigning a subnet mask of 0.0.0.0
  3. By assigning a subnet mask of 255.255.255.0
  4. By assigning a subnet mask that has the IP address of the router
  5. By creating a custom subnet mask

73. Which of the following is a universal and uniform numeric identifier for each computer on the network?

Answers:

  1. IP address
  2. Physical address
  3. ARP
  4. Domain Name System
  5. RARP

74. Which of the following Protocols is used for transferring electronic mail?

Answers:

  1. FTP
  2. SNMP
  3. ARP
  4. SMTP

75. Which technique enables a single network address to span multiple physical networks?

Answers:

  1. Multihoming
  2. Multicasting
  3. Multitasking
  4. Subnetting
  5. Supernetting

1,588 total views, 5 views today

Upwork Networking

Networking Concepts Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which of the following ranges are reserved as private addresses?

Answers:

  1. 192.168.0.0 – 192.255.255.255
  2. 172.16.0.0 – 172.255.255.255
  3. 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255
  4. 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255

2. What is a checksum?

Answers:

  1. An error detection technique
  2. A network troubleshooting device
  3. Another name for protocol header
  4. Another name for protocol trailer

3. What is multiplexing?

Answers:

  1. Allowing multiple senders and receivers to share a single channel
  2. Allowing multiple senders and receivers to share a single media
  3. Allowing bi-directional communication

4. According to the OSI model, at which layer are network addresses assigned?

Answers:

  1. Session
  2. Data Link
  3. Presentation
  4. Network

5. According to the OSI model, which layer addresses the issue of network topologies (star, ring, bus etc)?

Answers:

  1. Network
  2. Data Link
  3. Transport
  4. Physical

6. What is the IEEE 802.3 standard related to?

Answers:

  1. Definition of the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer
  2. Token Ring
  3. Token Bus
  4. Ethernet

7. What is the maximum transmission speed of CAT 5 cable?

Answers:

  1. 10 Mbps
  2. 16 Mbps
  3. 100 Mbps
  4. 1000 Mbps

8. Which of the following is an ‘end-to-end’ layer?

Answers:

  1. Physical
  2. Data Link
  3. Network
  4. Transport

9. What is attenuation?

Answers:

  1. Distortion of the signal due to noise
  2. Distortion of the signal due to Electro Magnetic Interference
  3. Weakening of the signal in a cable over a distance
  4. Cross Talk

10. Old mainframe computers were an example of ______?

Answers:

  1. Distributed computing
  2. Client server computing
  3. Peer to peer computing
  4. Centralized computing

11. At which layer of the OSI model, does HTTP operate?

Answers:

  1. Application
  2. Transport
  3. Session
  4. Presentation

12. Which of the following is a disadvantage of Client Server networks?

Answers:

  1. They have poor security
  2. Data is not centrally organized
  3. Centralized administration is not possible
  4. They require high investment in the form of purchase of a server

13. Which cable used for RJ11 connectors?

Answers:

  1. Thin Coaxial Cable
  2. Thick Coaxial Cable
  3. Unshielded Twisted Pair Cable
  4. Telephone Cable

14. What is the speed of a E1 line?

Answers:

  1. 128 kbps
  2. 144 kbps
  3. 2.048 Mbps
  4. 1.544 Mbps

15. How many bits of the MAC address are used by OUI portion?

Answers:

  1. 32 bits
  2. 48 bits
  3. 24 bits
  4. 16 bits

16. What do you call a communication system in which data can be sent in both directions at the same time?

Answers:

  1. Half Duplex
  2. Full Duplex
  3. Asynchronous
  4. Synchronous

17. At which layer of the OSI model, does a World Wide Web browser operate?

Answers:

  1. Application
  2. Transport
  3. Session
  4. Presentation

18. Which of the following services is feasible using standard ISDN?

Answers:

  1. Fax
  2. Voice Telephony
  3. Data Transfer
  4. Video Conferencing
  5. All of the above

19. What is ATM (Asynchronous Transfer Mode)?

Answers:

  1. It is a WAN technology based on frequency division multiplexing that uses fixed size packets known as cells
  2. It is a WAN technology based on time division multiplexing that uses variable size packets
  3. It is a WAN technology based on time division multiplexing that uses fixed size packets known as cells
  4. It is a virtual circuit based WAN technology

20. What is the maximum speed supported by a standard ISDN BRI?

Answers:

  1. 64 kbps
  2. 128 kbps
  3. 256 kbps
  4. 1.544 mbps

21. Which media access technique does Ethernet use?

Answers:

  1. CSMA/CA
  2. CSMA/CD
  3. Tokens

22. What are PPP and SLIP most commonly used for?

Answers:

  1. Connecting to the Internet through DSL lines
  2. Connecting to the Internet through telephone lines
  3. Connecting to the Internet through fibre optic lines
  4. Connecting to the Internet using wireless modems

23. How is a unique MAC address assigned to a Network Card?

Answers:

  1. It is built into the card when the card is manufactured
  2. The network administrator must assign the address
  3. A unique address is automatically assigned when the card drivers are installed
  4. A unique address is automatically assigned whenver you boot up the computer

24. According to the OSI model, which layer performs compression and decompression?

Answers:

  1. Application
  2. Presentation
  3. Session
  4. Data Link

25. What is the full form of PPPoE?

Answers:

  1. Point to Point Protocol over Exchange
  2. Point to Point Password over Ethernet
  3. Point to Point Protocol over Ethernet
  4. None of the above

26. In a TCP/IP network, which of the following must be unique for each computer in the network?

Answers:

  1. IP address
  2. Subnet mask
  3. Default Gateway

27. For which layer of the OSI model has the Ethernet standard been defined?

Answers:

  1. Physical
  2. Data Link
  3. Network
  4. Transport
  5. Both a and b
  6. both b and c

28. In a TCP/IP network, which layers are basically absent?

Answers:

  1. Session, Presentation
  2. Transport, Session
  3. Session, Application
  4. Presentation, Application

29. What is the maximum number of valid IP addresses in a class B network?

Answers:

  1. 65536
  2. 65534
  3. 256
  4. 254

30. According to the OSI model, which layer performs parity checking and error checking?

Answers:

  1. Session
  2. Data Link
  3. Presentation
  4. Physical

31. What is the IEEE 802.5 standard related to?

Answers:

  1. Definition of the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer
  2. Token Ring
  3. Token Bus
  4. Ethernet

32. According to the OSI model, which layer performs encryption and decryption?

Answers:

  1. Application
  2. Presentation
  3. Session
  4. Data Link

33. What do you call a fibre optic cable in which the light signals follow a single path?

Answers:

  1. Multi mode
  2. Single mode
  3. Broadband
  4. Baseband

34. Which of the following protocols does not support Routing?

Answers:

  1. IPX/SPX
  2. TCP/IP
  3. NetBEUI

35. What is the full form of DSL?

Answers:

  1. Digital Subscription Line
  2. Digital Super Link
  3. Digital Speed Line
  4. Digital Subscriber Line

36. Which type of network uses dual fibre-optic rings?

Answers:

  1. Ethernet
  2. FDDI
  3. Token Ring
  4. ATM

37. Which protocol uses port number 23?

Answers:

  1. FTP
  2. SMTP
  3. Telnet
  4. HTTP

38. At which layer does a Bridge operate?

Answers:

  1. Network
  2. Physical
  3. Session
  4. Data Link

39. What do you call a fibre optic cable in which the light signals follow multiple paths?

Answers:

  1. Multi mode
  2. Single mode
  3. Broadband
  4. Baseband

40. According to the OSI model, which layer performs the function of transforming bits of data into electrical signals and sending those signals across the media?

Answers:

  1. Network
  2. Data Link
  3. Transport
  4. Physical

41. What do you call a communication system which uses start and stop bits to synchronize the sender and receiver?

Answers:

  1. Half Duplex
  2. Full Duplex
  3. Asynchronous
  4. Synchronous

42. Which of the following is mentioned in the correct sequence (from lowest layer to highest)?

Answers:

  1. Physical, Network, Data Link, Session, Transport, Presentation, Application
  2. Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application
  3. Transport, Session, Data Link, Application, Presentation, Network, Physical
  4. Physical, Data Link, Network, Transport, Presentation, Session, Application

43. Which cabling media does not suffer from Electro-Magnetic Interference(EMI)?

Answers:

  1. Thin Coaxial Cable
  2. Thick Coaxial Cable
  3. Unshielded Twisted Pair Cable
  4. Fibre Optic Cable

44. What do you call a communication system which uses a clocking mechanism to synchronize the sender and receiver?

Answers:

  1. Half Duplex
  2. Full Duplex
  3. Asynchronous
  4. Synchronous

45. What is the binary value of hex BF?

Answers:

  1. 10100000
  2. 10111111
  3. 11111000
  4. 00111011

46. Which layer of the OSI model corresponds to IP?

Answers:

  1. Network
  2. Physical
  3. Session
  4. Data Link

47. How many bearer (B) and data (D) channels are there in a standard ISDN BRI service?

Answers:

  1. 2B + 1D channel
  2. 16B + 1D channel
  3. 23B + 1D channel
  4. 24B + 2D channels

48. According to the OSI model, which layer is responsible for routing?

Answers:

  1. Session
  2. Data Link
  3. Presentation
  4. Network

49. At which layer of the OSI model, does FTP operate?

Answers:

  1. Application
  2. Transport
  3. Session
  4. Presentation

50. What is the purpose of twisting the pairs of cables together in a UTP cable?

Answers:

  1. To reduce attenuation
  2. To reduce cross talk
  3. To reduce Electro-Magnetic Interference
  4. To reduce noise

51. What is the IEEE 802.2 standard related to?

Answers:

  1. Definition of the Logical Link Control (LLC) sublayer
  2. Token Ring
  3. Token Bus
  4. Ethernet

52. Which layer is broken down into the MAC and LLC sublayers?

Answers:

  1. Network
  2. Data Link
  3. Session
  4. Physical

53. According to the OSI model, which layer addresses the issues of communication media and cable connectors etc?

Answers:

  1. Network
  2. Data Link
  3. Transport
  4. Physical

54. At which layer of the OSI model, does SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) operate?

Answers:

  1. Application
  2. Transport
  3. Session
  4. Presentation

55. What do you call a medium which only allows a single channel?

Answers:

  1. Multi mode
  2. Single mode
  3. Broadband
  4. Baseband

56. Which layer of the OSI model corresponds to TCP?

Answers:

  1. Network
  2. Transport
  3. Session
  4. Data Link

57. What is the X.25 protocol?

Answers:

  1. It is a packet switching WAN protocol based on public data networks
  2. It is a packet switching WAN protocol based on public telephone networks
  3. It is a packet switching wireless LAN protocol
  4. It is a packet switching wireless WAN protocol

58. What is the purpose of the shielding in a Shielded Twisted Pair (STP) cable?

Answers:

  1. To reduce attenuation
  2. To reduce cross talk
  3. To reduce Electro-Magnetic Interference

59. What does CSMA/CA stand for?

Answers:

  1. Collision Sense Multiple Access/ Collision Avoidance
  2. Carrier Sense Multiple Access/ Collision Avoidance
  3. Carrier Sense Multiple Access/ Collision Arbitration
  4. Collision Sense Multiple Access/ Carrier Avoidance

60. What is the recommended maximum length(approx) for a segment of UTP cable?

Answers:

  1. 500m
  2. 1km
  3. 100m
  4. 180m

61. Which of the following is a Fiber Optic Connector?

Answers:

  1. RJ-11
  2. RJ-45
  3. MT-RJ
  4. None of the above

62. Which network topology does FDDI use?

Answers:

  1. Star
  2. Ring
  3. Bus
  4. Mesh

63. Which of the following is a disadvantage of Peer Networks?

Answers:

  1. They require high investment in the form of purchase of a server
  2. They require high investment in the form of purchase of a specialized network operating system
  3. They usually require a network administrator
  4. They have poor network security

64. According to the OSI model, which layer is responsible for sending acknowledgements?

Answers:

  1. Session
  2. Transport
  3. Data Link
  4. Presentation

65. At which layer of the OSI model, does a Proxy Server operate?

Answers:

  1. Application
  2. Transport
  3. Session
  4. Presentation

66. Which of the following is used as a high speed network backbone media?

Answers:

  1. Thin Coaxial Cable
  2. Thick Coaxial Cable
  3. Unshielded Twisted Pair Cable
  4. Fibre Optic Cable

67. According to the OSI model, which layer provides services such as file transfer, database access and email?

Answers:

  1. Application
  2. Presentation
  3. Session
  4. Data Link

68. Which of the following is false with regard to assymetric DSL?

Answers:

  1. It uses standard copper telephone cables
  2. It delivers much higher speeds than a serial modem
  3. It uses more channels for downloading data and fewer for uploading
  4. It employs analog modulation to deliver data from your PC to the telephone service provider

69. What is the binary value of hex 9F?

Answers:

  1. 10011111
  2. 10111000
  3. 11110001
  4. 10001111

70. What does CSMA/CD stand for?

Answers:

  1. Collision Sense Multiple Access/ Collision Detection
  2. Carrier Sense Multiple Access/ Collision Deterence
  3. Carrier Sense Multiple Access/ Collision Detection
  4. Collision Sense Multiple Access/ Carrier Detection

71. Which media suffers least from attenuation?

Answers:

  1. Thin Coaxial Cable
  2. Thick Coaxial Cable
  3. Unshielded Twisted Pair Cable
  4. Fibre Optic Cable

72. At which layer does a Hub operate?

Answers:

  1. Network
  2. Physical
  3. Session
  4. Data Link

73. According to the OSI model, which layer addresses the issue of connections (connection-oriented/ connection-less communication)?

Answers:

  1. Physical
  2. Data Link
  3. Network
  4. Transport

74. What is the speed of a T1 line?

Answers:

  1. 128 kbps
  2. 144 kbps
  3. 2.048 Mbps
  4. 1.544 Mbps

75. What do you call a medium which allows multiple channels?

Answers:

  1. Multi mode
  2. Single mode
  3. Broadband
  4. Baseband

76. Which protocol is connection oriented?

Answers:

  1. TCP
  2. IP
  3. UDP
  4. ICMP

77. Which of the following is a Class A network?

Answers:

  1. 172.0.0.0
  2. 126.0.0.0
  3. 192.0.0.0
  4. 225.0.0.0

78. Which cable uses RJ45 connectors?

Answers:

  1. Thin Coaxial Cable
  2. Thick Coaxial Cable
  3. Unshielded Twisted Pair Cable
  4. Shielded Twisted Pair Cable

79. At which layer does a Router operate?

Answers:

  1. Network
  2. Physical
  3. Transport
  4. Data Link

80. What is a token?

Answers:

  1. A part of the packet trailer in a token ring network
  2. A part of the packet header in a token ring network
  3. A special packet which travels from computer to computer in a token ring network

81. What are V.42, V.22, V.42bis?

Answers:

  1. IEEE standards
  2. Modem standards
  3. CCITT standards
  4. MAC addressing formats
  5. Digital Certificate formats

82. According to the OSI model, which layer breaks down the data into frames?

Answers:

  1. Network
  2. Data Link
  3. Transport
  4. Physical

83. Which network topology does Ethernet use?

Answers:

  1. Star
  2. Ring
  3. Bus
  4. Mesh

84. What is the speed of ISDN PRI service with 30B + 1D channel?

Answers:

  1. 2.048 Mbps
  2. 1.544 Mbps
  3. 144 Kbps
  4. 128 Kbps

85. Which type of connector is mostly used these days for connectivity with the network card?

Answers:

  1. RJ-11
  2. BNC
  3. RJ-45
  4. RJ-33

86. What is the purpose of the MAC sublayer?

Answers:

  1. Sending acknowledgements whenever packets are received
  2. Performing data compression
  3. Performing encryption and decryption
  4. Controlliing the way multiple devices share the same media

87. Which of the following cables can be used to connect a PC and a Hub?

Answers:

  1. Straight cable
  2. Cross cable
  3. Rollover cable
  4. Any of the above

88. What is the binary value of 157?

Answers:

  1. 11000111
  2. 10111001
  3. 11100011
  4. 10011101

89. Which one of the following devices breaks up a Broadcast Domain by default?

Answers:

  1. Hub
  2. Repeater
  3. Router
  4. Switch

90. What do you call a communication system in which data cannot be sent in both directions at the same time?

Answers:

  1. Half Duplex
  2. Full Duplex
  3. Asynchronous
  4. Synchronous

91. What does ISDN stand for?

Answers:

  1. Information Systems Digital Network
  2. Integrated Services Digital Network
  3. Internet Services Digital Network
  4. Internet Systems Data Network

92. How many twisted pairs does a UTP Cat 5 cable have?

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 4
  3. 6
  4. 8

93. According to the OSI model, which layer addresses the issue of switching (packet switching, message switching etc)?

Answers:

  1. Session
  2. Data Link
  3. Presentation
  4. Network

1,526 total views, 3 views today

Upwork Networking

Internet Security Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which of the following are the components of a UTM appliance?

Answers:

  1. Firewall
  2. Gateway Antispam
  3. Gateway Antivirus
  4. IDS/IPS

2. Which of the following are Virus propagation techniques?

Answers:

  1. Master Boot Record
  2. File Infection
  3. Server Boot Record
  4. Macro Infection
  5. Slave Boot Record

3. Which of the following measures are taken to enhance the security of the system? (Select all that apply)

Answers:

  1. Operating System based hardening
  2. Network Based hardening
  3. Application Based hardening
  4. Timely Refining of Security Policies

4. Which of the following methods can be used for Network hardening?

Answers:

  1. Evaluating IDS
  2. E-mail Encryption
  3. Backup of the Mail Server.
  4. Refining ACLs on routers and switches.
  5. Up-to-date OS and patches of Network devices.

5. Which of the following are signs of Security breach?

Answers:

  1. Data modification and deletion.
  2. System performance issues.
  3. Different traffic patterns.
  4. Large number of failed log in attempts.

6. Which of the following are the placement modes of an IDS/IPS?

Answers:

  1. Inline
  2. Hybrid
  3. Tap
  4. SPAN

7. Which of the following are the advantages of Honeypots?

Answers:

  1. Intelligent IDS
  2. Distracts Hackers
  3. Encrypts Data
  4. Decrypts Data

8. Which of the following things should be kept in mind while managing passwords?

Answers:

  1. Dictionary words should be used.
  2. Easily guessed passwords should not be used.
  3. Passwords should not be stored on a plain view.
  4. Passwords should be changed once a month.
  5. Passwords should be shared.

9. Which of the following Symmetric encryption algorithms is/are supported by S/MIME?

Answers:

  1. RSA
  2. DES
  3. 3DES
  4. SHA-1

10. Which of the following are Email Security protocols?

Answers:

  1. S/MIME
  2. PEM
  3. STE
  4. PME

11. Which of the following can be classified as passive attacks?

Answers:

  1. SYN attacks.
  2. Vulnerability scans.
  3. ARP Spoofing.
  4. DoS Attack
  5. Sniffing.

12. Select the common VPN protocols.

Answers:

  1. PPP
  2. L2TP
  3. LT2P
  4. PPTP

13. Which of the following are Vulnerability assessment tools?

Answers:

  1. TCPDUMP
  2. Nmap
  3. Wireshark
  4. Nessus

14. Which of the following are the components of IPSec?

Answers:

  1. Authentication Header.
  2. Authorization Header
  3. Encapsulated Payload.
  4. Encapsulating Security Payload.

15. Which of the following appliances help/s in filtering virus packets?

Answers:

  1. Firewalls
  2. Antivirus Engines
  3. Routers
  4. UTM
  5. IDS/IPS

16. Select the objectives of E-mail security.

Answers:

  1. Verifying the source of a message.
  2. Classifying attachments.
  3. E-mail backups.
  4. Message integrity.

17. Which of the following protocols uses UDP:

Answers:

  1. HTTP
  2. DNS
  3. TFTP
  4. FTP

18. Below are the given statements, which statement shows the breach of Confidentiality:

Answers:

  1. Hacker using sniffer tools to view the packets in a network.
  2. Important data deleted from a document.
  3. SYN attack on a host.
  4. Brute Force attack on server.

19. Which of the following goals cannot be achieved with Symmetric cryptography?

Answers:

  1. Non-repudiation
  2. Confidentiality
  3. Integrity
  4. Availability.

20. The ability to exploit a vulnerability is called:

Answers:

  1. Threat
  2. Weakness
  3. Permission Escalation
  4. Risk

21. Allen wants to sign a message which he is sending to Mark. Which key will Allen use to sign the message?

Answers:

  1. Allen’s Public key.
  2. Allen’s Private key.
  3. Mark’s Public key.
  4. Mark’s Private key.

22. Which protocol helps in securing LDAP?

Answers:

  1. SSL/TLS
  2. SLDAP
  3. LDAPS
  4. SSH

23. By which of the following third parties are Digital Certificates signed?

Answers:

  1. Digital Certificate Signing Authority
  2. Certificate Authority
  3. Certificate Signing Authority
  4. Digital Signing Authority.

24. Which of the following Asymmetric encryption algorithms is supported by S/MIME?

Answers:

  1. RSA
  2. DES
  3. 3DES
  4. SHA-1

25. Which of the following is the standard certificate?

Answers:

  1. C.509
  2. X.505
  3. X.509
  4. C.505

26. Which of the following is an application attack?

Answers:

  1. Buffer Overflow
  2. DNS Poisoning
  3. LAND
  4. Brute Force

27. In how many phases is a IPSec VPN connection completed while making a VPN connection with a Security product?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 2
  3. 3
  4. 4

28. In which of the following protocols does an SYN attack help to find a weakness?

Answers:

  1. HTTP
  2. RIP
  3. TCP/IP
  4. FTP

29. Which of the following authentication protocols are used to encrypt passwords?

Answers:

  1. CHAP
  2. APP
  3. RAP
  4. ARAP

30. Which protocol is used by TACACS+?

Answers:

  1. TCP
  2. UDP
  3. IP
  4. AIX

31. Which of the following is an Asymmetric algorithm?

Answers:

  1. MD5
  2. El Gamal
  3. IDEA
  4. SHA-1

32. Which of the following helps us to block attacks on a single machine?

Answers:

  1. Host Based IDS
  2. Network Based IDS
  3. Host Based IPS
  4. Network Based IPS

33. How many keys are required if two parties communicate using Asymmetric cryptography?

Answers:

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. Four

34. What is the key length of Triple DES?

Answers:

  1. 56
  2. 156
  3. Variable Length
  4. 168

35. What are the features of an IPS?

Answers:

  1. Fault Tolerance.
  2. Minimal Overhead.
  3. Timely Alerting Mechanism.
  4. Anomaly based.

36. Which key is used to decrypt the message in PKI?

Answers:

  1. Public Key
  2. Private Key
  3. Pre-shared Secret
  4. Hybrid Key

37. Which of the following statements resembles Trojan horses?

Answers:

  1. Self Replication
  2. Virus Infections
  3. Installation of Backdoor Programs.
  4. Displaying Unauthorized Advertisements

38. Which port is used by PPTP?

Answers:

  1. 1702
  2. 1701
  3. 1723
  4. 1724

39. Below are the given statements, which statement shows the breach of Availability:

Answers:

  1. SYN attack on a server.
  2. Deleting important contents from a document.
  3. Decrypting a credit card during transmission.
  4. Using wrong password to access authorized documents.

40. A criminal who breaks into computers maliciously is known as

Answers:

  1. Black Hat Hacker.
  2. Grey Hat Hacker
  3. White Hat Hacker
  4. Script Kiddie

41. What is function of IPS?

Answers:

  1. NATing Device
  2. A device to block intrusion attacks
  3. A device to scan for Virus
  4. Firewall Technology

42. The process of switching protocols between routing devices is called

Answers:

  1. Exchanging
  2. Protocol Exchanging
  3. Switching
  4. Protocol Switching

43. Which of the following are Transport Layer Security protocols?

Answers:

  1. SHTTP
  2. SSL
  3. SOCKS
  4. IPSec

44. A Brute Force attack

Answers:

  1. sends SYN packets.
  2. sends Spam mails.
  3. prevents the system from responding.
  4. discovers the passwords.

45. Which of the following statements is true of Tunneling?

Answers:

  1. Data is unencrypted
  2. Only passwords are encrypted.
  3. Data part is encrypted.
  4. Contents of the protocol are encapsulated.

46. Which of the following detect/s security weaknesses in a remote or local host?

Answers:

  1. Worms
  2. Antivirus
  3. Scanner
  4. Adwares

47. By which of the following can the injection of bogus routes into the core network be prevented ?

Answers:

  1. Routed Protocol Authentication
  2. Routing Protocol Authentication
  3. Router Authentication
  4. Route Authentication

48. Mike wants to secure the data on his personal computer. Which of the following options will he choose to secure the data?

Answers:

  1. Archiving the data
  2. Compression
  3. Hide
  4. Encryption

49. Which protocol is used to secure the WAP communication?

Answers:

  1. Secure Wireless Communication.
  2. WAP Transport Layer Security
  3. Transport Layer Security
  4. Wireless Transport Layer Security

50. The part of a company’s intranet which is extended to users outside the company is called:

Answers:

  1. Internet
  2. Intranet
  3. Exposed Intranet
  4. Extranet

51. The concept of allowing access to resources only to those permitted is known as

Answers:

  1. Resource Security
  2. Accounting
  3. Authentication
  4. Authorization

52. How many keys are required if two parties communicate using Symmetric cryptography?

Answers:

  1. One
  2. Two
  3. Three
  4. Four

53. Which of the following keys helps us in the verification of the Digital Signature?

Answers:

  1. Private Key
  2. Public Key
  3. Public and Private Key
  4. Digital Key

54. What is RBL in E-mail Security?

Answers:

  1. Realtime Blacking List
  2. Realtime Blocking List
  3. Realtime Blackhole List

55. Which of the following techniques is used to approach security in Java?

Answers:

  1. Blackbox
  2. Sandboxing
  3. Whitebox
  4. Java Applets

56. What does RBL contain?

Answers:

  1. IP addresses of mail server
  2. IP addresses of open relay mail servers
  3. IP addresses of closed relay mail servers
  4. Vulnerable ports

57. What is RSA in cryptography?

Answers:

  1. Riven, Shamir, Adleman
  2. Rivest, Shamir, Adleman
  3. Rivest, Shamid, Adleman
  4. Rivest, Shamir, Ademan

58. Which of the following are the key principles of Internet Security?

Answers:

  1. Confidentiality, Identification, Availability
  2. Confidentiality, Integrity, Authentication
  3. Confidentiality, Integrity, Availability
  4. Confidentiality, Identification, Authentication

59. Which of the following is created to serve as a snare for intruders?

Answers:

  1. Honey Pots.
  2. IDS/IPS
  3. Firewalls
  4. Vulnerability Assessment Tools

60. What is S/MIME?

Answers:

  1. Secure Multipurpose Intranet Mail Extensions
  2. Secure Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions
  3. Secure Multipurpose Internet Message Extensions
  4. Secure Multipurpose Intranet Message Extensions

61. Which of the following can be transmitted through an E-mail?

Answers:

  1. Viruses
  2. Trojan Horses
  3. Worms
  4. Malicious Codes
  5. All of the above

62. Joe wants to secure his client’s Web Server. Which of the following measures will he take?

Answers:

  1. Managing Access Control
  2. Eliminating Scripting Vulnerabilities
  3. Maintaining Integrity.
  4. Blocking Browser Exploits.

63. Which of the following is Application-level security protocol are used for communications session security?

Answers:

  1. SSH
  2. SSL/TLS
  3. Both A and B
  4. None of the above

64. What is a UTM appliance?

Answers:

  1. Unified Threat Manager.
  2. Unified Threat Management.
  3. Universal Threat Management.
  4. Unique Threat Management.

65. In which of the following does Buffer Overflow help us to find weaknesses?

Answers:

  1. Hardware
  2. Software
  3. Firewalls
  4. Routers

66. In which of the following attacks, sending a large number of spoofed ICMP ECHO requests to broadcast address?

Answers:

  1. SYN attack.
  2. land.c attack
  3. teardrop.c attack
  4. SMURF attack

67. Which port does IKE key negotiation protocol use?

Answers:

  1. TCP 4500
  2. UDP 4500
  3. UDP 500
  4. UDP 550

68. Which type of authentication is.”Something the user has ” ?

Answers:

  1. Single Factor
  2. Dual Factor
  3. Triple Factor
  4. Hybrid Factor

69. Which protocol is used by RADIUS?

Answers:

  1. UDP
  2. TCP
  3. IP
  4. AIX

70. A positive detection of result that is false or untrue is called

Answers:

  1. True Positive
  2. Event Detection
  3. False Positive
  4. False Negative

71. Which of the following are the components of PKI?

Answers:

  1. Certificate Authority.
  2. Organizational Registration Authorities
  3. Certificate Holders
  4. Clients that validate digital signatures.

72. Which of the following protocols does not help in securing the FTP?

Answers:

  1. SSL
  2. SSFTP
  3. FTPS
  4. S/FTP

73. By which of the following methods can social engineering be curbed by?

Answers:

  1. Instaling more than 2 firewalls.
  2. User Education
  3. Installing 2 antiviruses
  4. Installing IPS.

74. Which of the following Symmetric algorithms has variable key length?

Answers:

  1. AES
  2. Triple DES
  3. IDEA
  4. Rivest Cipher 4

75. Which of the following statement shows the breach of Integrity:

Answers:

  1. Viewing packets using sniffer tools in a network.
  2. Encrypting a document.
  3. Spoof attack on a host.
  4. Important data deleted from a document.

76. Select the drawbacks of Symmetric key cryptography.

Answers:

  1. It can’t implement non-repudiation
  2. It is scalable
  3. Key distribution is easy in it
  4. It is less secure

1,011 total views, 3 views today

Upwork Networking

Firewall Concepts Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which of the following is helped by Logging?

Answers:

  1. Health of the Firewalls
  2. Status of the Firewalls
  3. Troubleshooting the issues
  4. Monitoring the Firewalls

2. Which of the protocols listed below will you scan at the Gateway to block the Spam Mails?

Answers:

  1. HTTP
  2. SMTP
  3. POP3
  4. IMAP

3. Which of the following are Encryption algorithms?

Answers:

  1. SHA1
  2. AES
  3. MD5
  4. 3DES
  5. DES
  6. CAST

4. Digital Certificates are used for___________.

Answers:

  1. Encryption
  2. Verification
  3. Attacking
  4. Authentication

5. Which of the following tools can be used to monitor the Packets?

Answers:

  1. Wireshark
  2. Nessus
  3. TCPDUMP
  4. Snort

6. Which of the sources listed below are secured by Desktop Firewalls?

Answers:

  1. Personal Desktop
  2. Scanners
  3. Printers
  4. Personal Files and folders

7. Port-Scanning tools helps the administrator in which of the following?

Answers:

  1. Finding the vulnerabilities
  2. Crashing the Firewall.
  3. Building a strong security policy.
  4. To test the Firewalls configuration.

8. Which of the reasons listed below lead to common attacks?

Answers:

  1. Un-authorized mail relaying
  2. Application bugs
  3. Operating System bugs
  4. Spoofing

9. Which of the following can lead to the denial of service attacks?

Answers:

  1. Unplugging the cable of the main switch
  2. Spoofing the Packets
  3. Sending SYN Packets using the Zombies
  4. Shutting down the server being accessed

10. Which protocol is used by the DNS?

Answers:

  1. TCP
  2. UDP
  3. IP
  4. IPX

11. Which of the following are hash algorithms?

Answers:

  1. MD5
  2. AES
  3. SHA 1
  4. AES-128
  5. AES-256

12. By using which command can you see the active TCP connections?

Answers:

  1. netstat
  2. ipconfig
  3. ifconfig
  4. traceroute

13. What is the mode of operation of Firewalls?

Answers:

  1. Bridge mode
  2. Route mode
  3. Hybrid Mode
  4. VPN Mode

14. The______________ TCP flag can launch a DoS attack.

Answers:

  1. ACK
  2. FIN
  3. SYN
  4. SYN/ACK
  5. URG

15. Which layer of the OSI model is used by Packet filtering?

Answers:

  1. Transport Layer
  2. Network Layer
  3. Session layer
  4. Application Layer

16. What exactly is a DoS?

Answers:

  1. It is a type of Attack
  2. It is a type of Virus
  3. It is a type of Firewalls
  4. It is a Security Policy

17. What exactly is spoofing?

Answers:

  1. Sending a lot of mails on the same email address
  2. Sending a lot of SYN Packets
  3. Pretending to be someone you are not
  4. Sending spam mails

18. Which of the following things should be kept in mind while troubleshooting the Firewall problems?

Answers:

  1. Verification of the problem
  2. Status of the Firewall
  3. Firewall Logs
  4. Firewall Configuration
  5. All of the above

19. Which of the following tools can be used to find vulnerabilities?

Answers:

  1. Ethereal
  2. Nessus
  3. TCPDUMP
  4. SNORT

20. Over which of the following can a VPN be established?

Answers:

  1. WAN Link
  2. Internet Link
  3. DSL Link
  4. Wireless connectivity
  5. All of the above

21. What are the functions of a Desktop Firewall?

Answers:

  1. It blocks the worms replicating in the Network
  2. It Controls the Access
  3. It blocks the attacks on a Desktop machine
  4. It scans the system for viruses

22. Which of the following ports is used by IMAP?

Answers:

  1. 143
  2. 153
  3. 159
  4. 25
  5. 110

23. What is the action on Packet when we apply the action, REJECT?

Answers:

  1. The Packet is dropped
  2. The ACK Packet is sent
  3. The FIN Packet is sent
  4. An error Packet is sent when a matched packet is detected
  5. All of the above

24. What exactly is the Stateful Packet Filtering?

Answers:

  1. It is an attack
  2. It is a Firewall Technology
  3. It is a Security Policy

25. Which of the following are the functions of a Firewall?

Answers:

  1. It filters the packet
  2. It protects the resources
  3. It records and reports the events
  4. All of the above

26. Generally, a Firewall can not be managed by which of the following:

Answers:

  1. GUI
  2. CLI
  3. SSH
  4. FTP

27. Suppose Matt is the Network Security Engineer for XYZ Company. He is asked by his manager to create a security policy in the Firewalls so that host_A(172.16.0.3) may be able to access the HTTP service from the internet cloud. NAT rule already exists for the host. How will Matt create the security policy in the Firewalls?

Answers:

  1. Source: Host_A(172.16.0.3), Destination:Any , Service: HTTP(80), Action :Accept
  2. Source: Host_A(172.16.0.3), Destination:Any , Service: POP3(110), Action :Accept
  3. Source:Any, Destination: Host_A(172.16.0.3), Service: HTTP(80), Action :Accept
  4. Source: Host_A(172.16.0.3), Destination:Any , Service: HTTP(80), Action :Drop
  5. All of the above

28. Suppose Eric is a Network Security Engineer in ABC Company. He is asked by his manager to block the access to unauthorized web sites being accessed by the users of the company. Can these unauthorized web sites be blocked with the Firewalls?

Answers:

  1. Yes, the sites can be blocked
  2. No, the sites cannot be blocked

29. What does sniffing mean?

Answers:

  1. Encrypting a data
  2. Decrypting a data
  3. Encryption algorithm
  4. Capturing data traveling across the network

30. Which type of Firewalls keep a track on the state of the connection?

Answers:

  1. Application Firewall
  2. Packet Filtering Firewall
  3. Stateful Packet Filtering Firewall
  4. Session Firewall

31. At which layer does the Circuit-Level Firewall work?

Answers:

  1. Session Layer
  2. Data Link Layer
  3. Transport Layer
  4. Physical Layer
  5. Network Layer

32. Which zone is the un-trusted zone in Firewalls architecture?

Answers:

  1. Local Area Network(LAN)
  2. Wide Area Network(WAN)
  3. DMZ
  4. RAS

33. What are the advantages of Stateful Inspection Firewall?

Answers:

  1. High Performance
  2. Security
  3. Transparency
  4. All of the above

34. Auditing is the process of tracking ________________________ on a system.

Answers:

  1. events
  2. errors
  3. access
  4. authentication
  5. All the above

35. What is the sequence in which the rules are executed in the Rule Base?

Answers:

  1. From the bottom of the rule base to the top of the rule base
  2. From the top of the rule base to the bottom of the rule base
  3. Random
  4. According to the priority

36. Suppose Adrian is the Network Security Engineer for ABC Company. He is asked by his manager to create a security policy in the Firewalls to open the HTTP service for a host_A(192.168.1.2) so that host_A may be able to access the Web Server(172.16.0.2). NAT rule already exists for the host. How will Adrian create the security policy in the Firewalls?
Answers:

  1. Source: Web_Server(172.16.0.2), Destination(192.168.1.2): host_A, Service: HTTP(80), Action :Accept
  2. Source: Host_A(192.168.1.2), Destination:Web_Server(172.16.0.2), Service: HTTP(80), Action :Reject
  3. Source: Host_A(192.168.1.2), Destination:Web_Server(172.16.0.2), Service: SMTP(25), Action :Accept
  4. Source: Host_A(192.168.1.2), Destination:Web_Server(172.16.0.2), Service: HTTP(80), Action :Accept
  5. None of the above

37. Which command is used to determine the route taken by a Packet?

Answers:

  1. netstat
  2. ipconfig
  3. ifconfig
  4. traceroute

38. Syslog protocol is used for __________.

Answers:

  1. managing the Firewall
  2. event notification
  3. encryption
  4. VPN

39. State whether True or False.

When a rule is matched for a particular incoming/outgoing Packet and is executed, the Firewalls look for another rule in the rule base for the same Packet.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

40. What are the advantages of DMZ?

Answers:

  1. It isolates the incoming traffic
  2. It enhances the security of the network
  3. It implements the multilayered approach to secure the resources
  4. All of the above

41. Which Packet is sent by the source to initiate the connection in TCP 3-way handshake?

Answers:

  1. SYN
  2. SYN/ACK
  3. ACK
  4. All of the above

42. You are asked by your manager to publish a web server.

Which type of NATing will you use so that the Web Server can be accessed from the Internet?

Answers:

  1. Static NAT
  2. Dynamic NAT
  3. Source based NAT
  4. Destination based NAT

43. Which of the following can be categorized as a threat to secured resources?

Answers:

  1. Un-authorized access
  2. Impersonation
  3. Denial of service
  4. All of the above

44. Which among the following Firewalls is the slowest?

Answers:

  1. Packet filtering
  2. Stateful Packet inspection
  3. Application
  4. Session

45. A TCP connection is complete when it receives the_____________Packet.

Answers:

  1. SYN
  2. ACK
  3. SYN-ACK
  4. URG

46. What is the CIA concept?

Answers:

  1. Confidentiality, Integrity and Access
  2. Confidentiality, Integrity and Administration
  3. Continuity, Integrity and Authentication
  4. Confidentiality, Integrity and Availability

47. Suppose Mark is the Network Security Engineer for ABC Company. He is asked by his manager to create a security policy in the Firewalls so that their internal network ABC_INTERNAL(172.16.0.0/24)may be able to access the DNS service from the server DNS_SERVER(192.168.1.5). NAT rule already exists for the Network. How will Mark create the security policy in the Firewalls?

Answers:

  1. Source: ABC_INTERNAL(172.16.0.0/24), Destination: DNS_SERVER(192.168.1.5), Service: HTTP(80), Action :Accept
  2. Source: ABC_INTERNAL(172.16.0.0/24), Destination: DNS_SERVER(192.168.1.5), Service: DNS(53), Action :Accept
  3. Source:Any, Destination: ABC_INTERNAL(172.16.0.0/24), service DNS(53), Action :Accept
  4. Source: ABC_INTERNAL(172.16.0.0/24), Destination: DNS_SERVER(192.168.1.5), Service: HTTP(80), Action :Drop
  5. None of the above

48. Which of the following is a Firewall technology?

Answers:

  1. Packet Filters
  2. Network Address Translation Firewall
  3. Proxy Firewall
  4. Stateful Firewall
  5. All of the above

49. Which zone is the trusted zone in Firewalls architecture?

Answers:

  1. Local Area Network (LAN)
  2. Wide Area Network (WAN)
  3. DMZ
  4. RAS

50. Which of the following things should be kept in mind before implementing/configuring the Firewalls?

Answers:

  1. Network Diagram
  2. Traffic Flow
  3. Topology
  4. All of the above

51. Which of the following is a type of DoS attack?

Answers:

  1. TCP SYN attack
  2. Ping of Death
  3. SMURF attack
  4. All of the above

52. At which layer do the Proxy Firewalls function?

Answers:

  1. Session Layer
  2. Data Link Layer
  3. Transport Layer
  4. Application Layer
  5. None of the above

53. How many TCP flags are present in the Firewalls concept?

Answers:

  1. 3
  2. 2
  3. 5
  4. 8
  5. 6

54. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol is a type of__________.

Answers:

  1. VPN
  2. Firewall
  3. Encryption Technology
  4. Authentication

55. In a Stateful Inspection Firewall, the entries about the connection states are made in the_______________ table.

Answers:

  1. NAT Table
  2. State Table
  3. TCP/IP Table
  4. Connection Table
  5. ARP Table

56. What does RADIUS stand for?

Answers:

  1. Remote Authorized Dial-In User Service
  2. Remote Access Dial-In User Service
  3. Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service
  4. Remote Authentication Dial-In User System

57. What is Spoofing?

Answers:

  1. It is a Firewall Technology
  2. It is a Firewall Managing Technique
  3. It is a DOS attack
  4. It is Firewall Monitoring used while troubleshooting
  5. It is a technique used to gain unauthorized access to computers

58. What is the range of dynamic ports?

Answers:

  1. 1-1024
  2. 1024-2024
  3. 0-1023
  4. 49,152-65,535

59. State whether True or False.

The vulnerabilities in the Network/System can be exploited by threats.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

60. State whether True or False.

When a user makes a request to open some access, he should be allowed to get whatever is required.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

61. What does AAA stand for?

Answers:

  1. Authentication, Accounting and Administration
  2. Advance, Application and Administration
  3. Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting
  4. None of these

62. What is SSL?

Answers:

  1. Firewall Technology
  2. A type of Attack
  3. Encryption Technology
  4. Secure Site Linking

63. Suppose Sally is the Network Security Engineer for ABC Company. She is asked by her manager to create a security policy in the Firewalls so that their internal network ABC_INTERNAL(172.16.0.0/24) may be able to access the SMTP(25) service from the server MAIL_SERVER(192.168.1.15).NAT rule already exists for the network. How will Sally create the security policy in the Firewalls?

Answers:

  1. Source: ABC_INTERNAL(172.16.0.0/8),Destination: MAIL_SERVER(192.168.1.5), Service: SMTP(25), Action :Accept
  2. Source:ABC_INTERNAL(172.16.0.0/16), Destination:MAIL_SERVER(192.168.1.15), Service: SMTP(25), Action :Accept
  3. Source:ABC_INTERNAL(172.16.0.0/24), Destination:MAIL_SERVER(192.168.1.15), Service: SMTP(25), Action :Accept
  4. Source:ABC_INTERNAL(172.16.0.0/24), Destination:MAIL_SERVER(192.168.1.15), Service:POP3(110), Action :Accept
  5. None of the above

64. At which layer do the Firewalls generally work in the OSI model?

Answers:

  1. Network Layer
  2. Transport Layer
  3. Data Link Layer
  4. Physical Layer

65. State whether True or False.

The security of the Firewalls is a very important aspect.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

66. State whether True or False.

Logging should be enabled for all the rules in the Rule Base.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

67. Which command is used to check whether a particular host is live or not?

Answers:

  1. netstat
  2. ipconfig
  3. ifconfig
  4. traceroute
  5. ping

68. State whether True or False.

All the DoS attacks can be blocked with the Firewalls.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

69. Firewall can perform NAT to keep the record of various NAT entries. In which of the following tables does Firewall make those entries?

Answers:

  1. ARP Table
  2. NAT Table
  3. State Table
  4. TCP/IP Table

70. At which layer does the IPSec work?

Answers:

  1. Session Layer
  2. Network Layer
  3. Data Link Layer
  4. Application Layer

71. What is the range of reserved ports?

Answers:

  1. 1-1024
  2. 1024-2024
  3. 0-1023
  4. 1024-65,535

72. Which of the traffic listed below should be generally blocked?

Answers:

  1. Source routed Packets
  2. Broadcasts
  3. Peer-to-peer file sharing
  4. All of the above

73. State whether True or False.

A Firewall installed at the Gateway makes the whole network secure.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

74. Which of the events listed below should be monitored?

Answers:

  1. Packets dropped
  2. Interface up/down
  3. Firewall restart
  4. Configuration Changes
  5. All the above

75. HTTPS uses ___________ encryption technology to encrypt the communication between Client’s system and Firewalls.

Answers:

  1. SHA 1
  2. MD5
  3. SSH
  4. SSL

879 total views, 4 views today

Upwork Networking

CISCO Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which command/s will you use to configure static routing on a router?

Answers:

  1. Router(config)# ip route static
  2. Router(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.0.1
  3. Router(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.0.1
  4. Router(config)# ip route 192.168.1.0 255.255.255.0 E1
  5. Router(config)# ip route 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 127.0.0.1

2. Which information is exchanged by Cisco devices on which CDP is running?

Answers:

  1. Routing Tables
  2. Platform
  3. Traffic Data
  4. Capabilities List
  5. Username & Password

3. Which of the following ranges are reserved as private addresses?

Answers:

  1. 192.168.0.0 – 192.255.255.255
  2. 172.16.0.0 – 172.255.255.255
  3. 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255
  4. 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255

4. Which of the following are examples of the Data Link Layer?

Answers:

  1. Token Ring
  2. IP
  3. Ethernet
  4. MAC
  5. IPX

5. Which two factors are used by default for calculation of metric by EIGRP?

Answers:

  1. Bandwidth
  2. Hop Count
  3. Reliability
  4. Load
  5. Delay

6. Which of the following are frame relay LMI types?

Answers:

  1. DLCI
  2. Cisco
  3. IEEE 802.1Q
  4. Q933A

7. Which two authentication methods can be used with PPP links?

Answers:

  1. CHAP
  2. Verisign
  3. PAP
  4. MD5

8. Which of the following devices can be connected using a Rollover cable?

Answers:

  1. Router Ethernet Port to Router Ethernet Port
  2. Switch Console Port to PC COM Port
  3. Switch Ethernet Port to Switch Ethernet Port
  4. Router Ethernet Port to Switch Ethernet Port
  5. Router Console Port to PC COM Port

9. Which of the following Protocols work on Application Layer of OSI model?

Answers:

  1. HTTP
  2. FTP
  3. IP
  4. UDP

10. Which of the following techniques are used by transport layer?

Answers:

  1. Flow Control
  2. Route Update Packets
  3. Sequencing
  4. Acknowledgements
  5. Network Address

11. Which of the following frame-tagging methods can be used for creating a trunk link between Cisco and Non Cisco switches?

Answers:

  1. ISL
  2. VTP
  3. IEEE 802.1Q
  4. IETF

12. What is the network ID of IP address 172.16.40.0/20?

Answers:

  1. 172.16.16.0
  2. 172.16.36.0
  3. 172.16.32.0
  4. 172.16.0.0

13. At which layer of OSI Model does a router work?

Answers:

  1. Presentation Layer
  2. Transport Layer
  3. Network Layer
  4. Datalink Layer
  5. Application Layer
  6. Physical Layer
  7. Session Layer

14. What is the maximum speed supported by a standard ISDN BRI?

Answers:

  1. 64 kbps
  2. 128 kbps
  3. 256 kbps
  4. 1.544 mbps

15. Which of the following addresses is reserved for loopback tests?

Answers:

  1. 10.0.0.1
  2. 172.16.0.1
  3. 192.168.0.1
  4. 127.0.0.1

16. Which command will apply access-list 150 on interface e0 in outbound direction?

Answers:

  1. router(config-if)# ip access-list 150 out
  2. router(config-if)# ip access-class 150 out
  3. router(config-if)# ip out access-group 150
  4. router(config-if)# ip access-group 150 out

17. You executed the following command on your router:

Router(config)# router ospf 15
Which command will you execute next to complete OSPF configuration on your router?

Answers:

  1. Router(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 area 5
  2. Router(config)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 5
  3. Router(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 5
  4. Router(config# ip route ospf 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 area 5

18. What will happen if you declare an interface as passive interface in IGRP routing protocol?

Answers:

  1. The router will stop sending and receiving any dynamic updates
  2. The router will stop sending any dynamic updates but can still receive updates
  3. The interface will stop receiving any dynamic updates
  4. The interface will stop sending any dynamic updates but can still receive updates

19. Which of the following are stored in RAM?

Answers:

  1. Startup-config
  2. Running-config
  3. Routing Table
  4. All of the above

20. What will be the command for standard access control list to deny a single source address 10.15.12.2?

Answers:

  1. access-list 50 deny 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0
  2. access-list 50 deny 10.15.12.2 0.255.255.255
  3. access-list 50 deny host 10.15.12.2
  4. access-list 50 deny 10.15.12.2 255.255.255.255

21. What is the main purpose of creating VLANs?

Answers:

  1. They create single collision domain
  2. They provide fast speed to the LANs
  3. They break up the broadcast domain
  4. None of the above

22. How many bits of a MAC address are used by OUI portion?

Answers:

  1. 32 bits
  2. 48 bits
  3. 24 bits
  4. 16 bits

23. At which layer of OSI model does a hub work?

Answers:

  1. Network Layer
  2. Application Layer
  3. Physical Layer
  4. Data Link Layer

24. Which command is used to configure the configuration-register of a router?

Answers:

  1. Router(config)# config-register 0x2102
  2. Router# config-register 0x2102
  3. Router(config-line)# config-register 0x2102
  4. Router(config-router)# config-register 0x2102

25. What is the speed of a T1 line?

Answers:

  1. 128 kbps
  2. 144 kbps
  3. 2.048 Mbps
  4. 1.544 Mbps

26. In which of the following networks, are DR and BDR elected in OSPF?

Answers:

  1. Broadcast multi-access
  2. Point-to-point
  3. Nonbroadcast multi-access
  4. Point-to-multipoint

27. Which command will you execute to use 16 subnets of a class C network with subnet mask of 255.255.255.240?

Answers:

  1. Router(config)#ip all-subnets
  2. Router(config)#ip subnet 16
  3. Router(config)#ip classless
  4. Router(config)#ip subnet-zero

28. In which of the following memories is Mini-IOS or bootloader of a router stored?

Answers:

  1. RAM
  2. ROM
  3. NVRAM
  4. Flash Memory

29. Which encapsulation method will you choose if you want to connect a Cisco router and a non Cisco router with a serial connection?

Answers:

  1. HDLC
  2. PPP
  3. LAPD
  4. LAPB

30. Which key combination is used to interrupt the boot sequence of a router?

Answers:

  1. Esc + Ctrl
  2. Ctrl + Z
  3. Ctrl + Break
  4. Alt + Ctrl + Del

31. What is the command to show Frame relay map table?

Answers:

  1. Router(config)# show frame-relay map
  2. Router# show frame-relay
  3. Router(config-router)# show frame-relay table
  4. Router# show frame-relay map

32. If a router has been configured for static routing, IGRP, OSPF, EIGRP and RIP with their default values, which routing will the router use to send data?

Answers:

  1. RIP
  2. OSPF
  3. IGRP
  4. EIGRP
  5. Static Routing

33. How many Broadcast Domains are there if two switches are connected to each other using a trunk link?

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 1
  3. 4
  4. None

34. Which of the following commands show Cisco IOS image file name?

Answers:

  1. show startup
  2. show running
  3. show version
  4. show history

35. What is the subnetwork to which IP address 10.70.50.255/18 belongs?

Answers:

  1. 10.70.10.0
  2. 10.70.50.0
  3. 10.70.32.0
  4. 10.70.0.0
  5. 10.0.0.0

36. Which subnet mask will you use to fulfill the requirements of all the departments if you are using a class C network?

Answers:

  1. 255.255.255.0
  2. 255.255.255.252
  3. 255.255.255.224
  4. 255.255.255.192
  5. 255.255.255.128

37. State whether True or False:

You have two routers connected with point-to-point links using different encapsulation methods. They will be able to communicate with each other.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

38. Which of the following statements are true for inter VLAN communication?

Answers:

  1. A router that supports inter VLAN communication is required
  2. The router must support the same encapsulation method as supported by the switch
  3. If the router has only one Ethernet interface, sub-interfaces must be configured
  4. All of the above

39. Routing protocols use a method to advertise many networks as one network to other routers. What is that method called?

Answers:

  1. Supernetting
  2. Summarization
  3. Subnetting
  4. None of the above

40. Which command is used to disable domain lookup?

Answers:

  1. no ip domain-lookup
  2. disable domain-lookup
  3. no domain-lookup
  4. None of the above

41. If you have a subnet mask of /26 for a class C network, how many subnets and host per subnet will you get?

Answers:

  1. 4 networks and 62 hosts
  2. 16 networks and 16 hosts
  3. 2 networks and 128 hosts
  4. 62 networks and 2 hosts
  5. 6 networks and 30 hosts

42. What is the binary value of hex 9F?

Answers:

  1. 10011111
  2. 10111000
  3. 11110001
  4. 10001111

43. Which of the following must be configured on a switch to segment Broadcast Domain?

Answers:

  1. VTP
  2. PVC
  3. VLAN
  4. FTP
  5. TFTP

44. What is the OUI portion of MAC address B4-3F-95-5F-1D-09 in binary?

Answers:

  1. 10110100-00111111-10010101
  2. 11100110-11001001-01110011
  3. 11000011-10000111-11110001
  4. 00111100-10010001-10111001

45. What should be the value of configuration register in a router to boot IOS image stored in ROM?

Answers:

  1. 0x2102
  2. 0x2101
  3. 0x2142
  4. 0x101

46. What is the maximum number of hosts allowed on subnet 172.16.50.75/22?

Answers:

  1. 510
  2. 1022
  3. 4094
  4. 8190

47. Which is the default mode of operation in a VTP domain for all catalyst switches?

Answers:

  1. Client
  2. Server
  3. Transparent
  4. None of the above

48. Which command will you execute to see whether the cable attached with your router’s Serial 0 is DCE or DTE?

Answers:

  1. show controllers serial 0
  2. show interface serial 0
  3. show ip interface serial 0
  4. show interface brief serial 0

49. Which of the following statements is true regarding VLAN 1?

Answers:

  1. It is a default VLAN
  2. You cannot delete VLAN 1
  3. You cannot rename VLAN 1
  4. All of the above

50. If interface Ethernet 0 is showing that it is administratively down, what will you do to turn it on?

Answers:

  1. Change the cable connected with Ethernet 0
  2. Restart the router
  3. Execute ‘no shutdown’ command
  4. Execute ‘clock rate ‘ command

51. Which protocol is used to find the MAC address of a device whose IP address is known?

Answers:

  1. ARP
  2. SMTP
  3. IARP
  4. RARP

52. What is the full form of CSMA/CD?

Answers:

  1. Code Sense, Multiple Access with Collision Detection
  2. Carrier Sense, Multiple Access with Code Division
  3. Collision Sense, Multiple Access with Carrier Detection
  4. Carrier Sense, Multiple Access with Collision Detection

53. On which layer of the OSI model do TCP & UDP work?

Answers:

  1. Transport Layer
  2. Session Layer
  3. Presentation Layer
  4. Network Layer

54. What is the command to configure PPP encapsulation on serial 0?

Answers:

  1. Router(config)# configure encapsulation ppp
  2. Router(config)# encapsulation ppp
  3. Router(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
  4. Router# encapsulation ppp serial 0

55. Which of the following commands will prevent telnet access from all users on subnet 172.16.16.0 with subnet mask 255.255.240.0 to any destination?

Answers:

  1. access-list 115 deny tcp 172.16.16.0 255.255.240.0 any eq 23
  2. access-list 115 deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.16.255 any eq 23
  3. access-list 115 deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255 any eq 21
  4. access-list 115 deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255 any eq 23

56. What is the binary value of hex BF?

Answers:

  1. 10100000
  2. 10111111
  3. 11111000
  4. 00111011

57. Which type of NAT uses different ports to map multiple IP addresses to a single global IP address?

Answers:

  1. Dynamic NAT
  2. NAT with overloading
  3. Static NAT
  4. All of the above

58. You are not able to create a new VLAN and cannot delete or change existing VLANs on a switch. What could be the problem?

Answers:

  1. Trunk link is not configured properly
  2. The switch is in VTP Transparent mode
  3. The switch is in VTP Client mode
  4. None of the above

59. You made some changes in your router’s configuration and executed the following command:

Router# copy run start

When you restarted your router it went into the Setup mode. What is the problem?

Answers:

  1. The command ‘copy run start’ is incorrect
  2. The NVRAM is corrupt
  3. The value of configuration register is set to 0x2142
  4. Nothing is wrong, you have to configure the router every time it restarts

60. What is the default number of commands that a router can show if you execute ‘show history’ command?

Answers:

  1. 15
  2. 10
  3. 20
  4. 256

61. In which of the following modes does a switch not participate in VTP domain, but still forwards VTP advertisements by trunk links?

Answers:

  1. Server
  2. Domain
  3. Client
  4. Transparent

62. Which of the following services can be used to set up a database of MAC addresses that can be used for dynamic addressing of VLANs?

Answers:

  1. Static VLAN
  2. VMPS
  3. STP
  4. VTP

63. What is the speed of ISDN PRI service with 30B +1D channel?

Answers:

  1. 2.048 Mbps
  2. 1.544 Mbps
  3. 144 Kbps
  4. 128 Kbps

64. Which of the following cables is not prone to electrical interferences?

Answers:

  1. Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)
  2. Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)
  3. Fiber Optic
  4. Copper wire
  5. Coaxial

65. Which two statements are true about CHAP authentication method?

Answers:

  1. It is more secure than PAP
  2. It is supported by HDLC
  3. It is less secure than PAP
  4. It sends authentication messages periodically during the connection

66. How many access control lists can be applied on an interface?

Answers:

  1. One access control list in each direction for each protocol
  2. Two access control lists in each direction
  3. Unlimited
  4. Access control list cannot be applied on an interface

67. Which of the following is a Multicast Address?

Answers:

  1. 127.0.0.1
  2. 192.168.1.255
  3. 10.0.0.0
  4. 224.10.1.7

68. Which command is used to view the list of all active connections made to the console and VTY ports of your router?

Answers:

  1. show session
  2. show connections
  3. show lines
  4. show users

69. Which of the following subnet masks should you use on Router A and Router B serial links so that there is minimum wastage of IP addresses?

Answers:

  1. 255.255.255.255
  2. 255.255.0.0
  3. 255.255.255.0
  4. 255.255.255.252
  5. 255.255.255.254

70. What is the full form of ISDN?

Answers:

  1. International Subscriber Digital Network
  2. International Services Digital Network
  3. Internet Services Digital Network
  4. Integrated Services Digital Network

71. Which layer of OSI model encapsulates packets into frames?

Answers:

  1. Transport Layer
  2. Data Link Layer
  3. Network Layer
  4. Physical Layer

72. What is the binary value of 157?

Answers:

  1. 11000111
  2. 10111001
  3. 11100011
  4. 10011101

73. Which of the following provides routing protocol support for IPX, Appletalk and IP networks simultaneously?

Answers:

  1. RIP v2
  2. OSPF
  3. IGRP
  4. EIGRP

74. Which of the following commands will you use to enable RIP version 2 on your router?

Answers:

  1. Router(config)# version 2
  2. Router(config-router)# version 2
  3. Router(config-if)# version 2
  4. Router# rip version 2

75. Which statement is true about RID (Router ID) in OSPF?

Answers:

  1. It is always the highest IP address of active interfaces
  2. It is the highest IP address of all configured loopback interfaces
  3. It is locally significant
  4. It is only used for election of DR

76. What is the Administrative Distance (AD) of OSPF?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 120
  3. 110
  4. 90

77. Which of the following devices is used to connect a non ISDN device with an ISDN network?

Answers:

  1. NT1
  2. TE2
  3. TA
  4. TE1

78. Which protocol uses port number 23?

Answers:

  1. FTP
  2. SMTP
  3. Telnet
  4. HTTP

79. What do you understand from the following commands:

access-list 110 deny tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 110 permit ip any any

Answers:

  1. This access-list denies any Telnet traffic from network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0
  2. This access-list allows any IP traffic from any source to any destination
  3. This access-list denies any FTP traffic from network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0
  4. This access-list denies any FTP traffic to network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0

80. What is the command for copying a router’s IOS to a TFTP server?

Answers:

  1. copy ios tftp
  2. copy start tftp
  3. copy flash tftp
  4. copy flash-config tftp

81. Which of the following things are stored in RAM?

Answers:

  1. ARP Cache
  2. Running configuration
  3. Routing tables
  4. All of the above

82. What is the default value of flush timers in IGRP?

Answers:

  1. 630 seconds
  2. 90 seconds
  3. 270 seconds
  4. None of the above

83. What is the hop count limit for OSPF?

Answers:

  1. 15
  2. 255
  3. 256
  4. None

84. What is the maximum number of subnets (usable) that you can create in a class B network?

Answers:

  1. 16384
  2. 32768
  3. 65536
  4. Infinite

85. Which one of the following addresses can be used as a host address for the subnet 192.168.50.16/28?

Answers:

  1. 192.168.50.32
  2. 192.168.50.16
  3. 192.168.50.64
  4. 192.168.50.30

86. Which of the following switching methods forward the frame after reading the destination MAC address only?

Answers:

  1. Fast forward
  2. Cut-through
  3. Fragment free
  4. Store and forward

87. Which command is used to encrypt all the passwords of a router?

Answers:

  1. enable password-encryption
  2. service password-encryption
  3. encrypt passwords
  4. enable encrypt-password

88. Different routing protocols use different methods to calculate the distance to a network. What is that method called?

Answers:

  1. Administrative Distance
  2. Metric
  3. Routing Table
  4. None of the above

89. Which of the following switches support both ISL and 802.1Q encapsulation methods?

Answers:

  1. 1900
  2. 2950
  3. 3550
  4. All of the above

90. Which command will you use to configure IP address on an interface?

Answers:

  1. Router(config-if)# ip 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
  2. Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
  3. Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1/24
  4. Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
  5. Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 subnet 255.255.255.0

91. Which of the following routing protocols are Cisco proprietary?

Answers:

  1. IGRP
  2. EIGRP
  3. OSPF
  4. RIP

92. What is the maximum number of paths supported by IGRP for load balancing?

Answers:

  1. Four
  2. Six
  3. Twelve
  4. Infinite

93. What is the decimal equivalent of binary 11001110?

Answers:

  1. 207
  2. 250
  3. 206
  4. 192

835 total views, no views today

Upwork Networking

Cisco Networking Test 2016

Published by:

1. Which of the following routing protocols support VLSM?

Answers:

  1. RIP v1
  2. RIP v2
  3. IGRP
  4. EIGRP
  5. OSPF

2. Which of the following devices can be connected using a Rollover cable?

Answers:

  1. Router Ethernet Port to Router Ethernet Port
  2. Switch Console Port to PC COM Port
  3. Switch Ethernet Port to Switch Ethernet Port
  4. Router Ethernet Port to Switch Ethernet Port
  5. Router Console Port to PC COM Port

3. Which of the following ranges are reserved as private addresses?

Answers:

  1. 192.168.0.0 – 192.255.255.255
  2. 172.16.0.0 – 172.255.255.255
  3. 10.0.0.0 – 10.255.255.255
  4. 172.16.0.0 – 172.31.255.255

4. Which two factors are used by default for calculation of metric by EIGRP?

Answers:

  1. Bandwidth
  2. Hop Count
  3. Reliability
  4. Load
  5. Delay

5. Which of the following routing protocols are not classless routing protocols?

Answers:

  1. EIGRP
  2. OSPF
  3. IGRP
  4. RIP v1

6. Which of the following Protocols work on Application Layerr of OSI model?

Answers:

  1. HTTP
  2. FTP
  3. IP
  4. UDP

7. Which two statements are true about CHAP authentication method?

Answers:

  1. It is more secure than PAP
  2. It is supported by HDLC
  3. It is less secure than PAP
  4. It sends authentication messages periodically during the connection

8. Which of the following routing protocols are distance vector routing protocols?

Answers:

  1. OSPF
  2. RIP
  3. EIGRP
  4. IGRP

9. Which command is used to encrypt all the passwords of a router?

Answers:

  1. enable password-encryption
  2. service password-encryption
  3. encrypt passwords
  4. enable encrypt-password

10. Which subnet mask will you use to fulfill the requirements of all the departments if you are using a class C network?

Answers:

  1. 255.255.255.0
  2. 255.255.255.252
  3. 255.255.255.224
  4. 255.255.255.192
  5. 255.255.255.128

11. Which of the following addresses is reserved for loopback tests?

Answers:

  1. 10.0.0.1
  2. 172.16.0.1
  3. 192.168.0.1
  4. 127.0.0.1

12. Which is the command to view all available commands in the mode you are working in?

Answers:

  1. show all
  2. ?
  3. help
  4. help commands

13. Which command is used to view IP routing table?

Answers:

  1. show ip table
  2. show route
  3. show ip route
  4. show routing table

14. Which command is used to disable domain lookup?

Answers:

  1. no ip domain-lookup
  2. disable domain-lookup
  3. no domain-lookup
  4. None of the above

15. Which of the following routing protocols are Cisco proprietary?

Answers:

  1. IGRP
  2. EIGRP
  3. OSPF
  4. RIP

16. Which command is used to configure the configuration-register of a router?

Answers:

  1. Router(config)# config-register 0x2102
  2. Router# config-register 0x2102
  3. Router(config-line)# config-register 0x2102
  4. Router(config-router)# config-register 0x2102

17. Which of the following commands will prevent telnet access from all users on subnet 172.16.16.0 with subnet mask 255.255.240.0 to any destination?

Answers:

  1. access-list 115 deny tcp 172.16.16.0 255.255.240.0 any eq 23
  2. access-list 115 deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.16.255 any eq 23
  3. access-list 115 deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255 any eq 21
  4. access-list 115 deny tcp 172.16.16.0 0.0.15.255 any eq 23

18. What is the default value of flush timers in IGRP?

Answers:

  1. 630 seconds
  2. 90 seconds
  3. 270 seconds
  4. None of the above

19. If UDP receives datagrams that are not in sequence, what will it do?

Answers:

  1. It will drop datagrams that are not in sequence
  2. It will arrange them in sequence using sequence numbers
  3. It will request source host to resend datagrams
  4. None of the above

20. Which of the following commands will allow a single source address 172.16.0.5 to telnet a single destination address 192.168.10.2?

Answers:

  1. access-list 150 permit tcp host 172.16.0.5 host 192.168.10.2 eq 23
  2. access-list 150 deny tcp host 172.16.0.5 host 192.168.10.2 eq 23
  3. access-list 150 permit tcp any any
  4. access-list 150 permit ip any any eq 23

21. Which command will disable CDP on a router?

Answers:

  1. no cdp run
  2. disable cdp
  3. no cdp enable
  4. no cdp route

22. What is the default number of commands that a router can show if you execute ‘show history’ command?

Answers:

  1. 15
  2. 10
  3. 20
  4. 256

23. Which is the default mode of operation in a VTP domain for all catalyst switches?

Answers:

  1. Client
  2. Server
  3. Transparent
  4. None of the above

24. Which command will you use to enable default routing on a router?

Answers:

  1. outer(config)# ip route 255.255.255.255 0.0.0.0 172.16.0.1
  2. outer(config)# ip route default 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.0.1
  3. outer(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.0.1
  4. outer# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 172.16.0.1

25. How many Broadcast Domains are there if two switches are connected to each other using a trunk link?

Answers:

  1. 2
  2. 1
  3. 4
  4. None

26. How many bits of a MAC address are used by OUI portion?

Answers:

  1. 32 bits
  2. 48 bits
  3. 24 bits
  4. 16 bits

27. Which area must be present to connect two different areas in an OSPF network?

Answers:

  1. Area 0
  2. Area 51
  3. Area 1
  4. Area 16

28. What is the maximum number of valid IP addresses in a class B network?

Answers:

  1. 65536
  2. 65534
  3. 256
  4. 254

29. You made some changes in your router’s configuration and executed the following command:

Router# copy run start

When you restarted your router it went into the Setup mode. What is the problem?

Answers:

  1. The command ‘copy run start’ is incorrect
  2. The NVRAM is corrupt
  3. The value of configuration register is set to 0x2142
  4. Nothing is wrong, you have to configure the router every time it restarts

30. Routing protocols use a method to advertise many networks as one network to other routers. What is that method called?

Answers:

  1. Supernetting
  2. Summarization
  3. Subnetting
  4. None of the above

31. What is the speed of a T1 line?

Answers:

  1. 128 kbps
  2. 144 kbps
  3. 2.048 Mbps
  4. 1.544 Mbps

32. What is the hop count limit for OSPF?

Answers:

  1. 15
  2. 255
  3. 256
  4. None

33. What is the main purpose of creating VLANs?

Answers:

  1. They create single collision domain
  2. They provide fast speed to the LANs
  3. They break up the broadcast domain
  4. None of the above

34. What is the maximum speed supported by a standard ISDN BRI?

Answers:

  1. 64 kbps
  2. 128 kbps
  3. 256 kbps
  4. 1.544 mbps

35. What will be the command for standard access control list to deny a single source address 10.15.12.2?

Answers:

  1. access-list 50 deny 10.0.0.0 255.255.255.0
  2. access-list 50 deny 10.15.12.2 0.255.255.255
  3. access-list 50 deny host 10.15.12.2
  4. access-list 50 deny 10.15.12.2 255.255.255.255

36. In which of the following networks, are DR and BDR elected in OSPF?

Answers:

  1. Broadcast multi-access
  2. Point-to-point
  3. Nonbroadcast multi-access
  4. Point-to-multipoint

37. Which of the following devices can be connected using a straight cable?

Answers:

  1. Hub & Switch
  2. Router & PC
  3. PC & PC
  4. Router & Switch

38. If a router has been configured for static routing, IGRP, OSPF, EIGRP and RIP with their default values, which routing will the router use to send data?

Answers:

  1. RIP
  2. OSPF
  3. IGRP
  4. EIGRP
  5. Static Routing

39. What is the command to configure PPP encapsulation on serial 0?

Answers:

  1. Router(config)# configure encapsulation ppp
  2. Router(config)# encapsulation ppp
  3. Router(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
  4. Router# encapsulation ppp serial 0

40. On which layer of the OSI model do TCP & UDP work?

Answers:

  1. Transport Layer
  2. Session Layer
  3. Presentation Layer
  4. Network Layer

41. What should be the value of configuration register in a router to boot IOS image stored in ROM?

Answers:

  1. 0x2102
  2. 0x2101
  3. 0x2142
  4. 0x101

42. Refer to the diagram.

Host A is not able to communicate with Host B. However, Router A can communicate with Host B. What could bethe problem?

Answers:

  1. Host A’s IP address is incorrect
  2. Router A’s Ethernet 0 IP address is incorrect
  3. Host B’s IP address is incorrect
  4. No routing is configured among the routers

43. Which layer of OSI model encapsulates packets into frames?

Answers:

  1. Transport Layer
  2. Data Link Layer
  3. Network Layer
  4. Physical Layer

44. Which of the following are examples of the Data Link Layerr?

Answers:

  1. Token Ring
  2. IP
  3. Ethernet
  4. MAC
  5. IPX

45. If you set bandwidth of 64 kbps on an interface, what will be it’s cost in OSPF?

Answers:

  1. 256
  2. 1563
  3. 1024
  4. 2096

46. What is the command to configure q933a as frame relay LMI type?

Answers:

  1. Router(config)# frame-relay lmi-type q933a
  2. Router# lmi-type q933a
  3. Router(config-if)# frame-relay lmi-type q933a
  4. Router(config-if)# lmi-type q933a

47. What is the full form of CSMA/CD?

Answers:

  1. Code Sense, Multiple Access with Collision Detection
  2. Carrier Sense, Multiple Access with Code Division
  3. Collision Sense, Multiple Access with Carrier Detection
  4. Carrier Sense, Multiple Access with Collision Detection

48. Which of the following are frame relay LMI types?

Answers:

  1. DLCI
  2. Cisco
  3. IEEE 802.1Q
  4. Q933A

49. If interface Ethernet 0 is showing that it is administratively down, what will you do to turn it on?

Answers:

  1. Change the cable connected with Ethernet 0
  2. Restart the route
  3. Execute ‘no shutdown’ command
  4. Execute ‘clock rate ‘ command

50. In which of the following modes does a switch not participate in VTP domain, but still forwards VTP advertisements by trunk links?

Answers:

  1. Server
  2. Domain
  3. Client
  4. Transparent

51. Different routing protocols use different methods to calculate the distance to a network. What is that method called?

Answers:

  1. Administrative Distance
  2. Metric
  3. Routing Table
  4. None of the above

52. What is the maximum number of subnets (usable) that you can create in a class B network?

Answers:

  1. 16384
  2. 32768
  3. 65536
  4. Infinite

53. What is the speed of ISDN PRI service with 30B +1D channel?

Answers:

  1. 2.048 Mbps
  2. 1.544 Mbps
  3. 144 Kbps
  4. 128 Kbps

54. What is the binary value of hex 9F?

Answers:

  1. 10011111
  2. 10111000
  3. 11110001
  4. 10001111

55. Which of the following switches support both ISL and 802.1Q encapsulation methods?

Answers:

  1. 1900
  2. 2950
  3. 3550
  4. All of the above

56. Which command will you use to view sending and receiving of RIP update packets that normally run in the background ?

Answers:

  1. Router(config-router)# debug ip rip
  2. Router# debug rip packets
  3. Router# debug ip rip
  4. Router(config)# show rip packets

57. What is the default value of bridge priority on Cisco switches?

Answers:

  1. 65536
  2. 16384
  3. 32768
  4. 256

58. Which command will you execute to see whether the cable attached with your router’s Serial 0 is DCE or DTE?

Answers:

  1. show controllers serial 0
  2. show interface serial 0
  3. show ip interface serial 0
  4. show interface brief serial 0

59. Which of the following commands will you use to enable RIP version 2 on your router?

Answers:

  1. Router(config)# version 2
  2. Router(config-router)# version 2
  3. Router(config-if)# version 2
  4. Router# rip version 2

60. Which of the following statements is true regarding VLAN 1?

Answers:

  1. It is a default VLAN
  2. You cannot delete VLAN 1
  3. You cannot rename VLAN 1
  4. All of the above

61. At which layer of OSI Model does a router work?

Answers:

  1. Presentation Layer
  2. Transport Layer
  3. Network Layer
  4. Datalink Layer
  5. Application Layer
  6. Physical Layer
  7. Session Layer

62. Which information is exchanged by Cisco devices on which CDP is running?

Answers:

  1. Routing Tables
  2. Platform
  3. Traffic Data
  4. Capabilities List
  5. Username & Password

63. Which of the following switching methods forward the frame after reading the destination MAC address only?

Answers:

  1. Fast forward
  2. Cut-through
  3. Fragment free
  4. Store and forward

64. You executed the following command on your router:

Router(config)# router ospf 15

Which command will you execute next to complete OSPF configuration on your router?

Answers:

  1. Router(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 area 5
  2. Router(config)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 5
  3. Router(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 5
  4. Router(config# ip route ospf 172.16.0.0 255.255.0.0 area 5

65. Which of the following devices is used to connect a non ISDN device with an ISDN network?

Answers:

  1. NT1
  2. TE2
  3. TA
  4. TE1

66. Which of the following services can be used to set up a database of MAC addresses that can be used for dynamic addressing of VLANs?

Answers:

  1. Static VLAN
  2. VMPS
  3. STP
  4. VTP

67. Which command will you use to configure IP address on an interface?

Answers:

  1. Router(config-if)# ip 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
  2. Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1
  3. Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1/24
  4. Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0
  5. Router(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 subnet 255.255.255.0

68. Which of the following provides routing protocol support for IPX, Appletalk and IP networks simultaneously?

Answers:

  1. RIP v2
  2. OSPF
  3. IGRP
  4. EIGRP

69. What is the subnetwork to which IP address 10.70.50.255/18 belongs?

Answers:

  1. 10.70.10.0
  2. 10.70.50.0
  3. 10.70.32.0
  4. 10.70.0.0
  5. 10.0.0.0

70. What is the maximum number of paths supported by IGRP for load balancing?

Answers:

  1. Fou
  2. Six
  3. Twelve
  4. Infinite

71. What is the Administrative Distance (AD) of OSPF?

Answers:

  1. 1
  2. 120
  3. 110
  4. 90

72. What will happen if you declare an interface as passive interface in IGRP routing protocol?

Answers:

  1. The router will stop sending and receiving any dynamic updates
  2. The router will stop sending any dynamic updates but can still receive updates
  3. The interface will stop receiving any dynamic updates
  4. The interface will stop sending any dynamic updates but can still receive updates

73. What is the binary value of 157?

Answers:

  1. 11000111
  2. 10111001
  3. 11100011
  4. 10011101

74. What is the OUI portion of MAC address B4-3F-95-5F-1D-09 in binary?

Answers:

  1. 10110100-00111111-10010101
  2. 11100110-11001001-01110011
  3. 11000011-10000111-11110001
  4. 00111100-10010001-10111001

75. Which one of the following addresses can be used as a host address for the subnet 192.168.50.16/28?

Answers:

  1. 192.168.50.32
  2. 192.168.50.16
  3. 192.168.50.64
  4. 192.168.50.30

76. Which of the following subnet masks should you use on Router A and Router B serial links so that there is minimum wastage of IP addresses?

Answers:

  1. 255.255.255.255
  2. 255.255.0.0
  3. 255.255.255.0
  4. 255.255.255.252
  5. 255.255.255.254

77. Which of the following are stored in RAM?

Answers:

  1. Startup-config
  2. Running-config
  3. Routing Table
  4. All of the above

78. Which of the following commands show Cisco IOS image file name?

Answers:

  1. show startup
  2. show running
  3. show version
  4. show history

79. Which of the following statements are true for inter VLAN communication?

Answers:

  1. A router that supports inter VLAN communication is required
  2. The router must support the same encapsulation method as supported by the switch
  3. If the router has only one Ethernet interface, sub-interfaces must be configured
  4. All of the above

80. Which type of NAT uses different ports to map multiple IP addresses to a single global IP address?

Answers:

  1. Dynamic NAT
  2. NAT with overloading
  3. Static NAT
  4. All of the above

81. What do you understand from the following commands:

access-list 110 deny tcp 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 any eq 21
access-list 110 permit ip any any

Answers:

  1. This access-list denies any Telnet traffic from network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0
  2. This access-list allows any IP traffic from any source to any destination
  3. This access-list denies any FTP traffic from network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0
  4. This access-list denies any FTP traffic to network 192.168.10.0 255.255.255.0

82. State whether True or False:

You can only create that number of VLANs which are equivalent to the number of ports on a switch.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

83. Which of the following VLANs is recommended by Cisco to be used as an administrative VLAN?

Answers:

  1. VLAN 0
  2. VLAN 1
  3. VLAN 1024
  4. VLAN 16

84. How many bearer(B) and data(D) channel/s are there in a standard ISDN BRI service?

Answers:

  1. 2B + 1D Channel
  2. 23B + 1D Channel
  3. 24B + 2D Channels
  4. 16B + 1D Channel

85. What is the command to show Frame relay map table?

Answers:

  1. Router(config)# show frame-relay map
  2. Router# show frame-relay
  3. Router(config-router)# show frame-relay table
  4. Router# show frame-relay map

86. State whether True or False:

You have two routers connected with point-to-point links using different encapsulation methods. They will be able to communicate with each other.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

87. Which of the following things are stored in RAM?

Answers:

  1. ARP Cache
  2. Running configuration
  3. Routing tables
  4. All of the above

88. Which statement is true about RID (Router ID) in OSPF?

Answers:

  1. It is always the highest IP address of active interfaces
  2. It is the highest IP address of all configured loopback interfaces
  3. It is locally significant
  4. It is only used for election of DR

89. Which encapsulation method will you choose if you want to connect a Cisco router and a non Cisco router with a serial connection?

Answers:

  1. HDLC
  2. PPP
  3. LAPD
  4. LAPB

90. Which key combination is used to interrupt the boot sequence of a router?

Answers:

  1. Esc + Ctrl
  2. Ctrl + Z
  3. Ctrl + Break
  4. Alt + Ctrl + Del

91. Which command is used to view the list of all active connections made to the console and VTY ports of your router?

Answers:

  1. show session
  2. show connections
  3. show lines
  4. show users

92. Which protocol uses port number 23?

Answers:

  1. FTP
  2. SMTP
  3. Telnet
  4. HTTP

93. What is the decimal equivalent of binary 11001110?

Answers:

  1. 207
  2. 250
  3. 206
  4. 192

94. Which of the following cables is not prone to electrical interferences?

Answers:

  1. Shielded Twisted Pair (STP)
  2. Unshielded Twisted Pair (UTP)
  3. Fiber Optic
  4. Copper wire
  5. Coaxial

95. How many access control lists can be applied on an interface?

Answers:

  1. One access control list in each direction for each protocol
  2. Two access control lists in each direction
  3. Unlimited
  4. Access control list cannot be applied on an interface

96. What is the command for copying a router’s IOS to a TFTP server?

Answers:

  1. copy ios tftp
  2. copy start tftp
  3. copy flash tftp
  4. copy flash-config tftp

97. You are not able to create a new VLAN and cannot delete or change existing VLANs on a switch. What could be the problem?

Answers:

  1. Trunk link is not configured properly
  2. The switch is in VTP Transparent mode
  3. The switch is in VTP Client mode
  4. None of the above

98. What is the network ID of IP address 172.16.40.0/20?

Answers:

  1. 172.16.16.0
  2. 172.16.36.0
  3. 172.16.32.0
  4. 172.16.0.0

99. What is the full form of ISDN?

Answers:

  1. International Subscriber Digital Network
  2. International Services Digital Network
  3. Internet Services Digital Network
  4. Integrated Services Digital Network

984 total views, 2 views today

Upwork Networking

Apache Server Test (2.0 Family) 2016

Published by:

1. Which of the following levels are available in the SSLVerifyClient directive?

Answers:

  1. none
  2. optional
  3. require
  4. optional_no_ca

2. Which are the two types of user authentication options available in the AuthType directive?

Answers:

  1. Basic
  2. MD5
  3. Digest
  4. Encrypt

3. Which protocols are available in the SSLProtocol directive?

Answers:

  1. SSLv2
  2. SSLv3
  3. TLSv1
  4. None of the above

4. Which of the following commands will you use to check the configuration files before starting the Apache server?

Answers:

  1. apachectl -t
  2. apachectl configtest
  3. apachectl -testconfig
  4. None of the above

5. Which of the following commands will you use to apply the changes made in the httpd.conf file without restarting the Apache server (installed through an rpm package) on a RedHat Linux system?

Answers:

  1. service apache apply
  2. service httpd apply
  3. service httpd reload
  4. service apache reload

6. Which of the following directives can we use for redirecting the log information to be received by a program on its standard input?

Answers:

  1. BufferedLog
  2. CustomLog
  3. LogFormat
  4. CookieLog

7. Which of the following directives sets how deeply mod_ssl should verify before deciding that the clients do not have a valid certificate?

Answers:

  1. SSLRequireSSL
  2. SSLVerifyClient
  3. SSLClientDepth
  4. SSLVerifyDepth

8. Which of the following configurations will prevent the proxy server from being used to access the google.com website?

Answers:

  1. <Proxy http://google.com/*> Order deny, allow Deny from all </Proxy>
  2. <Proxy http://google.com/*> Order allow, deny Allow from all </Proxy>
  3. <Proxy http://google.com/*> Order allow, deny Deny from all </Proxy>
  4. None of the above

9. On which of the following platforms can Apache be installed?

Answers:

  1. RedHat Enterprise Linux
  2. Solaris
  3. Windows
  4. Mac OS X
  5. SCO
  6. HPUX
  7. All of the above

10. Which of the following commands will you use on a RedHat Linux system to install the Apache-2.0.4-i386.rpm package?

Answers:

  1. rpm –q apache-2.0.4-i386.rpm
  2. rpm –e apache-2.0.4-i386.rpm
  3. rpm –ivh apache-2.0.4-i386.rpm
  4. None of the above

11. Which of the following commands will you use to run the Apache in the debug mode?

Answers:

  1. httpd -d
  2. httpd -D
  3. httpd -X
  4. httpd debug

12. Which of the following commands will you use to stop an Apache service via command line on a Windows NT based machine?

Answers:

  1. httpd.exe –k stop
  2. httpd.exe –k exit
  3. httpd.exe –k shutdown
  4. httpd.exe –s halt

13. State whether true or false:

The BufferedLogs directive causes the mod_log_config to store several log entries in memory and write them together to the disk, rather than writing them after each request.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

14. Which of the following log format strings denotes ‘Remote Host’?

Answers:

  1. %R
  2. %U
  3. %H
  4. %h

15. Which of the following directives will you use to include only all .conf files present in the ‘/usr/local/apache2/conf’ directory where ‘/usr/local/apache2’ is your ServerRoot directory?

Answers:

  1. Include /usr/local/apache2/conf/*.*
  2. Include /usr/local/apache2/conf/*.conf
  3. Include /conf/*.conf
  4. Include conf/*.conf

16. Which of the following directives tells the Apache to parse files for the SSI directives if they have the execute bit set?

Answers:

  1. Options +Includes
  2. XBitHack on
  3. SSI on
  4. ExecuteBit on

17. What is the default value of backlog in the ListenBackLog directive?

Answers:

  1. 255
  2. 256
  3. 511
  4. 512

18. Which of the following is true regarding the DSO list in the config file in Apache v1.3.X?

Answers:

  1. The DSO list must be in correct order
  2. The DSO list can be in any order
  3. The DSO list is not supported in Apache v1.3.X
  4. None of the above

19. Which of the following commands will you use to start the Apache server (installed through an rpm package) on a RedHat Linux system?

Answers:

  1. start apache service
  2. start httpd service
  3. service apache start
  4. service httpd start

20. Which of the following commands will you use to run the Apache as a service on a Windows NT based machine?

Answers:

  1. httpd.exe –n install
  2. httpd.exe –k install
  3. httpd.exe –s install
  4. httpd.exe –i install

21. In a Windows operating system, if the Apache is installed from a precompiled executable, what will be the extension of the module files?

Answers:

  1. .dll
  2. .so
  3. .mod
  4. None of the above

22. State whether true or false:

IPv6 addresses must be surrounded in square brackets in the Listen directive e.g.
Listen [2001:db8::a00:20ff:fea7:ccea]:80

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

23. Which of the following options are available for the LogLevel directive in the Apache?

Answers:

  1. alert
  2. debug
  3. info
  4. error
  5. All of the above

24. What is the default Apache access for <Directory />?

Answers:

  1. Allow from All
  2. Deny from All
  3. None of the above

25. How will you uninstall the ‘myapache’ service (the name that you gave to the Apache service earlier) on a Windows NT based machine?

Answers:

  1. httpd.exe –u uninstall –k “myapache”
  2. httpd.exe –k uninstall –u “myapache”
  3. httpd.exe –n uninstall –k “myapache”
  4. httpd.exe –k uninstall –n “myapache”

26. Which of the following will you use if you want users on your network (172.16.0.0) to have unrestricted access to a portion of your website but users outside your network to provide a password to access the same portion of your website?

Answers:

  1. Require valid-user Order allow,deny Allow from 172.16 Satisfy All
  2. Require valid-user Order allow,deny Allow from 172.16 Satisfy Any
  3. Require valid-user Order allow,deny Allow from All Satisfy Any
  4. Require valid-user Order allow,deny Deny from All Satisfy All

27. Which of the following modules allows the creation of web space for every user by using the public_html directory created in every user’s home directory?

Answers:

  1. mod_user
  2. mod_public
  3. mod_userdir
  4. mod_vhost

28. In a Windows operating system, which of the following commands will you use to shutdown the Apache gracefully?

Answers:

  1. httpd.exe –g shutdown
  2. httpd.exe –k kill
  3. httpd.exe –k shutdown
  4. None of the above

29. Which of the following commands will you use to remove the Apache -2.0.4-i386.rpm package from a RedHat Linux system?

Answers:

  1. rpm –q apache-2.0.4-i386.rpm
  2. rpm –e apache-2.0.4-i386.rpm
  3. rpm –ivh apache-2.0.4-i386.rpm
  4. None of the above

30. What does the depth of 1 mean in the SSLVerifyDepth directive?

Answers:

  1. Only self signed client certificates are accepted.
  2. The client certificate can be signed by the client himself/herself or has to be signed by a CA who is personally known to the server.
  3. The client certificate has to be signed by a CA who is personally known to the server.
  4. None of the above

31. In which of the following sections can we use the AllowOverride directive?

Answers:

  1. <Location> section
  2. <Directory> section
  3. <Files> section
  4. <DirectoryMatch> section
  5. Any of the above

32. Which of the following directives can we not use in the <Files> and the <FilesMatch> sections?

Answers:

  1. The Options directive
  2. The AllowOverride directive
  3. Neither of the above

33. How will you enable the ServerTokens directive only on one of the Virtual Hosts present on your Apache server?

Answers:

  1. ServerTokens All
  2. ServerTokens Full
  3. ServerTokens Vhost
  4. ServerTokens directive cannot be enabled only on one of the Virtual Hosts.

34. Which utility comes with the Apache for creating and updating user authentication files?

Answers:

  1. htaccess
  2. htpasswd
  3. passwd
  4. None of the above

35. Which of the following directives sets the contact address that the server includes in any error messages it returns to the client?

Answers:

  1. ServerContact
  2. ServerAddress
  3. ServerHost
  4. ServerAdmin

36. Which of the following directives is used to set the maximum length of the queue of pending connections?

Answers:

  1. MaxClients
  2. ListenBackLog
  3. MaxConnections
  4. None of the above

37. Which of the following is the correct method to set a DocumentRoot directive for ‘/usr/web’ folder in the Apache?

Answers:

  1. DocumentRoot /usr/web/
  2. DocumentRoot = /usr/web/
  3. DocumentRoot “/usr/web/”
  4. DocumentRoot /usr/web

38. Which user can use port numbers less than 1024 in unix/linux if they want to use other than the default port number 80?

Answers:

  1. root
  2. apache
  3. normal user
  4. All of the above

39. Which of the following is the default option for the LogLevel directive in the Apache config file?

Answers:

  1. alert
  2. debug
  3. info
  4. error
  5. None of the above

40. What is the default filename in the AccessFileName directive in the Apache config file?

Answers:

  1. .acl
  2. .htaccess
  3. .htpasswd
  4. All of the above

41. Which of the following commands will you use to compile and install the Apache Server on Unix or Unix-like systems?

Answers:

  1. ./configure
  2. make
  3. make install
  4. None of the above

42. Which command is used to check the version of the Apache server installed (using an rpm package) on a RedHat Linux system?

Answers:

  1. apache -v
  2. http -v
  3. httpd -v
  4. None of the above

43. If no port number is specified in the ServerName directive, which port number will the server use?

Answers:

  1. Port 80
  2. Port 8080
  3. It will use the Random port.
  4. It will use a port from the incoming request.

44. Which of the following directives allows the configuration of a trailing footer line under server generated documents like FTP directory listing etc.?

Answers:

  1. ServerSignature
  2. ServerTokens
  3. ServerFooter
  4. ServerDirectoryFooter

45. Which of the following directives sets the authorization realm for a directory for HTTP authentication?

Answers:

  1. AuthType
  2. AuthName
  3. AuthUserFile
  4. AuthRealm

46. State whether true or false:

<Location> sections are processed after <Directory> sections and .htaccess files are read after <Files> sections.

Answers:

  1. True
  2. False

47. Which of the following commands will you use to check whether any Apache rpm package is installed on your RedHat Linux system or not?

Answers:

  1. rpm –q apache
  2. rpm –e apache
  3. rpm –ivh apache
  4. None of the above

48. What is the default https port number?

Answers:

  1. 8080
  2. 8000
  3. 443
  4. 563

49. Which of the following is true regarding the ‘apachectl –k restart’ command?

Answers:

  1. It will kill all the parent and the children processes immediately and then restart them.
  2. It will kill all the children processes immediately but not the parent process and then restart new children processes.
  3. It will wait for the children processes to exit after their current requests and then restart both the parent and the children processes.
  4. It will read the config file again.

802 total views, 1 views today